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Plan Making and Imp.

AICP Plan Making & Implementation

QuestionAnswer
The Green Bible States that Plan Making is a 3-part process, which includes: I. Goals and visions II. Analysis of current problems III. Team Building IV. Creation of alternatives a. II and IV only b. All of the above c. All but III c. Plan making is a 3-part process, according to The Green Bible. It includes: 1) Goals and visions 2) Analysis of current problems 3) Creation of alternatives
As part of Visioning & Goal Setting, a __ is a value-based statement, not necessary measurable. It should include purpose, scope and context. goal
As part of Visioning & Goal Setting, a __ is a rule or course of action that indicates how the goals and/or objectives of the plan should be realized. It should include principles, agreements, laws, regulations, and resolutions policy
As part of Visioning & Goal Setting, an __ is more specific, measurable statement of a desired end. It should include location, character, and timing objective
As part of Visioning & Goal Setting, a ___ is a series of related, mission-orientated activities aimed at carrying out a particular goal or policy. It should include initiatives, projects, milestones, costs and responsibilities program
Visioning is also known as __ __. Strategic Planning
___ Planning is used to assist an organization in guiding its future. ___ planning sets goals, objectives, and policies for reaching the set objectives. The ___ Plan should address several major questions: Strategic
__ __ is short term in focus and is specific in accomplishing certain objectives. Strategic planning
A ___ often takes place in multiple sessions in which the group divides into sub-groups, and each sub-group presents its work to the full group as material for future dialog, allowing for quick solution using aptitudes of a diverse group of people. charette
A __ is a technique for consulting w/ stakeholders. It typically involves long meetings w/ municipal officials, developers, & residents. It promotes joint ownership of solutions & attempts to defuse confrontational attitudes between residents &developers. charette
_ _ is a method where expert panel answers questionnaires in 2+ rounds. After each, facilitator anonymously summarizes the experts’ forecasts from the prior round along w/ reasoning. Range of answers decreases & the group converges on a "correct" answer. Delphi Method
True or False? Strategic planning is comprehensive in scope. False. Strategic planning is sometimes used instead of comprehensive planning, but it's not comprehensive in scope. It's helpful in looking at needed organizational changes or a particular problem issue, but can't effectively help plan for a whole city.
__ is a process where citizens attend a series of meetings that provide the opportunity to offer input on how the community could be in the future. Planners use the process to help citizens develop a conception of the future. Visioning
Which of the following would likely have a 20-30 year time horizon? I. Recreation Plan II. Comprehensive Plan III. Visioning Plan a. II only b. II and III c. I and II d. I only b.
A _ _ is the official statement of a legislative body that sets forth its major policies concerning desirable future physical development. It is adopted by the governing body. Comprehensive Plan
Which are key elements of a Comprehensive Plan? a. Demographics b. Land use c. Transportation d. Community facilities e. Infrastructure f. All of the above All of the above!
A developer plans to build a regional shopping mall. In order to determine the cost to extend and maintain infrastructure, provide police service, and transit access, what type of analysis must be performed? Fiscal Impact Analysis (a.k.a. cost-revenue analysis)
The difference between the the cost to extend and maintain infrastructure, provide police service, and transit access (expenditures) vs. the sales, property, and income tax generated from this new development (revenues) is called what? fiscal impact (a.k.a. net fiscal impact)
If a fiscal impact analysis on a new development (most common use for this analysis) finds that expenditures exceed revenues, this results in a ___ ___ ___. negative fiscal impact
If a fiscal impact analysis on a new development (most common use for this analysis) finds that revenues and expenditures are equal the impact is ____ ___ ___. neutral fiscal impact
If a fiscal impact analysis on a new development (most common use for this analysis) finds that revenues are greater than expenditures, this results in a ___ ___ ___. positive fiscal impact
True or false. A fiscal impact analysis can only be done on a new development. False. It can also be used to examine the cumulative impact of land use decisions. For example, if a city is considering an annexation or new zoning policy, a fiscal impact analysis may be conducted.
A fiscal impact analysis finds that a multi-family housing development creates a negative fiscal impact. Should the development be excluded? No. There are many factors that are not fiscally-related. For example, the provision of affordable housing means that employees who work in a community can also live there. This may have more social than economic value.
Average per capita, adjusted per capita, disaggregated per capita, and dynamic are all methods of what? Which is the simplest and most reliable method? Fiscal impact analysis. Average per capita is the simplest and most reliable.
What is the median of 3, 5, and 12? 5
What is the median # from the following: 3, 5, 7, 12, 13, 14, 21, 23, 23, 23, 23, 29, 40, 56 Because we have an even amount of #s, take the two middle numbers (21 and 23). Then find the value half-way between them by adding them together and dividing by 2: 21 + 23 = 44 44 ÷ 2 = 22 Median = 22
When writing a planning report, which of the following is the most important consideration? (A)Audience (B)Graphics (C)Budget (D)Politics A.
The __ Method of fiscal impact analysis applies statistical analysis to time-series data from a jurisdiction. Can determine amt. of sales tax revenue generated per capita from a store & applies it to new development. Requires more data/time to conduct. Dynamic
The ___ Method of fiscal impact analysis estimates the costs and revenues based on major land uses; for example, the cost of servicing a shopping center versus an apartment complex. Disaggregated
The __ __ __ Method of fiscal impact analysis uses the figure calculated by the Avg. Per Capita Method & adjusts it based on expectations about the new development. This relies on subjective judgment. Adjusted Per Capita
The __ __ __ Method of fiscal impact analysis is the simplest, but least reliable. Divides the tot. local budget by existing city pop. to determine average per-capita cost for the juris. Result is multiplied by expected new pop. assoc. w/ new develop. Average Per Capita
A road must be built to service a new $1 million library, but it'll also be used by many others, how does a planner decide how much of the cost of the road should be attributed to this development (this is called cost-splitting)? It can be calculated by determining either the "average cost per capita" or the "capacity." Using 'per capita,' if the library is designed to service 20,000 residents, the cost is divided by 20,000. So, the per capita cost of the road would be $50.
