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A&P II Exam 3
Question | Answer |
---|---|
Tidal volume (TV) | air that moves into and out of the lungs with each breath (approximately 500 ml) |
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) | air that can be inspired forcibly beyond the tidal volume (2100–3200 ml) |
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) | air that can be evacuated from the lungs after a tidal expiration (1000–1200 ml) |
Residual volume (RV) | air left in the lungs after strenuous expiration (1200 ml) |
Air and food are routed into the proper channels by the ______________ | Larynx (Voice Box) |
4. The loudness of a person's voice depends on: | depends upon the force at which the air rushes across the vocal cords |
5. The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is: | secrete surfactant |
6. After the tertiary bronchus, the next smaller branch of the respiratory passageway is (are) the: | terminal bronchioles |
7. The smallest macroscopic subdivision of the lung is the: | lobule |
8. The pleurae are vital to the integrity of the lungs because: | contain cilia that protect; control volume of the lungs; maintain the proper temp of the lungs during sleep; produce a lubricating serous secretion, allowing the lungs to glide over the thorax wall during breathing |
9. Intrapulmonary pressure is the: | pressure within the alveoli |
10. The relationship between the pressure and volume of gases is given by _____________ law | Boyle’s |
11. The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ____________ law | Dalton’s Law of partial pressures |
12. Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by: | reducing surface tension of alveolar fluid by reducing water’s cohesiveness |
13. For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be __________ thick | only 0.5 to 1 μm thick |
14. With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because: | Declining pH (acidosis), which weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond |
15. The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is: | increase of carbon dioxide |
16. Nerve impulses from __ will result in inspiration. | medulla (phrenic nerve) |
17. In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is: | only about 1.5% |
18. Another name for the inflation reflex is: | Hering-Breuer |
19. List the factors which influence the increase in ventilation that occurs as exercise is initiated. | psychic stimuli, proprioceptors, simultaneous cortical motor activation of the skeletal muscles and respiratory center |
20. List the forms of lung cancer. | 1 Squamous cell carcinoma 2 Adenocarcinoma 3 Small cell carcinoma |
21. List the events necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of CO2? | pulmonary ventilation,internal respiration, external respiration |
22. Describe the changes which occur as the conducting tubes of the lungs become smaller | cartilage rings are replaced by irregular plates of cartilage; mucosal epithelium thins as it changes from pseudostratified columnar to columnar to cuboidal; amount of smooth muscle increases |
23. List the factors which diminish lung compliance. | Fibrosis of lung tissue;Factors that influence the flexibility of the thoracic cage; Factors that reduce the natural resilience of the lungs; Factors that decrease the surface tension of the fluid film of the alveoli |
24. The ideal vital capacity of an individual is around: | 4800 ml |
25. List the possible causes of hypoxia. | too little oxygen in the atmosphere |
26. The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the: | tidal volume |
27. List the stimuli for breathing? | rising carbon dioxide levels, arterial Po2 below 60 mm Hg, arterial pH resulting from CO2 retention |
28. Respiratory control centers are located in the: | medulla and pons |
29. The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called: | Inspiratory reserve volume |
30. Describe blood CO2 concentrations and mechanisms of transport. | Dissolved in plasma(7-10%); Carbaminohemogloban carried to RBCs (20%); bicarbonaton ions diffuse into RBCs then combine with H2O forming carbonic acid (70%; The chloride shift mechanism enhances CO2 transport |
31. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by: | diffusion |
32. Describe the anatomy of the pharynx, including the regions of the pharynx and the structures located there. | the auditory tube drains into the nasopharynx |
33. The larynx contains: | the thyroid cartilage |
34. Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon? | internal intercostals |
35. List the structures included in the oropharynx. . | fauces , protective stratified squamous epithelium, Palatine tonsils, Lingual tonsil |
36. List impairments of oxygen transport. | carbon monoxide poisoning, a form of hypoxemic hypoxia |
37. List the factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing | voluntary cortical control |
38. Which lung structures provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange? | alveoli |
39. The respiratory membrane is a combination of: | alveolar and capillary walls |
40. Inspiratory capacity is: | the total amount of air that can be inspired after tidal expansion |
41. Which respiratory control center is located in the pons? | The pontine respiratory group (PRG) |
42. List the functions of the nose. | Passageway for air movement; Warming and humidifying inspired air; Cleansing inspired air; Providing resonance for speech production |
