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Physics Final

Physic's and imaging final

QuestionAnswer
What unit of measure is used for the absorbed dose multiplied by the radiation weighting factor in the SI system: SV
The maximum number of electrons found in any energy level (shell) at any point in time is: 2n^2
The number of protons in the nucleus is called the: atomic number
All electromagnetic radiation travels at: The speed of light
Isotopes have ________ number of protons and ________ number of neutrons compared to a stable atom of a material: the same; different
The particles that distinguish one element from another are the: protons
Background radiation accounts for 6 msv of exposure, man made sources account for ___ msv of that: 3
The theory that electrons circulate in discrete circular paths was proposed by: Bohr
If an electron is gained or lost from an atom, the atom becomes: Ionized
Which of the following describes a product of the absorbed dose, the radiation factor and the tissue sensitivity? Effective dose
Which of the following units of measure are used for patient absorbed dose? Gy
A gamma ray is created in a _______________ and an x-ray is created in a _______________: nucleus of an atom; x-ray tube
Which of the following particles creates the most ionizations in air, and has a radiation weighting factor of 20? Alpha particles
True/False: Stochastic effects of radiation require a threshold dose before they are detectable: False
True/False: In diagnostic imaging, deterministic effects of radiation rarely occur: True
True/False: Thomas Edison discovered x-rays False
True/False: Time, distance, shielding are the cardinal rules of radiation safety: True
True/False: Technologist wear a TDL type personal monitoring device: True
True/False: Air kerma is an easily measured and comparable factor used for entrance skin exposure: True
True/False: 0.05 Sv or 5 REM is the yearly occupational dose limit in the US: True
Energy is measured in ________ Electron volts
Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of __________ Matter
Radio waves, light, and x-rays are all examples of _________ energy: electromagnetic
What is the removal of an electron from an atom called: Ionization
The energy of x-rays is _______________ Electromagnetic
The biggest source of man-made radiation exposure to the public is ______________ diagnostic x-rays
Absorbed dose is measured in units of ____________ grays
ALARA= As Low As Reasonably Achievable
The smallest particle that has all the properties of an element is a(n) : Atom
The chemical element is determined by the number of __________ in an atom: protons
An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of ____________ zero
The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their __________ shells
When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of neutrons, it is called an: isotope
True/False: KERMA is a measure only done in air: False
An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is a(n): Ion
Which of the following measures current flowing in a circuit: mA
The absorbed dose for the PA view of the chest is 1 mrad, the absorbed dose for the later view of the chest is 4 mrad. What is the integral dose for this chest exam: 5
The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter: Z
Deterministic effects of radiation include all of the following except: cancers
During beta emission, an atom releases: electrons
The only difference between x-rays and gamma rays is their: origin
The __________ is the least penetrating form of ionizing radiation: alpha particle
The three properties of photons are _________, __________, and __________. frequency; wavelength; and energy
The theory of ALARA for health care workers supports which of the following practices for pregnant technologist: No modification to the work rotation
What is the velocity of ALL electromagnetic radiation: 3 x 10^8 m/s
The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called it's: Frequency
A hertz (Hz) is equal to _________ cycle(s) per second: 1
If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then it's frequency must: decrease by half
The intensity of radiation __________ in __________ proportion to the square of the distance of the object from the source: decrease; inverse
If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet, what will the intensity be at 6 feet: 1 millilumen
The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its: frequency
Photons with the highest frequencies have the: Shortest wavelengths
The smallest unit of electrical charge is the: electron
Electrification occurs through the movement of: electrons only
Like charges __________ and unlike charges __________: repel; attract
The charges on an electrified object are distributed: evenly on the surface of the object
On the surface of an electrified object, the charges concentrate on the: Sharpest curvature
A __________ is a source of a direct current: battery
What is the unit of electric potential: Volt
An electric potential applied to a conductor produces an __________ and a __________: electric current; magnetic field
An alternating (AC) current is represented by a __________ line: sinusoidal
What is ohm's law: I=V/R
Electrical power is measured in: watts
When a group of anatomic dipoles are aligned, they create a: magnetic domain (a magnet)
What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength: Tesla
Methods of electrification are all of the following except: A) friction B) contact C) induction D) retention D) retention
Radiation protection practices, for example, shielding all patients and applying ALARA principles are based on the theory of __________, which has a non-threshold relationship: stochastic
Which of the following materials is strongly magnetic: ferromagnetic