____data describes data where each item is a separate, whole unit, with no fractional values possible. For example, a building has 10 rooms. a. Discrete b. Nominal c. Continuous a. Discrete
___data describes data that is collected and grouped by arbitrary names, numbers or symbols. For example, on a survey you may give a "yes" answer I, and a "no" answer, 0. a. Discrete b. Nominal c. Continuous b. Nominal
__ data is where points are taken along a scale that can be subdivided. E.g., A range of answers on a survey from 'very strongly agree' to 'very strongly disagree' may give you scores of 15. You could derive a mean of 2.5 that would subdivide the data. Continuous
Data can be collected from the U.S. Census, a regional planning agency, website. What types of sources are these? a. secondary source b. primary source a. secondary sources
Data can be collected through a survey, observation, or other similar method. What types of sources are these? a. secondary source b. primary source b. primary source
True or false? Planners typically survey an entire population to assess attitudes and characteristics of the public on a wide range of topics. False. Surveys typically take a sample of a population (e.g. 500 of 5,000 households in a community might be mailed).
Which of the following is true of written surveys? a. They are low-cost and convenient b. They have a high response rate c. They are appropriate when targeting seniors, non-English speakers, and the illiterate. a. Written surveys are low-cost and convenient, allowing people to complete at their leisure. Know that written surveys have a low response rate of around 20%.
Alton, TX is planning public health outreach targeting non-English speakers, and wants a survey with a high and quick response rate. Which may be the best option? a. oral survey b. electronic survey c. Group-administered survey d. Phone survey c. A Group-Administered Survey will accomplish this, but may be hard to get everyone together to complete the survey. One option may be to survey participants at the end of class. This survey method requires a small sample size.
True or False? Drop-off Surveys are identical to mail surveys. False. A Drop-off survey typically has a higher response rate since the "dropper" may have personal contact with the respondent. This method can be expensive due to fuel/time required. The sample is generally smaller than with a mail survey.
True or False. All Oral Surveys are Phone Surveys. False. Oral surveys can be administered on the phone or in person. Note: Oral Phone and in-person interviews can be biased due to interaction with the interviewer.
A planner wants to survey a community's sentiment toward a possible rec. center. The survey contains a list of questions with strict yes/no reply options. Which survey type is this likely? a. oral survey b. Group-administered survey c. Phone survey c. Phone Survey. These allow interviewer to followup for explanation on answers. Highligh variable response rate - depends on the ability to reach respondents. Expensive method due to required time.
What is an inexpensive, popular, survey method that can be administered on a website or via e-mail? Hint: it can generate quick responses & has a higher response rate than written or interview surveys. Electronic surveys. The downside is that you will not reach people without Internet access, which may not be appropriate in "Environmental Justice" communities.
Which of the following would be least appropriate for surveying people’s opinions of the quality of low-income housing? I. oral survey II. phone survey III. group-administered survey IV. electronic survey a. I and III b. I only c. II and IV c. Phone and Electronic Surveys would be least appropriate. These people may not have phone/internet.
Which of the following are map projection methods that allow the Earth to be projected on a flat surface? I. conic II. longitudinal III. cylindrical IV. planar a. I and IV only b. II and IV c. I, III, and IV d. All of the above The 3 basic types of projections are conic, cylindrical, and planar.
The elevation at Point A is 1,254 feet amsl. The elevation at Point B is 1,285 feet amsl. What is the slope? Slope is the change in elevation (1,285-1,254 = 31 feet) divided by the horizontal distance (650 feet). Therefore, 31 ft./650ft. = 0.05 X 100 = 5% Slope
a. A 20,000 square foot parcel has a F.A.R. limit of 0.5. How can it be achieved? b. A 150,000 sf parcel has a F.A.R. limit of 0.4. How can it be achieved? a. Building can't exceed 10,000 sf. The builder can build a 1-story 10,000 sf structure or a 2-story w/ 5,000 sf per floor. b. Builder can build a 1-story 60,000 sf structure or a 2-story w/ 30,000 sf per floor, or 3-story at 20,000 sf per floor.
A ___ distribution is one that is symmetrical around the mean. This is a bell curve. normal
A _____ is the total of a collection. For example, the total number of planners preparing for the 2004 AICP exam. population
A ____ is a subset of the population. For example, 25 of those preparing for the 2004 AICP exam. sample
____ Statistics describe the characteristics of a population. Descriptive
______ Statistics determine characteristics of a population based on observations made on a sample from that population. We infer things about the population based on what is observed in the sample. Inferential
__ __ is the typical or representative value of a dataset. There are several ways to report this statistical aspect, including mean, median, and mode. Central tendency
__is the average of a distribution. The __of (2, 3, 4, 5) would be 3.5 Mean
___is the middle number of a distribution (2, 3, 4, 6, 7) and would be 4 Median
___ is the most frequent number in a distribution (1, 2, 3, 3, 5, 6, 7) and would be 3. Mode
The most appropriate choice for __ __ depends on the situation. E.g., if you want to describe the age of members of a group (2, 12, 15, and 85), you wouldn't pick mean - it would give an unfair picture of the group. Median is more appropriate choice here. central tendency
The appropr. choice (median, mean, mode) for central tendency depends on data type. __ __ is classified into mutually exclusive groups lacking intrinsic order. E.g. race, SSN, sex. "Mode" is the only measure of central tendency that can be used. Nominal data
The appropr. choice (median, mean, mode) for cen. tend. depends on data type. __ __ has values ordered so inferences can be made re: magnitude, where no fixed interval betwn values. E.g. educational status, letter grade on test. Mode & median can be used. Ordinal data
The appropr. choice (median, mean, mode) for central tendency depends on data type. __ __ is data that has an ordered relationship with a magnitude. Temperature is an example. 30 degrees is not twice as cold as 60 degrees. Interval data
The appropr. choice (median, mean, mode) for central tendency depends on data type. __ __ has an ordered relationship and equal intervals. Distance is an example: 3.2 miles is 2X as long as 1.6 miles. Any form of central tendency can be used. Ratio data
A distribution __ to the right has a few high numbers that pull the mean to the right. For example, if you have three $20 million homes in your community, it is likely to skew the mean home value right. skewed
A distribution __ to the left has a few low numbers that pull the mean to the left. For example, on the AICP exam a few people may give up and walk out resulting in a few very low scores, which would skew the mean score to the left. skewed
While in some cases we want to know the central tendency of a dataset, in other cases we want to know the extent to which data differs from each other. This is known as the _____ of a ____. DISPERSION of a DISTRIBUTION
___ is the simplest measure of dispersion. It's the difference between the highest and lowest score in a distribution. If you've completed a survey of residents, you may wish to know that respondents ages ranged from 18 to 62, or in a range of 44 years. Range
In understanding dispersion of a distribution, __ is the average squared difference of scores from the mean score of a distribution. variance
In understanding dispersion of a distribution __ __ is the square root of the variance. Standard Deviation
We want to know the difference in wages among planning department staff. They earn $10, $20, and $35 per hour. What's the mean? What's the variance for each employee? What's the standard deviation is $21.67. So, employee 1 makes ($10 - $21.67) $11
How do you get standard deviation from a given variance? Take the square root of the variance!
