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Kandina Orallo

A&P Midterm Stack "Weeks 1-7"

QuestionAnswer
The skeletal cartilage has no nerves or blood vessels, is surrounded by a layer of dense irregular connective tissue called perichondrium
Name the three types of skeletal cartilages hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilages
Name the cartilages that cover the ends of most bones at movable joints articular cartilage
What are the most abundant skeletal cartilages that provide flexibility? Hyaline cartilage
Where is the fibrocartilages located? Knee and vertebrae disc
Cartilage has a ___ ____ which can accommodate mitosis flexible matrix
Cartilage grows in two ways Appositional and Interstitial growth
"growth from outside" appositional growth
"growth from inside" interstitial growth
Calcium salts in the matrix can harden is a process called calcification
Typically, cartilage growth stop during what stage adolescence
206 bones in the human body divided into two groups: axial and appendicular skeleton
Long axis of the body (skull, vertebral column, and rib cage) axial skeleton
Name the skeleton that consists of the bones of the upper and lower limbs and the girdles (shoulder bones and hip bones) that is connected to the axial skeleton appendicular skeleton
Name the bone that have a shaft and two ends, and has all limb bones except patella, wrists, and ankle bones Long bones Long bones
Wrist and ankle bones; roughly cube shaped Short bones Short bones
Special type of bone that are form in tendon Sesamoid bones
Complicated shapes bones that includes vertebrae and hip bones Irregular bones
Name the type of bones that includes most skull, the sternum, scapula, and ribs Flat bones
Where does the blood cell formation or hematopoiesis occurs? in the marrow cavities of certain bones
Bone is reservoir for what TWO most important types of minerals? calcium and phosphate
Name the FIVE functions of bones: Support, Protection, Movement, Mineral and growth factor storage, and Blood cell formation
Projections, depressions, and openings that serve as sites of muscle, ligament, and tendon attachment, as joint surfaces, or blood vessels and nerves bone markings
The dense outer layer that looks smooth and solid is called compact bone
Consists of honeycomb, needle-like, or flat pieces, called trabeculae is called spongy bone
Blood cell formation Hematopoiesis
Mature bone cells Osteocytes
Location of red bone marrow Spongy bone
Cartilage cells Chondrocytes
Bone-building cells Osteoblasts
Process of bone formation Osteogenesis or ossification
Growth region (in length) of the long bone Epiphyseal plate
Growth of bone in diameter Appositional growth
Narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes Canaliculi
Basic functional unit of compact bone Osteon
Tiny plates of bone material found in spongy bone Trabeculae
Concentric rings that surround the Haversian canal Lamellae
The substance contained in the medullary cavity of bones in an adult Yellow bone marrow
Substance contained in the spaces of the spongy bone Red bone marrow
The inorganic minerals contained in the intercellular matrix of bone Calcium and phosphorus (hydroxyapatite)
The hormone that functions to decrease the level of calcium in the blood Calcitonin
The hormone that raises the level of calcium ions in the blood Parathyroid hormone
The hormone that is used in hormone therapy to reduce osteoporosis Estrogen
Elevated levels of a hormone that could cause premature closure of the epiphyseal plates Testosterone
A hormone that is necessary for proper bone formation Thyroxine
A painful infection of the bone often caused by bacteria Osteomyelitis
A condition occurs with aging that causes a gradual reduction in bone mass Osteopenia
Hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone would produce changes in the bone similar to those associated with Osteocalcin
A condition causing bow legs in a child Rickets
A painful condition that occurs when the bones become weak and thin and tend to fracture easily Osteoporosis
Long bone Femur of the leg
Short bone Carpals of wrist
Flat bone Sternum of breastbone
Irregular bone Vertebrae of spinal column and hip bones
Sesamoid bone Patella of knee
Large, rough, rounded projections Tuberosity
Crest Narrow ridge of bone
Trochanter Very large, blunt, irregularly-shaped process
Tubercle Small rounded projection or process
Spine Sharp, slender, often pointed projection
Bony expansion carried on a narrow neck Head
Smooth, nearly flat articular surface Facet
Rounded articular projection Condyle
Arm-like bar of bone Ramus
Canal-like passageway Meatus
Cavity within a bone Sinus
Shallow, basin-like depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface Fossa
Furrow Groove
Narrow, slit-like opening fissure
Round or oval opening through a bone foramen
Most abundant skeletal cartilage Hyaline cartilage
Cartilage-forming cell Chrondroblast
Able to withstand large amounts of compression Fibrocartilage
Located in the external ear and epiglottis Elastic cartilage
Encloses brain and other soft organs function as... Protection
Site of attachment for skeletal muscles function as... Movement
Calcium phosphate repository function as... Mineral storage
Blood cell production function as... Hematopoiesis
Bone-destroying cell Osteoclast
Bone stem cell Osteoprogenitor cell
Primary ossification center Diaphysis
Secondary ossification center Epiphysis
Site of length increase in long bones Growth plate
Process of long bone development Endochondral ossification
Layers of bone Lamellae
Cavities in bone where cells live. Lacunae
Major organic fiber of bone. Collagen
Major inorganic component of bone Calcium phosphate
Has length greater than width Long bone
Length and width equal. Short bone
Bone with complex shape. Irregular bone
Thin bone. Flat bone
Ovoid bone found in tendon. Sesamoid bone
Shaft of a long bone Diaphysis
Hollow space in the shaft. Medullary cavity
Expanded portion of the long bone at its ends Epiphysis
Thin connective tissue membrane that lines the medullary cavity. Endosteum
Fibrous connective tissue membrane that covers the outer surface of long bone Periosteum
Which of the following statements concerning the periosteum of a bone is NOT true? Periosteum does NOT cover sesamoid bones, the articular surfaces of bones, or extend around tendon and ligament
Which of the following factors is NOT believed to affect bone growth? proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids
Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone calcitonin
What is the function of the skeletal system? protect, store minerals, support the body and form new blood cells
Long bones differ from flat bones in that long bones have epiphyses
Which of the following of the following statements about osteoclasts is incorrect? Osteoclasts only reabsorb old bone matrix
The bones of the skeleton store energy reserves as lipids in areas of yellow marrow
What is are the two types/functions of bone marrow? Red and yellow- produces red blood cells and stores energy as fat
The external portion of the bone is known as Cortical bone
Bones grow due to activity in the Epiphyseal plates
Which of the following is not considered a long bone C5 Vertebral Body
When an astronaut is in space for 2 months what may happen to their bone density as compared to a person living on earth? The astronaut will experience bone loss at an increased rate as a person on earth
Why is cartilage slow to heal. Because it is semi-solid and flexible; because has no or a limited blood supply
Which of the following is a location in which you would find fibrous cartilage Pubic symphysis, interverbal discs
Adipocytes, found in the yellow bone marrow, stores and releases ____________________________ for energy. fat and triglycerides
Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident? protection of internal organs
Without red bone marrow, bones would not be able to ________. make blood cells
Which of the following provide flexibility and smooth surfaces for movement? Cartilages
The fontanelles of an infant's skull consists of fibrous membrane
Which statement below is correct regarding fontanelles? The anterior and posterior fontanelles allow for overlapping of skull bones to decrease the diamiter of the fetal head at birth.; allows for brain growth; the anterior fontanelle closes at about 2 years of age; the fontanelles are fibrous membranes
The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. False
The shoulder joint is an example of a _____ joint. the shoulder joint is an example of all of these: multiaxial, freely movable, ball and socket
What mechanism quickly terminates the action of a neurotransmitter once it binds to its postsynaptic receptor? All of these are correct: Neurotransmitter molecules are transported into nearby glial cells; Neurotransmitter molecules are transported back into synaptic knobs; Neurotransmitter molecules are metabolized into inactive compounds
Why is cartilage slow to heal. Because it is semi-solid and flexible; because has no or a limited blood supply
Which of the following is a location in which you would find fibrous cartilage Pubic symphysis, interverbal discs
Adipocytes, found in the yellow bone marrow, stores and releases ____________________________ for energy. fat and triglycerides fat and triglycerides
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. 35 and 40
One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe false
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? cylindrical in shape
The humerus articulates proximally with the scapula
Because of how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint. true
Which of the following is not a function of muscles? storage
According to the sliding filament theory actine moves past myosin
The largest and most commonly injured joint in the body is the _____ joint. knee
Which structure allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell? transverse tubule
Muscle tone is maintained by negative feedback mechanisms
The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of ATP
Which type of movement occurs between the carpal and tarsal bones and between the articular facets of adjoining spinal vertebrae? gliding
Which of the following is an example of a uniaxial joint? elbow joint
The structure of the knee joint permits movements of flexion and extension
Joints joined by fibrocartilage are called symphyses
The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the sarcomere
The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called the threshold stimulus
The joints between the articulating surfaces of the vertebral processes are classified as what type of joint? gliding
The muscle’s ability to stretch or extend and to return to its resting length is called extensibility
Repeated stimulation of muscle in time lessens its excitability and contractibility and may result in fatigue
Synarthrotic joints are immovable
Synovial joints are freely movable
Some synovial joints contain a closed pillow-like structure called a(n) bursa
If a structural classification is used, joints are named according to the type of _____ tissue that joins the bones together. connective
The shoulder joint is an example of a _____ joint. the shoulder joint is an example of all of these: multiaxial, freely movable, ball and socket
The more muscle fibers contracting at the same time, the stronger the contraction of the entire muscle. The number of muscle fibers contracting depends on how many motor units are recruited
Three phases of the twitch contraction are the latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase
Which of the following is not among the structures that characterize synovial joints? tendons
Exercise may cause an increase in muscle size called hypertrophy
_____ occurs when the foot is tilted upward, thus decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg. Dorsiflexion
Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: all of the above: a relative lack of ATP; high levels of lactate; failure of the sodium-potassium pumps
Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: abduction
Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? Static tension
Thick myofilaments extend the length of the: A-band
An example of a hinge joint is(are) the: interphalangeal joints
The chief function of the T-tubules is to: allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell
Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: plantar flexion
The opposite of dorsiflexion is: plantar flexion
Which of the following statements is incorrect about motor units? The more muscle fibers stimulated by a motor neuron, the more precise the movements of that muscle can be
Aerobic respiration: produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule
Muscle contractions will continue as long as: the calcium ions are attached to the troponin
The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: calcium