43. Describe the neural mechanisms of respiratory control. | VRG is the rhythm generating and integrative center; DRG integrates input from peripheral stretch and chemoreceptors; PRG, pneumotoxic center, transmit impulses from medulla to VRG |
44. Describe the effect of arterial pH on respiration. | Changes in arterial pH can modify respiratory rate and rhythm |
45. The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are: | surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity. |
46. The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because: | he concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes |
47. Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the: | Ciliated mucous lining in the nose |
48. Describe the physical factors influencing pulmonary ventilation. | As alveolar surface tension increases, additional muscle action will be required. |
49. Describe the relationship between oxygen saturation and environmental factors such as activity and blood pH. | A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal |
50. Type II alveolar cells secrete ______________ | surfactant |
51. ______law is called the law of partial pressure. | Dalton’s |
52. ________law would apply to the amount of CO2 you could dissolve in a Pepsi. | Henry’s |
57. The trachea is lined with ________epithelium. | ciliated |
65. Define anatomical dead space. What is the relationship between anatomical and alveolar dead space? Which value is likely to increase during lung pathology? | As alveolar dead space increases, alveolar ventilation will decrease |
69. The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to: | collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage. |
70. The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called: | digestion |
71. When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called: | chemical digestion |
72. The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called: | mesenteries |
73. From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. List them and arrange them in order from the lumen. | mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa |
74. The structure known as the fauces is the: | passageway between the oral cavity and the pharynx |
75. Describe the function of the epithelial membrane called the mucosa: | contains the lamina propria |
76. The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the: | lamina propria |
77. The plicae circulares and intestinal villi are found in which of the four layers of the alimentary tube wall? | mucosa |
78. The structures that produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine are the: | intestinal crypts |
79. The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which structure accomplishes this task? | plicae circulares and intestinal villi |
80. Describe the number and development of primary teeth. | There are 20 primary teeth, and by 24 months of age most children have all 20. |
81. Describe the number and development of permanent teeth. | There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge. |
82. Describe the functions of saliva | cleanses the mouth, moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus, dissolves food chemicals so they can be tasted |
83. The salivary glands are composed of which two types of secretory cells? | serous cells and mucous cells |
84. The solutes contained in saliva include: | electrolytes, digestive enzyme, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA |
85. In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach: | initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins |
86. Chyme is created in the: | stomach |
87. Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach? | parietal cells |
88. Gastrin, histamine, endorphins, serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin are hormones that are released directly into the lamina propria. Which cell types synthesize and secrete these products? | enteroendocrine cells |
89. There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs: | before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought |
90. Peristaltic waves are: | waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another |
91. Gastrin is a digestive hormone that is responsible for the stimulation of acid secretions in the stomach. These secretions are stimulated by the presence of: | protein and peptide fragments |
92. Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the: | chief cells of the stomach |
93. You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which enzymes will help to digest the meal? | amylase |
94. The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the: | hepatopancreatic ampulla |
95. The enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule is called | hydrolysis |
96. Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which enzyme is responsible? | lipase |
97. Parietal cells of the stomach produce: | hydrochloric acid |
98. What do hepatocytes do? | produce digestive enzymes |
99. List the phases of gastric secretion? | cephalic, gastric, intestinal |
100. Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed? | B12 |
101. What do Chief cells do? | are found in the basal regions of the gastric glands, secrete |
102. Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of: | catabolism |
103. The __contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure. | liver |