How do you calculate variance given a set of #s? 1. Find the differences from the mean. 2. Square each difference. 3. Add up the squared differnces. 4. Divide [the sum of the squared differences] by [the # of samples (n) - 1]:
__ __ is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution. __ __ indicates the degree of sampling fluctuation. The larger the sample size the smaller the __ __. Standard Error
A __ __ gives an estimated range of values which is likely to include an unknown population parameter. The width of the __ __ gives us an idea of how uncertain we are about the unknown parameter. Confidence Interval
A poll finds that the Confidence Interval re: voters favoring Candidate A is 22% (+/-3%) vs. last month's +/-5. What does this tell us? a. The current poll indicates higher certainty re: the 22%. b. The current poll indicates lower certainty re: the 2 a. A Confidence Interval gives an estimated range of values that is likely to include an unknown population parameter. A wider interval may indicate that we need more data before we can make a definitive statement.
A __ __ shows a summarized grouping of data divided into mutually exclusive classes and the # of occurrences in a class. It is a way of showing unorganized data (e.g. results of an election, income for a certain region, student loan amounts, etc.). frequency distribution
Which of the following is NOT a method of estimating and projecting populations and when to apply these methods? I. Linear II. Symptomatic III. Cohort Survival IV. Input-Output V. Step-Down Ratio IV. Input-Output is NOT one of the 4 major methods for estimating ad projecting population.
The __ Method of estimating of population uses the past rate of growth/decline to estimate current or future population. E.g., if the population of a city grew an average of 2% per yr. in the last 20 years, the same rate would be applied to the future. Linear
The __ Method of estimating of population uses available data such as new single family building permits, phone lines, voter registration, and utility connections. If census says 2.5 persons/house, and 100 building permits are issued, add 250 residents. Symptomatic
The __-__ __ Method uses the ratio between the city & county (or larger geo.) pop. at a point in time (e.g. decennial census). So, if the 2000 pop. is 20% of the county pop. and in 2005 we know the county pop. is 20,000, we estimate the pop. at 4,000. Step-Down Ratio
The __ __ Method of estimating of population uses the current population plus natural increase and net migration to calculate a future population. The population is calculated for men and women in specific age groups. Cohort Survival
__ __ is the difference between the # moving in and the # moving out. Multiple ways to calculate, including complex linear models OR apply a simple migration rate ( from state demographer) from previous period to the present projection. Net Migration
Which of the following provides the most accurate population projection? A. Linear Method B. Symptomatic Method C. Step-Down Ratio Method D. Cohort survival method D. Cohort Survival Method. Note: Although it provides the most accurate population projection, it requires a large amount of data.
We want to estimate/project population, but the only data we have is city population and state population. Which method would be most appropriate? A. Linear Method B. Symptomatic Method C. Step-Down Ratio Method D. Cohort survival method C. Step-Down Ratio Method. It uses the ratio between the city & larger geography pop. at a point in time (e.g. decennial census). So, if the 2000 pop. is 20% of the county pop. and in 2005 we know the county pop. is 20,000, we estimate the pop. at 4,000.
A planner is told the # of new utility connects in the ETJ in 2006, and is asked to project pop. in the ETJ. W/ no other data given to him, which method should she choose? A. Symptomatic Method B. Step-Down Ratio Method C. Cohort survival method A. Symptomatic Method. He can check Census website for # of persons per household, then multiply it by the # of new utility connections to estimate population.
Which are not major employment analysis methods? I. Shift-Share Analysis II. Cohort Survival III Economic Base Analysis IV. Progression Analysis V. Input-output Analysis A. I and III B. II and IV C. V only D. III only B. Cohort Survival and Progression Analysis are NOT one of the 3 major employment analysis methods.
In Economic Base Analysis, which refers to activities that can be exported? A. Basic B. Exportable C. Non-Basic D. Local A. Basic
In Economic Base Analysis, which refers to activities that are locally oriented. A. Basic B. Exportable C. Non-Basic D. Local C. Non-Basic
In Economic Base Analysis, a Lq of <1 indicates that: A. The area is exporting. B. The area imports an industry’s products or services. B. A Lq of <1 indicates that an area imports an industry’s products or services.
In Economic Base Analysis, a Lq of >1 indicates that: A. The area is exporting. B. The area imports an industry’s products or services. A. A Lq of >1 indicates the area is exporting.
The total employment change in an industry between 1990 and 2000 is equal to economic growth + proportional shift + differential shift. What type of employment analysis does this describe? Shift-Share Analysis. It analyzes a local economy in comparison with a larger economy. This analysis looks at the differential shift, proportional shift, and economic growth. It uses employment information by sector for two points in time.
This type of employment analysis links suppliers & purchasers to determine economic output of a region. Like economic base analysis, it uses an economy’s structure to determine the future economy. Requires a a lot of data & is expensive. Input-Output Analysis.
This analysis is used to determine employment effect of a project (e.g. an MLB stadium) on a local economy. It can assess a region's economy as a whole. It identifies primary suppliers, intermediate suppliers, intermediate purchasers, & final purchasers. Input-Output Analysis.
Todd, Amy, Aamir, Trish, Trish, Alex. What type of scale (ratio, interval, ordinal, nominal) is this and what measure of central tendency (mean, mode, median) can be used to describe this? Nominal Scale since one uses labels. We use MODE to identify the most common name. We can't provide an "average name" or the "middle name" from the set. If we sort our names alphabetically or by length, we begin to treat the set as an ordinal scale.
A poll shows which alternatives are preferred in order of 1st, 2nd, or 3rd. What type of scale is this (ratio, interval, ordinal, nominal) and what measure of central tendency (mean, mode, median) can be used to describe this? Ordinal. When using an ordinal scale, the central tendency of a group of items can be described by using the group's mode (or most common item) or its median (the middle-ranked item), but the mean (or average) cannot be defined.
A community poll allows residents to respond "very satisfied", "satisfied", "neutral", "unsatisfied", "very unsatisfied." What type of statistical scale measurement does this represent? Ordinal Scale. Remember: when using an ordinal scale, the central tendency of a group of items can be described by using the group's mode (or most common item) or its median (the middle-ranked item), but the mean (or average) cannot be defined.
