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Hematology 1

QuestionAnswer
the blood is __% of the body weight 7-8
the blood has __% of plasma 55
The blood has __% formed elements 45
the layers of the centrifuged blood fatty-plasma-buffy-rbc
lacks fibrinogen group serum
contains all coagulation factor plasma
the average human possesses how many liters of blood 5-6L
the mode of action of this anticoagulant is that it removes ionized calcium through a process referred to as chelation EDTA
EDTA is the anticoagulant of choice in hematology
Disodium salt is also known as versene
tri-potassium salt is also known as sequestrene
recommended by the International Council for Standardization in Hematology (ICSH) and CLSI as the anticoagulant of choice for blood cell counting and sizing because they produce less shrinkage of RBCs and less of an increase in cell volume on standing. K2 EDTA
the process of destroying pathogenic microorganisms in inanimate objects disinfection
destruction of all forms of microbial life including spores sterilization
appropriate disinfectant is __ with a ration of __ household bleach / sodium hypochlorite , 1:10
this may occur using EDTA. Platelets adhere around neutrophils, forming a ring of satellite effect. platelet satellitosis
what anticoagulant you should use to correct platelet satellitosis? sodium citrate
anticoagulant of choice in coagulation studies sodium citrate
ratio of BLOOD to ANTICOAGULANT 9:1
in sodium citrate, it preserves what clotting factor factor 5 and 8
BLOOD to ANTICOAGULANT ratio in Standard Westergren 4:1
sodium citrate is used in concentration of 3.2%
Standard Westergren is used in concentration of 3.8%
natural anticoagulant heparin
inhibits coagulation by inactivation of thrombin heparin
Anticoagulant for Osmotic Fragility Test, and LAP test heparin
anticoagulant used for preserving glucose sodium fluoride
inhibitor of glycolysis sodium fluoride
Can also be used in determination of lactic and blood alcohol sodium fluoride
3 major ways for collecting blood skin puncture, venipuncture, winged blood collection (butterfly)
tourniquet should be applied ___ above the venipuncture site 3-4 inches
tourniquet application should not be longer than 1 min
most common means of collecting blood ETS
the most common needle size for adult venipuncture 21 gauge, 1 inch
advantage of using a 1 inch needle provides better control
most common skin cleanser 70% isopropyl alcohol
preferred concentration of anticoagulant in EDTA 1-2 mg/ml or 1.5mg/ml
how many inversions for light blue top tube 3-4
skin puncture should not be more than __ deep 2mm
false increase in capillary blood WBC and Glucose
false decrease in capillary lood rbc, hct, hb, plt
the most common complication encountered in obtaining a blood specimen. leakage of a small amount of blood in the tissue around the puncture site. ecchymosis or bruising
leakage of a large amount of blood around the puncture site causes the area to rapidly swell. hematoma
comprised of heme and 4 globin chains hemoglobin
nv of hb at birth 15-20 g/dL
nv of hb adult women 12-16 g/dL
nv of hb men 13-18 g/dL
wedge smear angle 30-45 degree
cover slip area 22mm x 22mm
wedge smear drop of blood 2-3mm
the distance of the drop of blood to the end of the slide 0.5 inch or 1 cm
if patient has increase hct (polycythemia vera) the angle of the spreader must be lowered to 25 degree angle
if patient has decrease hct (anemia) the angle of the spreader must be higher than 45 degree angle
romanowsky stain contains methelyne blue and eosin b or y
is a continuous, regulated process of blood cell production that includes cell renewal, proliferation, differentiation, and maturation hematopoiesis
These cells are present in the first few hours after an ovum is fertilized. totipotential stem cell
the most versatile type of stem cell, can develop into any human cell type, including development from embryo into fetus. totipotential stem cell
These cells are present several days after fertilization. it can develop into any cell type, except they cannot develop into a fetus. Pluripotent stem cells
These cells are derived from pluripotent stem cells. They can be found in adults, but they are limited to specific types of cells to form tissues multipotential stem cell
Begins around 19th day of embryonic development after fertilization. mesoblastic phase (yolk sac phase)
formation of primitive erythroblast mesoblastic phase (yolk sac phase)
what are the three embryogenic hemoglobins gower I, gower II, portland
begins at 5th to 7th week of gestation hepatic phase
lymphoid cells begin to appear hepatic phase
