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135 FINAL

QuestionAnswer
which nt is primarily associated with addiction? dopamine
define tolerance decreased effect of drug with continued use
define physical dependence neurological adaptation to the continued presence of the drug, req continued use of the drug, l/t withdrawal synd
define addiction obsessive desire for continued adminof a drug, even wh consequences may be deleterious
what are the effects of nicotine? alerting w/ anxiolytic effects
what sx are assoc with nicotine withdrawal synd? irritability, impatience, hostility anxiety dysphoria, depressed mood difficulty concentrating restlessness decreased HR increased appetite and weight gain
what are the initial sx of opioid abstinence synd? within 6-12hr: craving, pupillary dilation, restlessness, irritability, sweating, piloerection, increased pain sensitivity, nnv, muscle cramps and hyperreflexia, increased BP, dysphoria, insomnia
what are the long-term sx of opioid abstinence synd? anx, insomnia, craving
name 4 agents used for management of opioid abstinence synd methadone buprenorphine naltrexone clonidine
what is the danger in treating mixed dependency w/ opioids and CNS depressants? using antagonists of either type (naloxone for opioids or flumazenil for CNS depressants) can increase the risk of seizures
what is the MOA of cocaine's effects? reuptake inhibitor of DA, NE, 5HT, and Na+ channel blocker
what are the effects of cocaine? intense euphoria, cardiac stimulation, tolerance, and addiction
what CNS stimulant is the closest pharmacological mimic to cocaine? modafinil
what is the MOA of methamphetamine? DA releaser, moderate reuptake inhibition
what are the cannabinoid receptors and where are they located? CB-1 CNS CB-2 peripheral
what is the endogenous cannabinoid ligand? anandamide
name three psychomimetics MDMA LSD PCP
what is MDMA and what does it do? methylenedioxymethamphetamine, "ecstasy" synthetic amphetamine-like agent, px perceptual distortions
what is LSD and what does it do? lysergic acid diethylamide typical "hallucinogen" px by fermentation, px perceptual distortions, bizarre sensory anomalies and elation
what is PCP and what does it do? what is its MOA? phencyclidine, px muscular rigidity, aggression, abnl sensory processing, decreased pain sensation MOA: NMDA antagonist w/ sig anticholinergic activity
what serious side effects can PCP induce? high doses induce rhabdomyolysis, seizures, coma
what is flunitrazepam? Rohypnol, a potent anesthetic, hypnotic, muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant which px anterograde amnesia
what is GHB? gamma-hydroxybutyrate: GABA metabolite and GABA-B agonist, px profound disinhibition, and anterograde amnesia
what is the MOA of caffeine? adenosine antagonism in the CNS
what are the effects of caffeine? increased wakefulness and alertness
what are amphetamines used for? used in management of ADD, narcolepsy, and weight loss
what is the MOA of amphetamines? enhanced release of NE, DA, 5HT in the mesolimbic system and other areas of the brain
what are the effects of amphetamines? alertness and decreased sense of fatigue, increased concentration and focus, euphoria, decreased appetite, decreased sensitivity to pain
name 4 amphetamines metamphetamine (Desoxyn) methylphenidate (Ritalin) dexmethylphenidate (Focalin) pemoline (Cylert)
which drugs are used for work-shift d/o and narcolepsy? modafinil (Provigil) and armodafinil (Nuvigil)
how does modafinil work? facilitates multiple nt activities in the brain, incl NE, DA, 5HT; without direct effects on receptor function
what are the side effects of modafinil? rash, Stevens-Johnson synd, and psychiatric disturbances
name 5 CNS stimulants used as appetite suppresants phentermine (Adipex-P, Fastin) diethylpropion (Tenuate) sibutramine (Meridia) phendimetrazine (Bontril) benzphetamine (Didrex)
why can't sibutramine be used with glaucoma? increases IOP
how long can appetite suppressants be used? 1-2 wks use
what are the side effects of appetite suppressants? similar to amphetamines: HTN, psych disturbances, increased risk of seizure in pts w/ hx of seizure d/o
which spasmolytic agent is used for spasticity assoc/ neurodegeneration? baclofen (Lioresal)
how does baclofen work? analog of GABA, inhibits GABA-B receptors also inhibits glutaminergic activity