Which of the following are grouped appropriately? I. Nominal Scale/Mean II. Ordinal Scale/Mode Only III. Interval Scale/Mean/Median/Mode IV. Ratio Scale/Mean Only On III. is correct. Nominal scale can use mode only. Ordinal scale can use mode OR median. Interval Scale and Ratio Scale can use all 3 measures of central tendency.
A community with an average home price of $150,000 just saw the construction of three $20 million homes. How does this affect mean home value? a. Distribution will be skewed to the left b. Distribution will be skewed to the right c. Doesn't affect it b. The high priced homes will skew the mean to the right. Vice versa if instead three $65,000 homes were built.
The __ __ Method forecasts future population based on survival of existing population and births that'll occur. Usually involves 5-year steps. Applied 1x it would give the population 5 yrs ahead; applied 2x it gives population 10 yrs ahead. Cohort Survival (a.k.a. Cohort Component). "Component refers to the 3 "components" of demography (fertility, mortality, migration).
A group of people for purposes of population projection (typically an age group) is called a ____. cohort
Why would a planner access the Vital Statistics of the United States available through the CDC’s National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS)? A. Population Projections B. Net Migration Data C. Birth and Death rates D. All of the Above C. The CDC’s National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS) publishes birth and mortality data by state. This data could be used in applying the Cohort Survival Method of population projection.
A planner is applying the Cohort Survival Method and needs net migration rates. Where should he go? a. CDC’s National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS) b. U.S. Census Bureau c. Metropolitan Planning Office d. A state demographer's office d. Migration rates can be obtained from a state demographic office.
In conducting an economic analysis using the input-output analysis method, a retailer might be an example of what? a. A Primary Supplier b. An Intermediate Supplier c. An Intermediate Purchaser d. A Final Purchaser a. Primary Suppliers don't buy input for production - they typically purchase only final goods (e.g clothes for resale).
In conducting an economic analysis using the input-output analysis method, a manufacturer of auto transmission components might be an example of what? a. A Primary Supplier b. An Intermediate Supplier c. An Intermediate Purchaser d. A Final Purchase b. Intermediate Suppliers sell outputs (e.g. transmission parts) to either intermediate (e.g. whole-transmission manufacturers) or final purchasers (e.g. transmission shops).
In conducting an economic analysis using the input-output analysis method, an auto manufacturer might be an example of what? a. A Primary Supplier b. An Intermediate Supplier c. An Intermediate Purchaser d. A Final Purchase c. Intermediate Purchasers buy outputs from others and use them as inputs (e.g. parts) to produce outputs (e.g. autos).
In conducting an economic analysis using the input-output analysis method, a car buyer might be an example of what? a. A Primary Supplier b. An Intermediate Supplier c. An Intermediate Purchaser d. A Final Purchaser d. Final Purchasers use their inputs (e.g. new car) as final goods.
An ___ is an effective method expressed as a finite list of well-defined instructions for calculating a function. They are used for calculation, data processing, and automated reasoning. algorithm
A __is a type of diagram that represents an algorithm or process, used to analyze, design, document, or manage a process or program. It can give a step-by-step solution to a given problem. Boxes = Process Operations. Arrows = Flow of Control. flowchart
A __ __ is a type of bar chart that illustrates a project schedule. It can illustrate the start/finish dates of the terminal elements and summary elements of a project. Gantt chart
In the 2000 census, approximately 17% of households received the ___ form, while approximately 83% of households received the ___ form. Approximately 17%of households received the long form. Approximately 83% of households received the short form.
Which of the following is a major difference in the 2010 decennial census? a. Fewer people received the long form. b. No one received the long form. c. Unlike the 2000 census, no churches or other groups were recruited to promote participation. b. Only the short form was used in the 2010 census. a and c are not true!
In the 2010 Decennial census, how many questions were asked on the short form (only form)? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 b. 10 questions were on the 2010 census short form.
Which was the first decennial census to allow a respondent to select more than one race to describe themselves? a. 1980 b. 1990 c. 2000 d. 2010 c. The 2000 census was the first to allow a respondent to select more than one race to describe themselves?
What was the response rate to the 1990 & 2000 census mailings? a. 50% b. 55% c. 60% d. 65% e. 85% d. 65% of households responded to the initial mailed census. This was then followed up with phone calls and in-person census takers.
Which describes an area w/ urban nucleus of 50K + people that may/may not contain any individual cities of 50K+, but must have a core w/ a population of 1,000 per square mi.? a. Urban Cluster b. Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA) c. Urbanized Area c. Urbanized Area
Which describes area w/ pop. between 2,500 - 50,000 & density of 1,000 per square mi.? Describes built-up territory around small towns & cities (new for 2000 census). a. Urban Cluster b. Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA) c. Urbanized Area a. Urban Cluster
Which describes area w/ at least 1 city with 50K+ people, or an urbanized area (of 50K+ people), w/ total metropolitan pop. of 100K+. a. Urban Cluster b. Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA) c. Urbanized Area b. MSA
Which describes area meeting the requirements for an MSA and has a population of one million or more and separate component areas that can be identified within the entire area. a. Primary MSA b. Consolidated MSA c. urban cluster d. metropolis a. Primary Metropolitan Statistical Area
Which describes area made up of several PMSAs (e.g. Dallas-Fort Worth area)? a. Primary MSA b. Consolidated MSA c. urban cluster d. metropolis b. Consolidated MSA (CMSA). Dallas and Fort Worth are each Primary MSAs.
Which of the following typically has a population between 2,000 and 8,000 people? a. Block Group b. Block c. Census Tract c. Census Tract. This is the smallest census geography where ALL census information is available.
Which of the following is the smallest level at which the Census data is collected? There are typically 400 housing units per this unit. a. Block Group b. Block c. Census Tract b. Block
Which of the following describes a unit that is only used in 29 states and usually corresponds to a municipality? a. Block Group b. Minor Civil Division (MCD) c. Census Tract b. Minor Civil Division (MCD). *Census County Divisions are used in the 21 states that don’t have MCDs.