104. If an incision has to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, the first layer of tissue to be cut is the: | serosa |
105. The terminal portion of the small intestine is known as the: | ileum |
106. The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for? | canine tooth |
107. Digestion of which biomolecules would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged? | lipids |
108. _____________is locally regulated in the blood by the active form of vitamin D, which acts as a cofactor. | Calcium |
109. List the important peritoneal folds. | omenta, peritoneum, mesentery |
110. The lamina propria is composed of: | loose connective tissue |
111. Describe the important stimuli in the gastric phase of gastric secretion. | Distension, Peptides, Low acidity |
112. How does pancreatic amylase get into the small intestine? | accessory pancreatic duct, main pancreatic duct, hepatopancreatic ampulla |
113. The function of the goblet cells is to: | produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion |
114. Under normal conditions, the gastric mucosa pours out as much as______________ of gastric juice | 2 to 3 liters of gastric juice per day |
115. Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by: | the vagus nerve and enteric plexus. |
116. Describe the types of papillae on the tongue that contain taste buds? | fungiform and circumvallate |
117. Which cells produce intrinsic factor? | parietal cells |
118. List the enzymes that are specific for proteins? | dextrinase, amylase, lipase |
119. Where is the lingual frenulum located? | tongue |
120. A fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that contains cholesterol, emulsification agents, and phospholipids is: | bile |
121. The layer of the digestive tube that contains blood vessels, lymphatic nodes, and a rich supply of elastic fibers is the: | submucosa |
122. Describe the features of the large intestine. | does not contain villi, exhibits external muscular bands called teniae coli, has haustra |
123. Describe tooth structure. | a thin periodontal ligament that holds the tooth in place |
124. Describe the propulsion of food down the gastrointestinal tract. | the pharyngeal-esophageal phase, an involuntary process |
125. Describe the regulation of gastric secretion. | Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth. |
126. Describe the function and location of Paneth cells: | secrete enzymes that kill bacteria |
127. Describe the processes of chemical digestion in the stomach | Chyme entering the duodenum can decrease gastric motility via the enterogastric reflex. |
128. Describe the processes of chemical digestion in the small intestine | cholecystokinin (CCK), an intestinal hormone responsible for gallbladder contraction |
129. Describe the processes of organic molecule absorption. | If intact proteins are transported across the villus epithelium, an immune response may be generated. |
130. Describe the processes of electrolyte absorption. | Iron and calcium are absorbed mostly by the duodenum. |
131. You have just eaten french fries, buttered toast, ice cream, and whole milk. Which glands would be active in helping you to digest this food? | the pancreas |
132. The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause what to occur? | Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum. |
baby is admitted to the hospital with a history of projectile vomiting after feeding. . Because of the baby's loss of gastric juice, his blood indicates: | alkalosis |
134. List the hormones that inhibit gastric secretion. | secretin |
135. List the components of the splanchnic circulation? | inferior vena cava |
136. List the components of saliva | lysozyme, a cyanid compound, defensins |
137. The longest portion of the small intestine is the | iluem |
149. What are chylomicrons? | triglycerides are combined with phospholipids and cholesterol, and coated with a skin of proteins to form a water-soluble lipoprotein droplets called chylomicrons |
150. What is heartburn and what causes it? | the first symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease(GERD), it’s the burning, radiating substernal pain that occurs when acidic gastric juice regurgitates into the esophagus |
1. The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available body fuel is: | glucose |
2. Describe the function of the peptides called orexins: | are powerful appetite enhancers |
3. Dietary fats are important because: | they help the body absorb fat-soluble vitamins; major energy fuel; and integral compenent of myelin sheaths and skeletal muscle |
4. Cholesterol, while it is not an energy molecule, has importance in the body because: | its the structural basis for bile salts, steroid hormones, vita D, and is a major component of plasma membranes |
5. Describe a complete protein? | proteins that meet all the body’s amino acid requirements for tissue maintenance and growth: eggs, milk, milk products, meat |
6. The term metabolism is best defined as: | cells using energy to extract more energy from food |
7. Describe the components of the term energy output. | the amount of energy expended by work or activity by the body per specified period(includes lost of energy as heat) |
8. When proteins undergo deamination, a substance found in the urine is: | urea |
9. It is important to ensure that your diet is adequately rich in vitamins because: | most act like coenzymes and the other food consumed would be useless without them |