what alpha2 adrenergic agonist treats spasticity and how does it work? tizanidine (Zanaflex) inhibits corticospinal stimulation of motor neurons assoc/ spasticity
what are the side effects of tizanidine? drowsiness, hypotension, dry mouth, asthenia (weakness/tiredness)
which anticonvulsant is used in spasticity d/o's? gabapentin (Neurontin)
which agent affects calcium release and by interacting with which receptor? dantrolene (Dantrium) inhibits RyR1-mediated calcium release in the SR
why is dantrolene rarely used? causes liver damage
how does botulinum toxin work? inhibits vesicular release of ACh, can tx group muscle spasticity by direct injection
name 6 centrally acting muscle relaxants carisoprodol (Soma) cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) chlorzoxazone (Paraflex) metaxalone (Skelaxin) methocarbamol (Robaxin) orphenadrine (Norflex)
what is the major side effect of centrally acting muscle relaxants? sedation is strong
what is Alzheimer's Dz char by? impairment of memory and cognitive function, involving hippocampal region loss of cholinergic neurons and excessive glutaminergic activity (NMDA) amyloid plaques in the brain
what agents are used to treat Alzheimer's Dz? ChE inhibitors donepezil (Aricept) rivastigmine (Exelon) galantamine (Razadyne) tacrine (Cognex) NMDA antagonists memantine (Namenda)
what is ALS? amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, a progressive and fatal spasticity d/o resulting fr degeneration of ventral horn spinal motor neurons and assoc cortical neurons
what drug is used to treat ALS and how does it work? riluzole (Rilutek) inhibits glu activity, incl glu release inhibits voltage-gated Na+ channels
what are the adverse effects of riluzole? GI adverse effects and hepatoxicity
what is MS? multiple sclerosis, c/b monocyte infiltration and T-cell rxns to myelin antigens; autoimmune
what drugs are used to treat MS? glucocorticoids interferon beta-1a (Avonex) - reduces T-cell activity glatiramer (Copaxone) - induces T-cells to secrete cytokines which reduce lesion px
what is Huntington's Dz char by? loss of GABAergic neurons in the striatum loss of fine motor mov't, causes tremor, progressing to abrupt intermitting and involuntary mov't
what is Parkinson's Dz char by? bradykinesia (difficulty initiating mov't) muscular rigidity (struggle to move) resting tremor (subsides w/ intent/mov't) abnl posture and gait, facial exp micrographia
what is Parkinson's Dz caused by? degeneration of DA neurons in the SN, l/t decreased innervation of basal ganglia and increased cholinergic influence; can be induced by drugs
what are the goals of pharmacological tx of PD? pharm support of DA funct in the SN reduction of cholinergic influence
what are the four classes of drugs which enhance DA function? precursors to DA modification of DA transport inhibition of DA metabolism DA agonists
which drug is a DA precursor? L-DOPA/carbidopa (Sinemet) carbidopa is a DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor
what are the side effects of L-DOPA? nnv, psych disturbances, dystonias and involuntary muscle mov't, orthostatic hypotension and arrhythmias; may l/t malignant melanoma, may lower seizure threshold
what is neuroleptic malignant synd? increased body temp, muscular rigidity, tachycardia, sweating
which PD agent may cause cancer? L-DOPA may stimulate malignant melanoma should screen for lesions prior to initiation of therapy
which agent modifies DA transport? amatadine (Symmetrel)
how does amatadine work? increases DA release and inhibits reuptake
what are the side effects of amantadine? nausea, psychiatric disturbances, livedo reticularis, orthostatic hypotension and arrhythmias, may lower seizure threshold
which agents inhibit DA metabolism? entacapone (Comtan), tolcapone (Tasmar), selegiline (Eldepryl), rasagiline (Azilect)
how does entacapone work? inhibits COMT
which agent is entacapone used with? L-DOPA/carbidopa
how is entacapone eliminated? biliary excretion
what are the side effects of entacapone? diarrhea, dyskinesia, orthostatic hypotension, hallucinations
how does tolcapone differ from entacapone? tolcapone is older is metabolized by 2A6 and 3A4 w/ sig renal excretion can l/t fulminant liver failure interferes w/ warfarin metabolism
how does selegiline work? inhibits MAO-B
what are the side effects of selegiline? insomnia, HA, dizziness, nausea, euphoria, increased ADEs of L-DOPA