All of the following are noninflammatory joint disorders except: juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
Which of the following is not one of the major functions of muscles? protection
An example of a pivot joint is(are) the: head of the radius articulating with the ulna
Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis? single-unit smooth
The rotator cuff muscles and tendons form a cufflike arrangement around the _____ joint. shoulder
The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: iron
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? isometric
The knee joint is an example of a _____ joint. hinge
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction. isotonic
Which joint allows for the widest range of movement? ball and socket
In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? synarthrosis
What are the most movable joints in the body? synovial
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called: irritability
Which structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions? sarcoplasmic reticulum
The type of movement that occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest, to the other shoulder, and toward the back is: circumduction
The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is: myosin
Skeletal muscles are innervated by: somatic motor neurons
Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? smooth
Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect? cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract
Which joint allows for the most movement? ball and socket
The lactate produced by anaerobic respiration is converted back to glucose in the: liver
The largest and most frequently injured joint is the: knee
The strength of a muscle contraction is influenced by the: all of the above are correct: amount of load; intial length of muscle fibers; recruitment of motor units
Kicking a football is accomplished by knee: extension
Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the: shoulder
Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction? T-tubules
Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? saddle
Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding heat production? all of the above are correct: The body temperature set point is established by the hypothalamus; shivering will increase body temperature; body temperature functions on a negative-feedback mechanism
A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. multiaxial
Moving a part of the body forward is: protraction
During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm? latent period
The difference between sodium and potassium in the generation of action potential is that: sodium causes depolarization of the cell membrane, and potassium causes repolarization of the cell membrane.
The tiny bulge at the end of a terminal branch of a presynaptic neuron’s axon is called a(n) symaptic knob
The magnitude of the action potential peaks when the sodium channels close. true
Which chemicals allow neurons to communicate with one another? neurotransmitters
A term commonly used as a synonym for action potential is nerve impulse
The membrane potential maintained by a nonconducting neuron’s plasma membrane is called the _____ membrane potential. resting
The sodium-potassium pump actively pumps three potassium ions out of the neuron and two sodium ions into the neuron. false
Movement of the membrane potential away from zero (below the usual RMP) is called hyperpolarization
The mechanisms that produce and maintain the resting membrane potential do so by producing a slight excess of positive ions on the outer surface of the plasma membrane
The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period. refractory
A membrane that exhibits a membrane potential is said to be polarized
If the magnitude of the local depolarization surpasses a limit called the _____, voltage-gated Na+ channels are stimulated to open. threshold potential
An ion channel that opens in response to a sensory stimulus is a(n) stimulus-gated channel
Which membrane receptor acts to directly change ion permeability when stimulated? Gated-channel receptor
What mechanism quickly terminates the action of a neurotransmitter once it binds to its postsynaptic receptor? All of these are correct: Neurotransmitter molecules are transported into nearby glial cells; Neurotransmitter molecules are transported back into synaptic knobs; Neurotransmitter molecules are metabolized into inactive compounds
The active transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that transports sodium and potassium ions in opposite directions and at different rates is the sodium-potassium pump
In a myelinated neuron, the impulse can travel under the myelin between nodes of Ranvier. True
In depolarization the membrane potential moves toward zero, whereas in hyperpolarization the membrane potential moves away from zero. True
In a myelinated fiber, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next. True
The speed of a nerve impulse depends on the neuron’s resting potential. False
A synapse can occur only between an axon and: any of the above: a dendrite; a cell body
When a neuron is resting, the inner surface of its plasma membrane is slightly positive compared with its outer surface. False
The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a membrane is called the membrane potential. True
When neurotransmitters from synaptic knobs stimulate a postsynaptic neuron in rapid succession, their effect can add up over a brief period to produce an action potential. This is called Temporal summation
If the threshold potential is surpassed, the full peak of the action potential is always reached. true
Whether an impulse is continued through the neuron depends on the magnitude of the voltage in the axon hillock. true
The action potential seems to “leap” from node to node along a myelinated fiber. This type of impulse regeneration is called __________ conduction. saltatory
A neurologist is using a voltmeter to measure potential. The membrane potential of a neuron was recorded at +30 mV. This is what type of membrane potential? action
A neurologist is using a voltmeter to measure potential. The membrane potential of a neuron was recorded at +30 mV. This is what type of membrane potential? false
There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse. chemical
Created by: Kandina123
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