major site of hematopoiesis in hepatic phase until 1-2 weeks after birth` liver
detectable levels of Hb f, Hb A and Hb A2 may be present in this stage hepatic stage
globin chain of Hb F 2alpha, 2 gamma
Stage for the beginning of definitive hematopoiesis hepatic stage
medullary phase starts at __ of fetal development 5th month
measurable levels of Hb A, A2 and fetal Hb Medullary phase (Myeloid)
Hb A globin chain combination 2 alpha, 2 beta
Hb A2 globin chain combination 2 alpha, 2 delta
site of adult hematopoiesis bone marrow, spleen, kidney, liver, lymph nodes, thymus
normal HbA concentration in adults 92-95%
normal HbA2 concentration in adults 2-3%
normal HbF concentration in adults 1-2%
Hematopoietically active marrow consisting of the developing blood cells and their progenitors red marrow
Hematopoietically inactive marrow composed primarily of adipocytes (fat cells), with undifferentiated mesenchymal cells and macrophages yellow marrow
the process of replacing the red marrow by the yellow marrow is called retrogression
tissue basophil mast cell
capable of extramedullary hematopoiesis liver
two most common erythrocytic maturation stages with fried egg app. polychromatic and orthochromic normoblast
the largest cell in the bone marrow megakaryocyte
the most predominant cell in the bone marrow metamyelocyte
largest cell in the peripheral blood monocyte
largest lymphoid organ in the body spleen
spleen stores how many percent of platelets 30
graveyard of RBC spleen
Cord of billroth red pulp
removal of mature or senescent RBC through phagocytosis that leads to eventual degradation of cell organelles culling
removal of cell inclusions. pitting
A process by which erythroid precursor cells differentiate to become mature RBC. erythropoiesis
the primary regulator of erythropoiesis erythropoietin
normal M:E ratio 3:1
all blood cells are derived from a single pluripotential stem cell monophyletic theory
suggests that each of the blood cell lineage is derived from its own unique stem cell polyphyletic theory
RNA and Protein synthesis, presynthetic stage G1
cell division mitosis
chromosome condense prophase
centrosomes move to opposite poles prometaphase
sister chromatids segregate anaphase
chromatids move to opposite poles, cell divides telophase
glycoproteins that regulate the proliferation, differentiation, and maturation of hematopoietic precursor cell cytokines
dendritic cell precursor monocyte
macrophage precursor monocyte
In differentiating mature from immature RBCs, the emphasis should be in chromatin pattern
RBC: globin production begins in this rbc developmental stage pronormoblast / rubriblast
RBC: DETECTABLE level of hemoglobin Basophilic normoblast / prorubricyte
RBC: this stage is the LAST STAGE capable of mitosis polychromatic normoblast / rubricyte
RBC: 1st stage where hemoglobin synthesis is visible polychromatic normoblast / rubricyte
RBC: the nucleus is ejected in this stage orthochromic normoblast / metarubricyte
erythrocyte biconcave disc measuring 7-8um
last stage of hemoglobin production reticulocyte
stain used in reticulocyte new methelyne blue
Embden-Meyerhof pathway generates __ of RBC ATP 90%
common enzyme deficient in EMP pyruvate kinase
how many ATP molecules are formed in the EMP 2
most common inherited enzyme deficiency and is associated with Heinz bodies G6PD
what pathway has the deficiency of GPD Hexose monophosphate pathway
reduced glutathione reduces __ to water peroxidases
NADPH reduces the Ferric iron to the ferrous state in the presence of methemoglobin reductase methemoglobin reductase pathway
other name for methemoglobin reductase cytochrome B5 reductase
generates 2,3 diphosphoglycerate Luebering - Rapoport shunt
shape of the curve sigmoid
Demonstration the relationship between blood pH and oxygen affinity of Hb. bohr effect
RBC destruction in extravascular hemolysis 90%
function is to transport oxygen from the lungs to tissues and transport carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs for exhalation hemoglobin
how many amino acids are present in alpha and zeta chains 141
one gram of hemoglobin can carry __ ml of oxygen 1.34
one gram of hemoglobin can carry a constant __mg of Iron 3.47
chromosome 11 globin production gamma beta delta epsilon
chromosome 16 globin production alpha zeta
it is the master regulatory hormone of systemic iron metabolism. hepcidin
affinity for carbon monoxide is 200x greater than for oxygen and unable to transport oxygen carboxyhemoglobin
color for carboxyhemoglobin cherry red
carboxyhemoglobin is formed by combination of hemoglobin with carbon monoxide