which agents are DA agonists? bromocriptine (Parlodel), pergolide (Permax), pramipexole (Mirapex), and ropinirole (Requip)
what are bromocripting and pergolide? ergot alkaloid DA aognists
what are pramipexole and ropinirole? non-ergot derivative DA agonists
what is the advantage of non-ergot derivative over ergot alkaloid DA agonists? non-ergot derivative DA agonists have: fewer pulm effects lower incidence of seizure and HTN easier to titrate more prominent narcoleptic synd (drawback)
what agents can be added to PD therapy to control tremors? anticholinergics: benztropine (Cogentin), trihexyphenidyl (Artane), diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
what are the effects of EtOH? enhancement of inhibitory pathways (disinhibition): loss of social inhibitions, memory loss, intellectual deficit, mood swings, emotional outbursts; loss of motor/sensory control; hypnosis and respiratory depression
what is the mechanism of EtOH's CNS effects? enhanced GABAergic effect on Cl- channels (enhancement of inhibitory pathways) inhibited glutamine activation of NMDA channels (loss of excitatory pathways)
what order is EtOH metabolism? zero-order at 120mg/kg/hr
what is special about EtOH metabolism? it has caloric value because it is metabolized to acetate which can enter the TCA cycle
what genetic predisposition will increase CNS effects of EtOH? less active acetaldehyde DH isoform decreases conversion of aldehyde to acetate
describe the breakdown of EtOH to entrance in the TCA cycle EtOH converted by ADH to formaldehyde formaldehyde converted by acetaldehyde DH to acetate acetate converted by thiokinase to acetyl-CoA acetyl-CoA can enter the TCA cycle
what are the CV effects of EtOH? cutaneous vasodilation (flush) l/t enhanced heat loss increased oxygen consumption and myocardial ischemia increased intracranial pressure arrhythmias cardiomyopathy inhibition of platelet aggregation
what are the GI effects of EtOH? increased GI secretions increased gastric damage increased ulcerations of the GI tract and d/o of the colon increased incidence of pancreatitis
what are the hepatic effects of EtOH? EtOH reduces fatty acid oxidation and promotes hepatic fat accumulation acetaldehyde is directly hepatotoxic
what are the teratogenic effects of EtOH? Fetal Alcohol Syndrome: reduces intellectual ability and causes facial abnl increased spontaneous abortion low birth weight
what effects does EtOH have on sexual function? inhibition of erection and ejaculation in males testicular atrophy and infertility chronically
what hematological effects does EtOH have? depressed leukocyte infiltration marrow suppression anemia
how do you treat acute EtOH intoxication? treat respiratory depression and hypothermia hemodialysis if necessary
what agent is used for EtOH aversion therapy? disulfiram (Antabuse)
what sx does acetaldehyde synd produce? vasodilation, cramping, abd pain, nnv, blurred vision, vertigo, confusion, hypotension, CP, syncope
how is the median lethal dose of EtOH affected by development of tolerance? median lethal does d/n change
what sx are produced by EtOH abstinence/withdrawal synd? anx, tremors, sleep in 3-72hr cramps, hyperreflexia, HTN hallucination, confusion, disorientation delirium, CV collapse, death in 24-72hr
how do you treat acute EtOH abstinence synd? readministration of EtOH or use of another CNS depressant like a long-acting benzodiazepine
how do you treat chronic EtOH abuse? correction of fluid and electrolyte disturbances, nutrition deficits thiamine benzodiazepine clonidine, naltrexone, acamprosate
why is thiamine used to treat chronic EtOH abuse? to reverse or prevent Wernicke-Korshakoff synd (ataxia, memory loss, neuromuscular degeneration)
what drugs are used to reduce cravings and autonomic manifestations of EtOH dependence? clonidine, naltrexone, acamprosate
what sx does MeOH toxicity cause? CNS depression and visual field disturbances blindness d/t formate px
what agent is used to treat MeOH toxicity? fomepizole (Antizol)
how does fomepizol work? inhibits conversion of alcohol to aldehyde
what are the sx of ethylene glycol toxicity? CNS depression, acidosis (hyperventilation), oxalate-induced renal failure
what does "sedative" mean? anxiolytic
what does "hypnotic" mean? sleep-inducing
what is the progression of pharmacological effects for sedative-hypnotics? anxiolytic hypnosis/sleep respiratory depression CV collapse w/ or w/o seizures death