__ __ Statistical Area is a unit drawn by tribes that do not have a recognized land area (e.g. reservation). Tribal Designated
__ __ is a term that is under by multiple government programs to determine program eligibility (e.g. Phase II Storm water requirements apply if a city meets the minimum __ __. Also, there is a __ __ needed to qualify to receive CDBG Funds.) Threshold Population
Between 1990 and 2000, which state had the highest and lowest % increase in population? Nevada (highest at 66% change); North Dakota (lowest at 0.5% change)
In the 2000 census, which metro aea had the highest %change from the previous census (1990)? 1. Las Vegas, NV. Followed by 2. Naples, Florida 3. Yuma, Arizona 4. McAllen-Edinburg-Mission, Texas 5. Austin-San Marcos, Texas 6. Fayetteville-Springdale-Rogers, Arkansas 7. Boise, Idaho 8. Phoenix-Mesa, Arizona 9. Laredo, Texas 10. Provo-Orem,
In the 2000 census, which metro aea had the lowest % change from the previous census (1990)? 280. Steubenville-Weirton,OH-WV MSA. Others: 271. Anniston,AL MSA 272. Johnstown,PA MSA 273. Wheeling,WV-OH MSA 274. Alexandria,LA MSA 275. Elmira,NY MSA 276. Pittsfield,MA MSA 277. Binghamton,NY MSA 278. Utica--Rome,NY MSA 279. Grand Forks,ND-MN
When did the American Community Survey begin? How often is data collected? What sample of the US population (%) does it reach? How does it avoid duplication. As of 2006, data available annually for all areas w/ pop. >65K (data reported every 3-5 yrs. for smaller areas). It reaches 2.5% of the US population annually (1 in 40 addresses; about 3 mil. homes). Rotates yearly so no home gets survey >1x every 5 yrs.
Persons born between __ and __ are known as Baby Boomers. This name came about because there was an exceptionally high birth rate during the period. 1946 and 1964
Which of the following refers to people born during the period between 1946 & 1964, which was marked by an exceptionally high birth rate? a. Echo Boom (Generation Y) b. Generation X c. Baby Boomers d. Generation Z c. Baby Boomers
Which of the following refers to people that were born between 1965 and 1976, which was a period of low birth rates? a. Echo Boom (Generation Y) b. Generation X c. Baby Boomers d. Generation Z b. Generation X
Which refers to children of baby boomers, born between 1977 and 2000 (exact years of this generation varies depending on source); generally those born in '80s & '90s? a. Echo Boom (Generation Y) b. Generation X c. Baby Boomers d. Generation Z a. Echo Boom (Generation Y)
Which refers to people born after 2000 (The exact years of this generation vary depending on the source.)? a. Echo Boom (Generation Y) b. Generation X c. Baby Boomers d. Generation Z d. Generation Z
Who published Megalopolis, which described the 300 mi. long urban area between Boston and Wash. D.C.? It's a "many-centered, multi-city, urban area w/ 10 million+, dominated by low-density settlement & complex networks of economic specialization." Jean Gottman published the book "Megalopolis" in 1961. The term "Megacity" refers specifically to the megalopolis areas with more than 10 million people.
Which is not a major component of demographic analysis? a. Race b. Fertility C. Mortality d. Migration a. Race is not one of the 3 major components of demographic analysis. The other 3 are!
In demographic analysis, how do Trends and Projections differ? Trends tell us something about what the past has shown. Projections use past/current data to make forecasts.
In discussing demographic analysis, which of the following refers to desirable future populations based on policies and goals? a. Forecasts b. Projections c. Estimates d. Targets d. targets
In discussing demographic analysis, a measure of a present or past condition that cannot be measured directly because of a lack of resources (data, time, money) is referred to as what? a. Forecasts b. Projections c. Estimates d. Targets c. Estimates
In demographic analysis, conditional statements re: the future that describes what it's likely to hold if assumptions come true (usu. based on statistical models that extrapolate trends into future)? a. Forecasts b. Projections c. Targets b. Projections. Projections can be created through very simple or very complex calculations, the type of calculation used is based on available data and desired use of the projection.
In demographic analysis, conditional statement re: future. Describes the likely future, typically based on statistical models. Reflects & incorporates analyst's decisions & judgment w/ respect to diff. factors. a. Forecasts b. Projections c. Targets a. Forecasts
A __ is the allocation and expenditure of funds to provide service to the public. It sets spending priorities. budget
Plannersville is setting spending priorities for the year 2012. Particularly for everyday expenditures of the city departments (including office supplies, personnel, and maintenance of office space.). What type of budget is this? operating budget
Plannersville is setting spending priorities for 2012. It wants to purchase a new building for its water department staff. It also will allocate funding for a recreation center, a water main, and other major equipment. What type of budget is this? capital budget
How do Capital Budgets and a Capital Improvements Program (CIP) differ? Capital budget is a 1-yr. budget for capital expenditures. A Capital Improvements Program (CIP) is a longer range (5- 10 year) look at the capital needs of a community.
Which of the following are purposes for creating a budget? a. Resource allocation b. Financial control c. Management control d. Efficiency and effectiveness improvement e. Communication tool f. All of the above f. All of the above
Which of the following is not a type of budgeting methods used by planners? a. Zero-Base Budgeting (ZBB) b. Planning, Programming, Budgeting Systems (PPBS) c. Special Increment Budgeting d. Performance-Based budgeting e. Line Item Budgeting c. Special Increment Budgeting is not a budgeting method!
Which of the following laws dealt with Private Nuisances? a.) Bove V. Donner-Hanna Coke Corp b.) Mugler V. Kansas c.) Nectow V. City of Cambridge? Answer: a.) Bove V. Donner-Hanna Coke Corp. The physical nature, social value, extent, and duration of the nuisance are considerations, as well whether the plaintiff “came to the nuisance.”
Is "aesthetics" a valid purpose (rational basis test) for eminent domain? Yes. This was decided in Burman v. Parker (1954, US Supreme Court)
A judicial order that strikes down a regulation that results in a taking is called: a. writ of domain b. writ of eminence c. writ of moratorium d. writ of mandamus d. writ of mandamus
The court case that provided monetary relief to landowner that suffered taking at hands of a land use regulation was: a. Metromedia v. San Diego b. First English Evangelical v. County of L.A. c. Welch v. Swasey b. First English Evangelical Lutheran Church of Glendale v. County of Los Angeles (1987, US Supreme Court) first required that govts pay for the "temporary taking" in the time between the loss of property & the write of mandamus.
Which of the following are 1st amendment cases? a. First English Evang. Luth. Chrch of Glendale v. County of Los Angeles b. City of Renton v. Playtime Theaters c. Metromedia v. City of San Diego d. Members of City Council v. Taxpayers for Vincent b, c, and d. Remember that First English is a "takings" case (re: temporary takings), NOT a 1st Amendment (Free Speech/Expression) case.