Which of the following describes the type of radiation used, the tissue exposed and the amount absorbed, in other words, which tells us the most information regarding an exposure to radiation: Effective dose
True/False: Materials with an outer shell and conductive band that overlap are good conductors of electricity: True
True/False: Occupational dose limits for a pregnant worker are 0.5 R for the whole gestation and 0.05 R for each month: True
True/False: When DC is applied to the primary coil of a transformer, the secondary coil increases voltage: False
True/False: A step down transformer is used when an increase in current is require: True
The principle application for a transformer is to: change voltage
220 V are supplied to the primary coil and it has 800 turns. The secondary coil has 200 turns, what is the voltage in the secondary: 55
At what point in the x-ray circuit is the rectification circuit located: Between the step-up transformer and the x-ray tube
Which of the following timer types provides exposure times as low as 1 mS: electronic timer
Which of the following generator types has the most voltage ripple: A) 3 phase 6 pulse B) 3 phase 12 pulse C) single phase full-wave D) high frequency C) Single phase full-wave
All of the following are radiographer operated controls except: A) kVp selection B) generator selection C) exposure switch D) mA selection B) generator selection
The voltage in the x-ray circuit is adjusted or fine tuned in the __________ for ease and safety: Autotransformer
The incoming power to a step up transformer is 100 V, 10A with a turns ration of 250:1 (secondary; primary): 25,000 V
The most likely found incoming line current in a modern radiography system is: 3 phase power
Nearly all hard wired equipment operates on incoming line voltage of: 440 V
All of the following are principle parts of the x-ray system except: A) The tube B) High voltage generated C) Filament transformer D) Operating console C) Filament transformer
A step down transformer has __________ windings in the secondary vs. primary side: less
True/False: The basic x-ray circuit is divided into the main circuit and the anode circuit: False
True/False: The mAs in a system controls the quality of the beam: False
True/False: In single phase power systems, the potential never drops to zero: False
Which of the following transformers has one winding: A) Filament transformer B) High voltage transformer C) Autotransformer C) Autotransformer
True/False: The high voltage generator consist of high voltage transformer, rectifiers, and an autotransformer: False
The filament in the x-ray tube requires__________ amperes to emit electrons, thermionic emission: 3-5
Which of the following waveforms has the highest efficiency: A) 3 phase 6 pulse B) 3 phase 12 pulse C) Single phase full wave D) All are equal B) 3 phase 12 pulse
A single phase full wave rectifier system produces _______ pulses per cycle: 2
The three main parts of the x-ray imaging system are the x-ray tube, __________, and __________. operating console; high voltage generator
The operating console contains circuits that are: Low voltage only
Variations in power distribution to the x-ray machine are corrected by the: Line voltage compensator
Which of the following components receives power first in the x-ray circuit: Autotransformer
The autotransformer has ___________ solenoid(s): One
The __________ circuit (transformer) provided electrons for the cathode within the x-ray tube: filament
Thermionic emission at the filament determines the __________ across the x-ray tube during exposure: milliamperage
A step-down transformer is located in the __________ circuit: filament
The least accurate type of timer is the ________ time: Mechanical
The automatic exposure control (AEC) terminated the exposure when: Sufficient radiation reaches the image receptor
The mAs timer is usually set to give the ________ mA at the _______ time: highest; shortest
A diode allows electrons to flow from Cathode to anode
The high voltage generator contains the high voltage transform, the __________ , and the __________: Filament transformer; rectifiers
The difference in the waveform between the primary and secondary sides of the high voltage transformer is: Amplitude
With half-wave rectification, the current flows through the x-ray tube during the ________ part of the cycle: Positive
Full-wave rectified, three-phase units provide an x-ray beam at __________ pulse(s) per second: 360
Voltage across the x-ray tube is most constant with: High frequency generators
A single-phase waveform has __________ ripple: 100%
The x-ray beam generated by the circuit with the __________ voltage ripple has the __________ quantity and quality: lowest; highest
The external structure of the x-ray tube includes the support structure, the protective housing, and the: Glass envelope
As an x-ray tube ages, the inside can become coated with tungsten, which can cause ___________ in the tube: arcing
The negative side of the x-ray tube holds the: filament
The filament is made out of: Tungsten
Thermionic emission at the filament creates a: Space charge
The rotating anode is turned by a: magnetic field
When electrons bombard the target, ________% of their kinetic energy is converted to heat: 99
The __________ is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube: Focal spot
Because of the line focus principle, the effective focal spot size decreases with decreasing: Target angle
Low capacity x-ray tube rotors revolve at a minimum _______ rpm: 3600
The x-ray intensity is lower on the anode side of the tube because of the: Heel effect
The anode side of the tube should be directed toward the __________ part of the patient: Thinner
What is the formula for heat units for a 3-phase, 6-pulse x-ray machine: 1.35 x kVp x mA x seconds
Tube failure can occur from: Long exposure times
The filament in an x-ray tube is about __________ cm in length: 1-2