how do barbiturates work? activation of inhibitory GABA Cl- channels
name 3 barbiturate drugs phenobarbital (long onset, anticonvulsant) thiopental (ultrashort onset, used for anesthesia) secobarbital (used in migraines)
what effects to barbiturates produce? respiratory depression, sensory/motor impairment, tolerance/physical dependence; may intensify pain; px a barbiturate hangover
what is the most common sedative-hypnotic? (class) benzodiazepines
how do benzodiazepines work? enhancement of inhibitory GABA Cl- channels
what are the effects of benzodiazepines? anxiolytic, tolerance/physical dependence; benzodiazepine hangover; anterograde amnesia ("conscious sedation"); respiratory depression generally not seen in outpatient dosing
which benzodiazepines do not have active metabolites? lorazepam (Ativan) oxazepam
what drug is a benzodiazepine antagonist? flumazenil (Romazicon)
what is the danger in using flumazenil? if pt is physically dependent on benzodiazepines then flumazenil can induce seizures/withdrawal synd
which benzodiazepine class only has a hypnotic effect? benzodiazepine alpha1 agonists
name 3 benzodiazepine-alpha1 agonists zolpidem (Ambien) zaleplon (Sonata) eszopiclone (Lunesta)
name a melatonin agonist ramelteon (Rozerem)
what are the side effects of melatonin agonists? HA and hangover
which sedative-hypnotic is a 5HT1A/D2 agonist? buspirone
what are the effects of buspirone? (sedative, hypnotic, or both) anxiolytic only, no hypnotic effect
what is tolerance? increase in dose is necessary to px equivalent effect upon continuous admin of the drug, d/t down-regulation of receptors (PD tolerance) or increased metabolism (metabolic tolerance)
what are the sx of sedative-hypnotic withdrawal/abstinence synd? anx/delirium, seizures, CV collapse, death
what are the predominant actions of antiseizure drugs? enhancement of GABAergic inhibitory nt, inhibition of glutaminergic excitatory nt, modification of ion channel activity
which antiseizure drugs work on voltage-gated Na+ channels? phenytoin carbamazepine lamotrigine lacosamide
which antiseizure drugs work on voltage-gated Ca2+ channels? ethosuximide lamotrigine gabapentin pregabalin
which antiseizure drug works on K+ channels? retigabine/ezogabine
which antiseizure drug affects synaptic vesicle proteins? levetiracetam
which antiseizure drug interacts with CRMP-2? lacosamide
which antiseizure drugs act on AMPA receptors? phenobarbital topiramate lamotrigine
which antiseizure drug acts on NMDA receptors? felbamate
which antiseizure drug acts on GAT-1 (GABA transporters)? tiagabine
which antiseizure drugs acts on GABA-T (GABA transaminase)? vigabatrin
which antiseizure drugs act by enhancing GABA-A activity? benzodiazepines phenobarbital
which antiseizure drug is used for absence seizures? (generic and brand) ethosuximide (Zarontin)
which antiseizure drug is used for mixed seizure types? (generic and brand) valproate (Depakene)
which side effect of antiseizure drugs should immediately be reported to the pt's MD? any appearance of unexplained rash or mucosal lesions - exfoliative dermatitis
what are the general side effects of most antiseizure drugs? drowsiness, sensory and/or cognitive impairment, changes in behavior
which nt are antipsychotics assoc with? dopamine
what is the rate limiting step in DA synthesis? tyrosine --> L-DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase
how does L-DOPA become DA? decarboxylation by AAAD
what three substances can be px from metabolism of DA and by which enzymes? 3-methoxy-tyrosine by COMT 3,4-dihydroxyphenyl acetate (DOPAC) by MAO NE by DbetaH
what are the major receptors implicated in psychosis and what are their actions? D1 excitatory D2 inhibitory
which DA tract is important in psychosis? mesolimbic-mesocortical pathway
what is schizophrenia caused by? overactivity of the mesolimbic-mesocortical DA tract
how do we know that the D2 receptor is implicated in psychosis? efficacy of drugs linearly correlates to affinity for D2 receptors
which serotonin receptor is also implicated in psychosis? 5HT2A, many antipsych drugs have strong 5HT2A antagonism
what is the difference between "typical" and "atypical" antipsychotics? give an example drug for each typical APs l/t EPS and treat positive sx; e.g., Haldol atypical APs have less EPS and treat both positive and negative sx; e.g., clozapine