Which Supreme Ct. takings case (zoning) ruled that zoning ordinances are a reasonable extension of police power and are constitutional? Said challengers in due process case must show that the law in question is discriminatory & has no rational basis. Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Company (1926). This was the 1st significant and landmark case re: the relatively new practice of zoning, and served to substantially bolster zoning ordinances in towns nationwide.
In which 1915 Supreme Ct. Case (re: zoning) did the court first approve regulating the location of land uses? Hadacheck v. Sebastian
What 1909 Supreme Ct. Case (re: zoning) first approved building height controls? Welch v. Swasey
What 1912 Supreme Ct. Case (re: zoning) first approved setback regulations? Eubank v. City of Richmond
Which 1922 Supreme Ct. case (re: land use) found that a regulation can constitute a taking (prior to this, taking only meant physical seizure or occupancy by a government). Pennsylvania Coal Company v. Mahon. In this case the Court ruled that whether a regulatory act constitutes a taking requiring compensation depends on the extent of diminution in the value of the property.
Which 1968 Supreme Ct. case (re: land use) ruled that Congress can regulate the sale of private property to prevent racial discrimination? Jones v Mayer. Reversing many precedents, the Sup. Ct. held that the 1866 Civ. Rights Act prohibits private/state-backed discrimination & that the 13th Amend. auth. Congress to prohibit private acts of discrimination.
Which case (re: growth management) involved a points system where development proposal would earn points by providing public utilities, drainage facilities, parks, roads, etc.? Developers increase their total points by providing facilities themselves. GOLDEN v. PLANNING BOARD OF THE TOWN OF RAMAPO (1972, New York State Court of Appeals). Using this system, a proposal would be approved after a point threshold was reached. This system has since been copied.
Which case (re: growth management) upheld quotas on the annual number of building permits? SONOMA v. PETALUMA (1975, US Court of Appeals for the Fourth Circuit)
Which case (re: growth management) upheld temporary moratoriums on building permits in California? ASSOCIATED HOME BUILDERS OF GREATER EAST BAY v. CITY OF LIVERMORE (1976, California Supreme Court)
Which case (re: growth management)approved an ordinance requiring neo-traditional design elements an appropriate use of the police power? RESTIGOUCHE v. JUNIPER (US Court of Appeals)
Which U.S. Supreme Court case (re: environmental policy) overturned an approval for a nuclear power plant from the AEC because the AEC did not follow the requirements of NEPA. This case gave the requirements of NEPA teeth. CALVERT CLIFFS COORDINATING COMMITTEE v. U.S. ATOMIC ENERGY COMMISSION (1971, US Supreme Court)
Which case (re: religion) held that zoning can't be used to give churches an advantage over competing commercial establishments. It overturned ordinance allowing a church to operate a day care in a zoning district where commercial day cares were banned. COHEN v. DES PLAINES (1990, US Supreme Court)
Which case (re: religion) held that the facially neutral regulation of religious services is OK, as long as it doesn’t hinder the religion itself. This case approved a ban of peyote in Native American religious services. OREGON v. SMITH (1990, US Supreme Court)
Which is not one of the 5 approaches to EIA? a. Ad Hoc Approach b. Checklist Approach c. Standard Approach d. Matrix Approach e. Network Approach f. Cartographic Approach c. Standard Approach is NOT one of the 5 approaches to EIA.
Which of the following EIA approaches involves obtaining “best estimates?” a. Ad Hoc Approach b. Checklist Approach c. Matrix Approach d. Network Approach e. Cartographic Approach The Ad Hoc Approach involves obtaining “best estimates.”
Which of the following EIA approaches involves using an appropriate checklist? a. Ad Hoc Approach b. Checklist Approach c. Matrix Approach d. Network Approach e. Cartographic Approach b. Checklist Approach
Which of the following EIA approaches uses a table, with competing alternatives? a. Ad Hoc Approach b. Checklist Approach c. Matrix Approach d. Network Approach e. Cartographic Approach c. Matrix Approach
Which of the following EIA approaches involves tracing an action through multiple iterations? It is good at identifying secondary impacts. a. Ad Hoc Approach b. Checklist Approach c. Matrix Approach d. Network Approach e. Cartographic Approach d. Network Approach
Which of the following EIA approaches involves use of several maps – each containing relevant environmental information – in an overlay fashion. a. Ad Hoc Approach b. Checklist Approach c. Matrix Approach d. Network Approach e. Cartographic Approac e. Cartographic Approach
Under Growth Mgmt. Techniquies, which is NOT 1 of the 5 primary characteristics of urban growth that a growth management system can address? a. rate of growth b. controversy " " c. amount " " d. type " " e. location " " f. quality " " b. controversy of growth
Rate, amount, type, location, and quality are the 5 primary characteristics of growth. What are 3 (of MANY) examples of secondary characteristics (i.e. impacts)? environmental, fiscal, or regional parity impacts
A concurrency-based approach to growth management does what? a. ensures there is adequate funding b. limits development to areas w/ adequate public infrastructure c. plans growth concurrent with other activities b. A concurrency-based approach to growth management simply limits development to areas w/ adequate public infrastructure. The Town of Ramapo, New York produced an influential concurrency-based growth management system.
The Town of Ramapo, New York is most closely related to what topic? a. Wetlands b. Concurrency-based approach to Growth Management c. eminent domain d. euclidean zoning b. In the '70s, adopted a zoning ordinance to make develop. permits contingent on exist. utilities, drainage, prks, rd access, firehouses. Point system for permit approval. System dumped in '80s, but started wave of no/slow-growth mgmt prgrams.
Which CA city, following the lead of Ramapo, set a simpleannual quota on building permits at 500 per year beginning in '71 (prior year, it issued >2,000 building permits!) as a growth management technique?. Petaluma, CA (just north of San Fran.). In 1975, the Ninth U.S. Circuit Court of Appeals upheld Petaluma’s quota system in Construction Industry Association of Sonoma County v. City of Petaluma.
Which CA court case (re: growth management & concurrency) upheld Petaluma’s quota system, which set a maximum # of annual building permits that could be approved? Construction Industry Association of Sonoma County v. City of Petaluma (1975, Ninth US Circuit Court of Appeals)
Which court case (re: growth management & concurrency) upheld a temporary moratorium on building permits? Associated Home Builders of the Greater East Bay v. City of Livermore (1976, California Supreme Court). Livermore had imposed the moratorium until certain performance criteria were met for the city as a whole.