can cause chocolate brown discoloration of the blood methemoglobin / hemiglobin
this type of hemoglobin is irreversible sulfhemoglobin
cannot be measure by cyanmethemoglobin method sulfhemoglobin
what is the discoloration of the blood in sulfhemoglobin mauve-lavender / green
reagent used in acid hematin (sahli's method) 0.1 N HCl
most common method in automated machine cyanmethemoglobin method (modified drabkin's)
absorbance of cyanmeth 540 nm
shortens the reaction time in cyanmeth method dihydrogen potassium phosphate
cyanmeth: converts ferric to ferrous potassium ferricyanide
cyanmeth: donates cyanide to hemoglobin potassium cyanide
cyanmeth: improves RBC lysis Non-ionic detergent
platelet count that can cause interference in cyanmeth method >700 x 10^9 / L
wbc count that can cause interference in cyanmeth method >20 x 10^9 / L
the SG of the copper sulfate solution is 1.053
in copper sulfate method, the drop of blood should be added from a height of about 1cm
in copper sulfate method, if the HB is equal or more than ___ the donor is accepted 12.5 g/dl
in copper sulfate method, if the drop of blood will sink within __ the donor is accepted 15 seconds
variation of cell size anisocytosis
increase in heterogenous population of cell RDW
normocytic size 6-8um
normal MCV 80-100fl
variation of hemoglobin content anisochromia
normal MCHC 32-36%
variation in RBC shape poikilocytosis
associated conditions are: abetalipoproteinemia and McLeod syndrome acanthocyte / spur cells/ thorn cells
anemia associated with renal insufficiency (uremia) and pyruvate kinase deficiency echinocyte
can be used to differentiate thalassemia and IDA target cell
gerbich null dse ( Ge: -2, -3, -4) elliptocyte
schistocyte with hornlike proections keratocytes
myeloid fibrosis with myeloid metaplasia myelopthisic anemia dacrocyte
howell jolly bodies positive reaction fuelgen reaction, wright's stain, supravital stain
precipitation of ribosomes and DNA basophilic stippling
figure of eight, infinity cabot rings
to confirm true roleaux formation, drop __ saline
BEST diluting fluid of RBC Dacies or Formol citrate
RBC counting diluting fluid gower, eagle, NSS, Toison, Strong, Bethel, Hayem, Dacie
volume of packed RBCs that occupies a given volume of whole blood Hematocrit
normal hematocrit at birth 45-60%
normal female hematocrit 36-48%
normal hematocrit male 40-55%
microhematocrit tube is __mm long 75
microhematocrit tube has an internal bore of ___mm 1.2
microhematocrit tube can hold __ml of blood 0.5
microhematocrit centrifuge RFC and min 10,000-15,000 RCF for 5 mins
increased ammount of trapped plasma is found in macrocytic anemia, spherocytosis, thalassemia, hypochromic anemia, sickle cell anemia
the space between the top of the platform and the cover glass 0.1 mm
the volume of one entire platform is 0.9uL
the volume of one large square is 0.1 uL
the volume of each 25 smaller squares is 0.004 uL
the volume of five small squares 0.02 uL
white count diluting fluid 2% acetic acid, 1% HCl, Turk's diluting fluid
leukocyte count should be performed within __ hours of dilution 3
in WBC count, allow the dilution to sit for how many minutes 10
type of Granulocyte that has 2-5 lobes Segmented
type of granulocyte that has elongated, curved, sausage shaped nucleus Band
secondary granule contains major basic protein
nucleus dark purple with only two lobes, contains large, spherical granules that stain orange-pink eosinophil
overlying granules, bilobed nucleus. has acidic components Basophil
nucleus: kidney, horseshoe shaped. cytoplasm: ground glass appearance monocyte
cytoplasm stains robin's egg blue lymphocyte
absolute count id preferred over relative
normal MCH value 28-32 pg
RDW reference range 11.5-14.5%
normal platelet count range 150,000-400,000/ uL
reference method in platelet count Phase microscopy / Brecher Conkrite
in brecher conkrite, whole blood is diluted with 1% ammonium oxalate
used to assess the erythropoietic activity of the bone marrow Reticulocyte count
normal value of Reticulocyte 0.5-1.5%
to improve accuracy in reticulocyte count, have another laboratorian count the other smear; values should agree within what percent 20%
sources of error in Reticulocyte count Heinz bodies, Hb H, Howell-Jolly
if a refrigerated sample is used for ESR, the result will be increased
the single most important factor in determining ESR Plasma composition
more preferred method in ESR westergren
specimen in westergren sodium citrate whole blood
ESR: in the first 10 mins rouleaux formation occurs and sedimentation rate is high lag phase
ESR: sedimentation occurs for a period of approximately 40 mins at a more rapid and constant rate decantation rate