what action is thought to make atypical APs different than typical APs? 5HT2A antagonism
which receptor are typical APs mostly associated with? D2 receptors
which antipsychotic has high affinity for D2 and high antimuscarinic activity? thioridazine
describe the metabolism of risperidone 2D6 metabolism to active metabolite 9-hydroxyrisperidone caution with 2D6 poor metabolizers, allows inactive metabolites to dominate
describe the metabolism of quetiapine 3A4 metabolises to inactive metabolites
describe the major and minor paths of olanzapine metabolism 1A2 major path 2D6 minor path
which antipsychotic must be monitored for hematological and hepatotoxic effects? clozapine
which clozapine metabolite is active? norclozapine
what is the active metabolite of aripiprazole? dehydroaripiprazole via 3A4 and 2D6 caution in 2D6 poor metabolizers
what CV side effect can ziprasidone cause? lots of 3A4 metabolism, if blocked, drug builds up and can l/t QT prolongation
describe migraine initiation and propagation trigger initiates CSD; trigeminal nerve depol l/t release of VAPs; sterile neurogenic infl starts migraine sx with orthodromic conduction; antidromic conduction; reflex activation of cholinergic neurons; more pain; cycles
list 5 VAPs and what do VAPs do neurokinin A, substance P, histamine, NO, CGRP, prostaglandins l/t vasodilation, edema, infl at/around dural/pial arteries
what is CSD? cortical spreading depression: widespread depolarization of brain neurons stim 5HT neurons in Raphe Nucleus and/or NE neurons in locus coeruleus, sends signals out to trigeminal nerve
what is sterile neurogenic inflammation? vasodilation and inflammation d/t VAPs at dural/pial arteries sensitizes pain receptors and sends pain signals to brain
what is orthodromic conduction? the pain impulse to the brain which triggers migraine sx of pain, photophobia, nnv
what is antidromic conduction? after orthodromic conduction, the brain sends signals back to the inflamed area l/t additional release of VAPs and l/t increased infl, pain, etc and infl spreads
which neurons are involved in reflex activation? cholinergic neurons
what is an example of a 5HT1B/D agonist? sumatriptan
what is an example of a non-selective 5HT1 agonist? ergotamine
what agent will block reflex activation of cholinergic neurons? botulinum toxin
what drugs can be used for prophylaxis of migraines? anticonvulsants (valproate)
what endogenous substance is the triptan structure similar to? serotonin
what is a CV side effect of triptans? constriction of coronary arteries d/t 5HT1B agonism, l/t myocardial ischemia; d/n use in pts w/ CAD
which triptan has a low incidence of DDIs and why? sumatriptan b/c it is metabolized v fast
which triptan has the lowest BA? sumatriptan, d/t rapid first pass metabolism and low lipophilicity
which triptans have active N-desmethyl metabolites? zolmitriptan and rizatriptan
which triptan is affected by renal clearance? naratriptan is excreted 50% unchanged in urine so t1/2 is affected by renal clearance
triptan metabolism is affected by which two drugs? propranolol and MAOIs
what makes 5HT3 antagonists different than agonists? no 5' sub bulky N-sub N-Me in ring
list 4 5HT3 antagonists ondansetron granisetron dolasetron alosetron
which ergot alkaloid is a 5HT agonist and of what receptor? ergotamine is a 5HT1 agonist
which ergot alkaloid is an antagonist and of which receptor? ergonovine is a 5HT2 antagonist
5HT is synthesized from what precursor? tryptophan
what is the rate-limiting step of 5HT synthesis? hydroxylation at 5-benzene by tryptophan hydroxylase
what is the step which makes 5HT? decarboxylation to 5-hydroxytryptamine by AAAD
what triggers 5HT release? AP firing l/t Ca2+ entering synapse and triggers 5HT exocytosis
what is the major termination method of 5HT? reuptake by SERT
what is the major metabolite of 5HT and which enzyme creates it? MAO and aldehyde dehydrogenase acts on excess 5HT in the terminal to create 5HIAA (5-hydroxyindole acetic acid)
how is 5HT converted to melatonin? 5HT N-acetylase converts 5HT to N-Ac-5HT; hydroxyindole O-methyltransferase converts to melatonin
what is the 5HT1 receptor? (location, effect, action) post-synaptic, Gi linked (inhibitory); inhibits AC l/t decreased cAMP
is the 5HT2 receptor inhibitor or excitatory? 5HT2R is excitatory
what channel is 5HT3 linked to? ligand-gated Na+ channels in gut and CTZ
where does 5HT4 act? acts in the gut