10. Oxidation-reduction reactions are catalyzed by which enzymes? | dehydrogenases and oxidases |
11. A diet rich in minerals would include which foods? . | legumes, milk, and pork |
12. Anabolism includes reactions in which: | larger structures are built from smaller ones |
13. Catabolism involves processes that: | break down complex structures to slimpler ones |
14. The primary function of cellular respiration is to: | generate ATP |
15. The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as: | lipolysis |
16. Which mechanism yields the most energy that is captured in ATP bonds during cellular respiration? | ETC and Oxidative phosphoralytion |
17. Lipogenesis occurs when: | cellular ATP and glucose levels are high |
18. Oxidative deamination takes place in the: | liver |
19. Transamination is the process whereby the amine group of an amino acid is: | transferred to alpha-ketoglutaric acid changing it to glutamic acid |
20. Glycogen is formed in the liver during the: | starvation period |
21. What occurs as a normal consequence of the activation of the heat-promoting center? | constriction of cutaneous blood vessels. Shivering. Increase metabolic rate(epinephrine and norenephrine release). Enhanced thyroxine release |
22. Gluconeogenesis is the process in which: | process of forming glucose from noncarbohydrate molecules (glycerol and amino acids), occurs in the liver |
23. Glycolysis is best defined as the: | sugar splitting process |
24. Describe the conditions required for measuring the basal metabolic rate. | postabsorptive state, is reclining, mentally and physically relaxed, temp b/w 20-25 C |
25. The primary function of carbohydrates is to: | provide energy (too much gets stored) |
26. During normal conditions, proteins are essential to the body for what purposes. | production of energy. production of some hormones. formation of functional molecules like hemoglobin and cytochrome |
27. The most abundant dietary lipids are: | triglycerides (also called neutral fats or triacylglycerols) |
28. Loss of heat in the form of infrared waves is termed: | radiation |
29. In carbohydrate metabolism, the carbohydrates: | are converted into fat if present in excess |
30. Prostaglandins play a role in: | smooth muscle contraction |
31. Vitamins are organic compounds. What is their function? | most act as coenzymes |
32. As the body progresses from the absorptive to the postabsorptive state, only the _________ continues to burn glucose while every other organ in the body switches to fatty acids. | liver |
33. In gluconeogenesis, amino acids and _________ are converted to glucose. | glycerol |
195. Describe the factors which influence serum cholesterol levels 196. List the possible heat-loss mechanisms. | Vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels. Enhanced sweating |
197. The amount of _______produced is probably the most important factor in determining BMR. | body surface area |
198. When ketone bodies are present in the blood and urine in large amounts, it indicates increased metabolism of: | fat |
199. Many factors influence BMR. What is the most critical factor? | body surface area |
200. While the amount of protein required in the diet varies depending on age, size, and needs, the daily recommendation is approximately: | 0.8 g per kilogram of body weight |
201. Which nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized? | fats |
202. Which metabolic processes occur in the mitochondria? | the kreb’s cycle, the ETC, and oxidative phosphorylation |
203. Describe beta oxidation? | the intitial phase of fatty acid oxidation, occurs in the mitochondria |
205. Describe oxidation reduction reactions: | Whenever one substance is oxidized, another substance is reduced; Oxidized substances lose energy; Reduced substances gain energy |
206. Vitamin ______ is present in the body as coenzyme FAD and FMN and is a component of amino acid oxidase. | B2 |
207. The pickup molecule for the Krebs cycle is ________ acid. | oxaloacetic |
208. Describe substrate-level phosphorylation. Where does it occur? What is FADH2 and how much ATP does it yield? What is NADH + H+ and how much ATP does it yield? | takes place in cytoplasm and mitochondria. 4 ATP and 2 FADH.NADH+ H+ is reduced NAD+ and it forms 2 ATP |
210. Which food groups may be considered complete proteins? | eggs, milk, milk products, meat |
Oxidation | substances gain Oor lose H; lose energy |
Reduction | substance lose O or gain H; gain energy |
Anabolism | energy requiring building phase of metabolism in which simpler substances are combined to form more complex substances |
Catabolism | process in which living break down substances into simpler substances |
214. The liver synthesizes lipoproteins for cholesterol transport. List the other function(s) of the liver. | Synthesizes lipoproteins for transport of cholesterol and fats.Makes tissue factor, a clotting factor.Synthesizes cholesterol for acetyl CoA.Uses cholesterol to form bile salts.Certain endocrine organs use cholesterol to synthesize steroid hormones |
215. Glucose can be obtained from which processes | glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis |
216. Describe the function of LDLs? | a. transport cholesterol to peripheal tissues b. regulate cholesterol synthesis in tissue cells c.make cholesterol available to tissue for membrane or hormone synthesis d.one form promotes plaque formation in blood vessels |
217. Define negative nitrogen balance | protein breakdown exceeds protein synthesis |