The State of Florida’s concurrency law prohibits new development unless adequate infrastructure is (or soon will be) in place. This is an example of a ___-Based approach to Growth Management. Concurrency
Which is NOT 1 of the 8 essential steps in budgeting process? a. Fiscal analysis & policy choices b. Expenditure est. c. Review of expenditure est. d. Revenue est. e. Budgetary forecasting f. The Budg. Document g. Review & adoption h. Execution All 8 are essential steps!
Which budget type is better suited for managing? a. line item budget b. performance budget b. Performance Budgets. Unlike traditional line item budget (divides expenditures into simple classes - personnel, equipment, insurance), in these expenditures r organized by svcs provided (police, parks, etc) and eval. stndrds r set for each service.
The Planning Programming Budgetary System (PPBS), Zero-Based Budgeting (ZBB), and Dayton System (“Program Strategies”) are examples of what? Performance budget models
Which performance budgeting model (1) focuses on fundamental objectives or purposes of a program, (2) explicitly identifies future implications of current budgeting decisions, (3) considers all costs, &(4) systematically analyzes alternative programs. Planning Programming Budgetary System (PPBS). Although PPBS was expected to revolutionize municipal decision making, it did not because it was too complex.
Which performance budgeting model, developed by Texas Instruments in the '70s, works against the tradition of taking last year’s budget as a given, and adding a little for inflation and expanding programs? Zero-Base Budgeting (ZBB). In this system, “decision units” are isolated; decision units are analyzed into “decision packages;” decision packages are prioritized by mgmt; and budget is compiled based on available resources & the above prioritization.
Which performance budgeting model is a simplified combination of PPBS and ZBB that has been far more influential among larger municipalities than either one of its parents. The Dayton System (“Program Strategies”). It typically lists programs as rows, and categories (e.g. responsible departments, necessart staff time, the allocations from last year’s budget, & allocations in this year’s budget) as columns.
Texas Instruments is associated with which Performance Budgeting model? a. PPBS b. ZBB c. The Dayton System b. ZBB. In this system, “decision units” are isolated; decision units are analyzed into “decision packages;” decision packages are prioritized by mgmt; and budget is compiled based on available resources & the above prioritization.
Who coined the phrase: "a budget is “goals with price tags attached." a. Saul Alinsky b. Ian McHarg c. Aaron Wildavsky c. Aaron Wildavsky
True/False. Capital improvements program (CIP) and capital improvements budget (CIB) are identical with regard to time frame and legal significance. False. CIB refers to facilities programmed for "next fiscal year" while a CIP refers to improvements scheduled for a 4-5 yr period. The 1-yr. budget may become part of legally adopted annual operating budget. Longer-term program has no legal significance.
Should Capital improvements programming include expenditures for staff payroll, etc.? How about for police cruisers? No. Capital improvements programming should include only expenditures for "physical facilities" with relatively long lifespans.
When a detailed schedule of capital facility projects and financing methods is prepared and executed, this is referred to as _____. Programming
Capital improvements programming is a three phase process involving: I. Zoning II. Planning III. Financing IV. Programming a. I only b. II and IV only c. all, but II d. all, but I d. all but I. Cap. Impr. Prog. involves Planning (needs for cap. facilities estimated/compared), Financing (financ. alts. for chosen facilities are analyzed/compared), and Programming (schedule of projects & financing methods is prepared & executed).
T/F. TIF program doesn't need to be established under guidelines of state authorizing legislation. False. A TIF program MUST be established under the guidelines of state authorizing legislation.
__ is a Public Financing Tool that creates a district around blighted area; __ bonds issued to redevelop area, after which the additional property tax revenue earned by the reassessed district (tax increment) are used to retire the bonds (loan payoff). TIF. bonds. The additional revenues can't be used by the involved municipalities, school districts, and special taxing authorities until the TIF bonds are retired.
Under Public Financing Tools, __ are monies given to a recipient with no expectation of repayment, but generally have conditions attached. Grants. E.g. CDBG rogram has specific guidelines that must be followed in spending the money.
Under Public Financing Tools, __ __ are sometimes called “the levy.” This is $ raised thru traditional taxing methods. With the exception of special taxes (i.e. assessment districts, shade trees, etc.) there are no limits on how the $ can be spent. Current revenues
Under Public Financing Tools, __ __ are placed aside for EMERGENCY PURPOSES" or "when an expenditure is needed that simply can't be handled by the current budget." Use of this $ should be limited to these two situations! Reserve funds
Public Financing Tools: Under __ __ bonds, the FULL TAXING POWER of the involved municipality, school district, or special taxing authority is pledged to retire these bonds. Thus, they may require voter approval. General obligation
Under Public Financing Tools, __ __ are usually sold to finance projects that'll produce revenues that will be used to retire the bonds. NOT backed by full taxing power of municipality, ISD, or special taxing authority (don't require voter approval). Revenue bonds. These are not usually included in state mandated debt limits. However, they usually involve a higher interest rate.
Under Public Financing Tools, "__-__ bonds with call provisions" bonds allow involved municipality, ISD, or special taxing authority to call the bonds back when interest rates are lower. The bonds are then re-issued at the lower interest rate. Put-Option. Both general obligation and revenue bonds can be issued in this manner. Note that bond ratings (and thus, the involved interest rates) can also be lowered by the use of bond insurance.
Under Public Financing Tools, a __-__ arrangement is where a private company builds a facility or provides a piece of equipment. The involved government then rents-to-own the item. Lease-purchase
Under Public Financing Tools, a __ __ __ or district is where a geographical district is delineated. Res. & bus. in the district are assessed a special tax, the proceeds of which are used to fund the involved project or purchase. Special taxing authority. Note that too many overlapping districts can limit a community’s bond ratings and borrowing power. Intergovernmental bonding committees can be used to coordinate these districts to some degree.
Under Public Financing Tools, a __ __ is where a special tax is assessed on those who will benefit from the project or purchase being financed. Special assessment
Under Public Financing Tools, __ __ are used to fund the project or purchase being financed. Sometimes, indirect general obligation bonds are used to back up these fees. User fees. These bonds pledge the full taxing power of the involved municipality, school district, or special taxing authority to repay the debt if the user fees are insufficient.
Which is the main source of income for local governments in the United States? a. user fees b. tax increment financing c. general obligation bonds d. property taxes d. property taxes
Which is the main source of income for school districts in the United States? a. user fees b. property taxes c. general obligation bonds d. income tax b. property taxes
True or false. In addition to a property’s assessed value, the local mileage rate is used to determine the amount of property taxes earned by a particular property in a given year. True!