how does PCPA affect 5HT? inhibits tryptophan hydroxylase (and 5HT synthesis)
how does reserpine affect 5HT? reserpine is a releaser; inhibits VMAT and depletes pre-synaptic 5HT; severe side effects and rarely used
where do MAOIs work? in the mitochondria
what does buspirone do? partial agonist of pre-synaptic 5HT1A receptors
what does ondansetron do? 5HT3 antagonist of receptors in gut and CTZ
which 5HT receptor is generally involved in antipsychotics? 5HT2A
what are the CV effects of 5HT? plt aggregation releases 5HT stores in plts; 5HT2A changes shape of plts and accel. aggregation and stim contraction of smooth muscle; 5HT1 stim NO px; OVERALL: promotes thrombus formation and hemostasis
what are the GI effects of 5HT? affects ACh release and motility, affects nausea and vomiting; most drugs have GI side effects but resistance/tolerance builds up
what CNS functions are affected by 5HT? sleep, cognition, sensory perception, motor activity, temperature regulation, nociception, mood, appetite, sexual behavior, hormone secretion; emetic effects in CTZ
define NRI and give an example selective NE reuptake inhibitor desipramine
define SSRI and give an example selective 5HT reuptake inhibitors paroxetine
define SNRI and give an example nonselective amine reuptake inhibitor (5HT/NE/DA) venlafaxine
define MAOI and give an example monoamine oxidase inhibitor tranylcypromine
give an example of an alpha2 adrenergic antagonist mirtazapine
give an example of a 5HT1A/D partial agonist buspirone
give an example of a DA reuptake inhibitor bupropion
give an example of a 5HT2/1C antagonist trazodone
what is the amine hypothesis of depression? depression is d/t too little 5HT (also NE) activity in hippocampus which l/t upregulated receptors and abnl responses
describe rapid desensitization rapid phosphorylation of the receptor so that the G protein cannot reassociate, but phosphorylase can remove the phosphate group. there is also phosphorylation at a second site which allows arrestins to bind and blocks G protein coupling
describe downregulation of receptors continued activation of receptors l/t the cell decreasing the number of those receptors by sequestering them in the membrane and pinching off; reversible at first, longer term process
describe the MOA of SSRIs inhibit 5HT reuptake; stim of pre-syn receptors l/t decreased synth/release; cont stim l/t desensitization; increase of synaptic 5HT, post-syn receptors stim; constant stim l/t downregulation; CREB increases, BDNF activated; neuron grows; takes 2-3 wks
describe the alpha2 antagonist MOA blocks pre-synaptic inhibition of nt synth/release; l/t increased stim of beta- receptors, l/t downregulation of beta-receptors, l/t increased cAMP, increased CREB, increased BDNF; **faster onset than SSRIs b/c skips first desensitization step
describe the MOA of MAOIs inhibits metabolism of nt so immediately increases release of nt
what is the difference between the enantiomers of tranylcypromine? the + enantiomer is a more effective MAOI but the - enantiomer is a better inhibitor of NE/DA reuptake - mechanisms work together to make an effective antidep
what CV problem can MAOIs cause? (hint = related to food) HTN crisis d/t foods high in tyramine; w/o MAO in the gut to break down tyramine it is absorbed and l/t releaser effects
what where the first antideps developed from? anti-muscarinics and anti-histamines
describe the SAR of TCAs tricyclic structure e- withdrawing benzene sub = antipsychotic 3C chain b/w amine and cycles best 3' amine = 5HT/NE block; 2' amine = NE block only looks similar to antihistamines and antimuscarinics
what is the issue with paroxetine metabolism? paroxetine is a sub/inhibitor of 2D6 caution in 2D6 poor metabolizers
what is venlafaxine metabolized by and to? venlafaxine is metabolized by 2D6 and 3A4 2D6 converts to desvenlafaxine which is equiactive can use desvenlafaxine to avoid 2D6 interactions
what is the problem with trazodone metabolism? 3A4 converts trazodone to a reactive iminoquinone which l/t liver tox
which antidepressant is hepatotoxic? trazodone
what is imipramine converted to and what are the actions of parent and metabolite? imipramine --> despiramine imipramine = SERT inhibitor desipramine = NERT inhibitor
which SSRI is least likely to inhibit 2D6? citalopram
Created by: aerummel
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