218. The Krebs cycle produces ________ ATP molecules per glucose molecule. | two |
220. Abnormal storage of _________ will cause Wilson's disease. | copper |
222. ________ is controlled hyperthermia. | fever |
223. The enzymes that catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions by removing hydrogen are specifically called ______ | dehydrogenases |
224. The process of splitting glucose through a series of steps that produces two pyruvic acid molecules is called ____ | glycolysis |
225. In the Krebs cycle, citric acid is followed by _______ acid. | isocitric acid |
226. What are the four mechanisms of heat exchange and how are they defined? | radiation, conduction, convection, and evaporation |
Radiation | loss of heat as infrared rays |
Conduction | transfer of heat from warmer to cooler object |
Convection | warm air rises and expands and cool air falls |
Evaporation | water evaporates because molecules absorb heat and become energetic enough to escape as gas |
227. Define amino acid pool and explain how the pool is maintained even though we excrete amino acids daily. | the body’s total supply of free amino acids; excreted amino acids are usually replaced in our diets |
1. How is the postabsorptive state controlled and initiated? | make glucose available to the blood or save it for organs using fats for energy; not eatin in 12 hours |
232. Define nitrogen balance. | protein synthesis equals protein breakdown |
List three factors that might lead to negative nitrogen balance | physical and emotional stress, starvation, or poor protein diet |
Three that might result in positive nitrogen balance. | pregnancy, age (children), if your ill or injured |
53. Oxygen unloading in a RBC due to declining pH is called the ______ | bohr effect |
54. The ________center of the pons exerts mainly inhibitory effects on breathing rates. | Pontine Respiratory Center |
55. The cartilaginous flap that closes the trachea during swallowing is called the ______ | Epiglottis |
56. The archway in the back of the throat is called the ______ | Glottis |
61. The contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles begins inspiration. Explain exactly what happens, in terms of volume and pressure changes in the lungs, when these muscles contract. | muscular contractions increase volume ofthorax, the increase in volume causes a decrease in pressure (pressure inside thorax lower than the atmospheric), air flows from higher pressure (outside) to lower pressure (inside) until the pressures become equal. |
62. What is the chloride shift and why does it occur? | Enhances CO2 transport |
63. How is it possible to change the pitch of our voice from high to low? | The greater the number of vibrations per second, the higher the pitch. The rate of vibration, in turn, is determined by the length and thickness of the vocal cords and by the tightening or relaxation of these cords. |
68. The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located: | in the walls of the tract organs |
138. __________is the principal enzyme for breaking down carbohydrates. | Amylase |
139. _________cells of the stomach secrete HCl. | Chief Cells |
140. The chief bile pigment is ____________ | Bilirubin |
141. _____________is another word for vomiting. | Regurgitate |
143. ___________cells are found in the sinusoids of the liver and they remove debris from the blood as it flows past. | Kupffer Cells |
144. ___________peritoneum covers the external surfaces of most digestive organs. | Visceral |
145. The ___________ligament anchors a tooth in the alveolus of the jaw. | Periodontal |
146. The ____________phase of gastric secretions occurs before food enters the stomach. | Cephalic |
147. The round ligament is a remnant of the fetal __________ | left umbilical cord vein |
153. Assume you have been chewing a piece of bread for 5 or 6 minutes. How would you expect its taste to change during this time? Why? | It will be extremely soggy if not dissolved thanks to chemical breakdown of saliva in your mouth |
154. Name the three pairs of major salivary glands. Describe their relative locations and their microscopic differences. | parotid, mandibular or submandibular and sublingual glands. |
155. Why is it necessary for the stomach contents to be so acidic? How does the stomach protect itself from digestion? | Production of pepsin, epithelia cells in the stomach wall protect it from itself |
156. Identify two ways the small intestine is modified to increase the surface area for digestion and absorption. | villi |
158. How is salivation controlled? | The brain |
159. What is bile and where is it produced? What is its digestive function? Where is it stored and concentrated? | Produced in hepatocytes in the liver, digestion of lipids in the small intestine, stored in the gallbladder |
211. List the conditions that promote the oxidative deamination of amino acids. | an amino acid is converted into the corresponding keto acid by the removal of the amine functional group as ammonia and the amine functional group is replaced by the ketone group |
221. Fat burning causes an accumulation of acetyl CoA, which the liver converts to _________ | Glucose, fatty acids and amino acids |
228. Hypervitaminosis may have serious consequences. Which vitamin group, water or fat soluble, is most likely to be involved in such cases and why? | Fat soluble vitamins because they are more likely to accumulate in the body |