Which is an example of a regressive tax? I. income tax II. sales tax III. property tax a. I and II b. II only c. II and III d. all of the above c. II and III. The term is frequently applied in reference to fixed taxes, where every person has to pay the same amount of money.
Which is an example of a progressive tax? I. income tax II. sales tax a. I only b. II only c. all of the above a. I only
In taxation in general, “__ __” means that people in equal economic situations are taxed equally. horizontal equity
In taxation in general, “__ __” means that people in unequal economic situations are taxed unequally. vertical equity
__ __ is an excessive amount of land is zoned for uses that generate more taxs and less gov't expenses. Ind./comm. facilities tend to be most profitable land uses to govt's that depend on the property tax, while low income housing is least profitable. fiscal zoning. This is seen as a disadvantage of property taxes. Note that sales taxes can also foster fiscal zoning.
Which are most likely items to review in beginning review of a development project? I. the land (soil, topo, geo) II. racial composition III. natural and human geography IV. business climate a. I only b. II and III c. IV only d. I and III only d. I and III only
Large tree specimens, unique vegetation, water features, wildlife issues, sun angles, wind direction, and other natural elements are examples of what aspect of background info that would be collected in beginning a development project review? The Natural Geography
Physical features (exist. houses, old slabs, roads, trails, rails, util., & schools) and non-physical elements (transp. mode choices, historical significance, econ. impacts, demogr., deed restrictions, & the compr. plan) are referred to as the __ __. Human Geography. This background info would be collected at the beginning of a development project review.
Under the legal process for development approval, which party would approve the development plan? a. planner b. planning body c. governing (elected) body c. governing (elected) body. The PLANNER does not have approval authority. Often, he makes a recommendation to a PLANNING BODY that is in turn charged only with power to recommend to the GOVERNING (elected) BODY for the community.
Can a development plan be approved without being available for inspection? No. Due process requires that all parties have opportunity to be heard, and that development plans be available for inspection.
True or False. Once a development plan is approved, the decision is final and can't be appealed by any aggrieved party. False. Due process requires that all development plan decisions can be appealed by any aggrieved party.
Which of the following are approaches to Program Evaluation? I. Pragmatic II. Symptomatic III. Adaptive IV. Regressive V. Cognitive a. I and III b. I, III, and V c. all of the above b. I, III, and V. Symptomatic refers to a method of estimating population growth (using # of new building permits, etc.). Regressive refers to taxes where everyone is taxes the same regardless of income (e.g. sales tax).
The __ approach to Program Evaluation tends to be constituent-based and short-term. It seeks immediate solutions to problems to pacify the constituency without much thought to the long-term outcome. This approach is often taken by elected officials. Pragmatic. Remember, pragmatic is defined as "practical as opposed to idealistic."
The __ approach to Program Evaluation seeks to make incremental changes in a flawed policy to make progress to achieve a long-term goal. While a long-term goal is envisioned, it oftentimes is not defined or clearly recognized. Adaptive
The __ approach to Program Evaluation seeks to define the problem(s) at hand, then define long term goal(s) before making any changes. It results in a well-patterned path for overcoming problems, but is SLOW in implementing and adapting to change. Cognitive
Which of the following are TYPES (not Approaches) to Program Evaluation? I. Positive Analysis II. Cognitive Analysis III. Adaptive Analysis IV. Normative Analysis a. all of the above b. II and III c. I and IV Trick Question! II and III are Approaches, not TYPES of Program Evaluation. The answer is c. I and IV (Positive Analysis and Normative Analysis are the 2 TYPES of Program Evaluation).
This "type" of Program Evaluation is purely descriptive in nature. It merely defines and describes the current situation and direction. It answers the basic question as to whether the program or policy is achieving the desired effect or outcome. Positive Analysis
This "type" of Program Evaluation is more prescriptive than the other type. It forecasts outcomes and alternatives and make specific recommendations on a course of action. Normative Analysis. It's more prescriptive than Positive Analysis.
In which type of planning agency is the agency a department within the municipality’s executive branch, where the planning director reports to municipality’s chief executive, and the planning commission merely has an advisory role? The Planning Department
Which type of planning agency type is the "traditional planning agency form" where planning commission members are appointed by the governing body or the chief executive, and agency staff are only responsible to the planning commission? The Independent Planning Commission. Note: Intended to isolate planning from politics. Robert Walker’s 1941 "The Planning Function in Urban Government" argued that planning should be closer to municipality’s exec. branch to be effective.
In which planning agency type are planning, code enforcement, economic development, & housing activities grouped together in agency similar to the Planning Dept.? The Community Development Commission. Note: Although planning is more closely linked to implementation in this form, economic development concerns often incorporate planning. The Community Development Commission was described by Louise Mercuro.
The 'Separate Line and Staff Department' agency form separates 'Line' and 'Staff' functions. Which planning department performs policy analysis for governing body, chief executive, the other municipal departments? Staff Planning Department. Separate Line and Staff Departments were described by described by Louise Mercuro.
The 'Separate Line and Staff Department' agency form separates 'Line' and 'Staff' functions. Which Planning Dept. performs subdivision reviews, zoning ordinance amendments, & code enforcement. Line Planning Department. Separate Line and Staff Departments were described by Louise Mercuro.
Which is not advantage of breaking a planning agency into departments or sub-units? a. Promote efficiency by making indiv. responsib. clearer & developing indiv. expertise b. Minimize long-range planning activities interruptions c. increased flexibil d. This can actually reduce flexibility, in addition to a lost comprehensive point of view by isolated staff members; and the agency’s organization may begin to dictate its work program.
A planning agency divided into departments or sub-units such as transportation planning, land use planning, CDBG, subdivision reviews is divided by ___.) Function. As opposed to division by 'process,' 'time,' or 'area.'
A planning agency divided into departments or sub-units such as "the steps necessary to the agency’s work, such as research and development or demographic analysis" is divided by ___. Process. As opposed to division by 'function,' 'time,' or 'area.'
A planning agencies divided into departments or sub-units such as "current planning, long-range planning" is divided by ___. Time. As opposed to division by 'function,' 'process,' or 'area.'
staff members are assigned to geographic A planning agencies divided into departments or sub-units based on areas within the involved municipality is divided by ___. Area. As opposed to division by 'function,' 'process,' or 'time.'
Created by: samblnc