ESR: occurs at the last 10 mins, RBCs accumulate at the bottom of the tube slow sedimentation
eosinophil count normal value 50-350 x 10^6/L
sickle cell trait and sickle cell anemia are caused by hemoglobin S
Sickle cell trait HbA% 60
sickle cell anemia HbA% 0
sickle cell test: deoxygenates hemoglobin sodium metabisulfite method
sickle cell test: red blood cells immediately lyse in the presence of saponin
sickle cell test: in the reduced state, form liquid crystals and yield a turbid appearance sodium dithionite test/ solubility test
sickle cell test: Hb A and Hb S reagents contain monoclonal antibodies (IgG), which specifically binds to amino acids at or near the sixth position of the globin chain Hemocard Hb A and S Procedure
positive for Hb A and Hb S is indicative of sickle cell trait
positive for Hb S only is indicative of sickle cell anemia
a screening test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Sugar water screening test
gold standard for PNH flow cytometry
confirmatory test for PNH sucrose hemolysis test
specimen for sugar water screening test and sucrose hemolysis test citrated blood
a test to measure the ability of the red cell to take up fluid without lysing osmotic fragility test
OFT result in hemolytic anemia and spherocytosis increase
reticulocytes have a __ OFT, while older cells are more fragile Lower
OFT: in sanford method, what is used as a diluent 0.5% saline
sanford method initial hemolysis at tube 22
sanford method complete hemolysis at tube 17
a test occasionally abnormal in hemophilia and Vit. K disorders capillary fragility test
lee and white coagulation time normal value 5-15mins
stains siderotic granules, pappenheimer bodies and hemosiderin prussian blue reaction
perl's reagent composition potassium ferricyanide-HCl
leukocyte ALP stains ALP present in neutrophils
polycythemia vera leukocyte ALP result increased
CML leukocyte ALP result decreased
leukocyte alkaline phosphatase normal value 30-185
recommended specimen for leukocyte ALP fresh capillary blood
stains peroxidases present in granulocytes and monocytes myeloperoxidase stain
used to diffrentiate AML and monocytic leukemia from ALL myeloperoxidase stain
stains lipid present in granulocytes and monocytes sudan Black B
used to differentiate AML and myelomonocytic leukemias from ALL sudan black B
stains mucoproteins, glycoproteins and hmw carbs periodic acid schiff stain
stain used to help in diagnosis of DiGuglielmo's syndrome PAS stain
in PAS stain, L1 and L2 produce what pattern block pattern
used to differentiate granulocytic cells from monocytic cells chloroacetate esterase
helpful in diagnosing hairy-cell leukemia tartrate-resistant ACP / ACP 5
used for recognition if mast cells and tissue s toluidine blue
screening procedure for the detection of CGD (negative) nitroblue tetrazolium neutrophil reduction test
present in 90% cases of ALL. used to differentiate AML from ALL terminal deoxyribonucleotidyl transferase
occurs in the mitochondria and cytoplasm of bone marrow RBC precursors heme
begins with condensation of glycine and succinyl coenzyme A, catalyzed by ___ to form aminolevulinic acid aminolevulinic acid synthase
neutrophil maturation: appearance of primary granule promycelocyte
neutrophil maturation: appearance of secondary granule neutrophilic myelocyte
neutrophil maturation: last stage capable of mitosis neutrophilic myelocyte
neutrophil maturation: nucleus is slightly indented D shaped neutrophilic myelocyte
neutrophil maturation: nucleus is kidney shaped, juvenile cells neutrophilic myelocyte
protein that binds iron to prevent bacterial growth. secreted by neutrophil lactoferrin
WBC: curved nucleus / sausage shaped neutrophilic band
it contain histamin, heparin, and chondroitin sulfate basophilic granules
maturation if months to years lymphocyte
life span 9-10 days neutrophil
appearance of platelet in wright stain wedge smear circular
primary hormone influencing platelet maturation thrombopoietin
platelet: the stage where demarcating system first appears (steininger) promegakaryocyte
platelet: nucleus is irregularly shaped promegakaryocyte
where does the proplatelet process appear? megakaryocyte
megakaryocyte lineage commited progenitors: most mature, endomitosis LD-CFU-MEG
platelet structure: where glycoproteins gpIb and gpIIbIIIa are found glycocalyx
platelet structure: contractile elements thrombosthenin / actomyosin
platelet structure: retains platelet microtubules
positive Gaucher's Disease PAS
Created by: CohenJanie
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