All of the following are inside the glass envelope, except: A) Stators B) Rotor C) Focal spot D) Filament A) Stators
Extrafocal or off-focus radiation is produced from: Non-focused electrons
The heel effect is caused by the: Anode angle
The effective focal spot size is __________ the actual focal spot size: smaller than
Cracking on the anode can occur from: Single excessive exposure
Projectile electrons travel from: Cathode to anode
At the target, the projectile electrons characteristically interact with __________ but are not usable radiation: Outer shell excitation
The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to: mAs
The efficiency of x-ray production increases as ________ increases: kVp
Electron interactions at the inner-shell of the target atom produce __________ radiation: Characteristic
The useful characteristic x-rays from tungsten targets are __________ -shell x-rays: K
Characteristic K-shell tungsten x-rays have an effective energy of __________ keV: 69
Most of the x-rays produced at the target are: Bremsstrahlung
At 55 kVp, __________ of the useful x-rays produced are bremsstrahlung: 100%
Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced by __________ at the target: Slowing electrons
Characteristic x-rays are produced by: Released binding energy
The quantity of bremsstrahlung radiation increases proportionately with increased: mAs
An exposure taken at 100 kVp would have continuous emission spectrum with an average energy of __________ keV: 33
The __________ of an x-ray beam is higher when the peak of the emission spectrum is further to the ___________: quantity; left
An increase in mAs would __________ the __________ of the emission spectrum: increase; amplitude alone
An increase in kVp would __________ the __________ of the emission spectrum: Increase; amplitude and position (shift to right)
Changes in __________ & __________ result in directly proportional changes in the amplitude of the emission spectrum: mA; time
True/False: Some of the x-ray photons may pass through matter and not interact with the matter at all: True
During the photoelectric True/False: During the photoelectric interaction, the incident x-ray photon must be equal to or greater than the binding energy of the inner-shell electron: True
True/False: A photoelectric interaction is more likely to occur when the x-ray photon energy and the the electron binding energy are farther from one another: False
True/False: When a scattered photon is deflected back toward the source, it is traveling in the direction opposite to the incident photon and is called backscatter radiation: True
True/False: During pair production, the positively charged electron is termed a negatron: False
True/False: As kVp increases, the total number of photons transmitted without interaction increases: True
When an x-ray passes through matter, it undergoes a process called: Attenuation
During the process of attenuation, the x-ray photon may interact with: The nucleus, the entire atoms, and orbital electron
In which element are the inner shell electrons more tightly bound to the nucleus: A) mercury (Z = 80) B) tungsten (Z = 74) C) lead (Z = 82) D) chromium (Z = 24) C) Lead (Z=82)
Secondary radiation is created after a ___________ interaction: photoelectric absorption
When x-ray photons interact with matter and change direction, the process is called: Scatter
When an x-ray photon with a slightly greater energy than the binding energy of the inner-shell electron interacts with that inner-shell electron, the following interaction results: photoelectric absorption
During the photoelectric interaction, as an electron transfers from an outer shell to a vacant inner shell, energy is released in the form of: a characteristic photon
During coherent scattering, the scattered photon possesses _________ as the incident photon: the same energy, the same frequency, and the same wavelength
Compton scattering occurs when an incident x-ray photon interacts with a __________ electron: loosely bound outer-shell
The electron dislodged during Compton scatter is called the: Recoil electron
During which interaction with matter is the x-ray photon converted to matter in the form of two sub-atomic particles: Pair production
What is the total differential absorption in bone compared to fat: Bone Z# 13.8 and mass density 1900 kg/m^3 Fat Z# 6.8 and mass density 910 kg/m3 17.5
Which of the following interaction has a significant impact on the x-ray image: Photoelectric absorption
Which of the following interactions with matter results in a radiograph with a long scale of contrast (low contrast gray image): Compton scattering
Which of the following interactions with matter results in a radiograph with a short scale of contrast (high contrast black and white image): Photoelectric interactions
An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized during: Compton interactions
Which x-ray interaction involves the ejection of the K-shell electron: Photoelectric absorption
The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains ___________ of the energy of the incident photon: Most
As kVp __________, the probability of photoelectric absorption ___________. increases; decreases
In ___________, there is complete absorption of the incident x-ray photon, with no other photons created during that incident: Photoelectric interaction
__________ occurs only at the very high energies used in radiation therapy and in nuclear medicine P. E. T. imaging: Pair production
Only at energies above 10 MeV can __________ take place: Pair production
When the mass density of the absorber is __________, it results in ___________ Compton scatter: increases; increased
K-shell binding energy increases with increasing: Atomic number
Which has the greatest mass density? Bone
Differential absorption in diagnostic imaging is primarily caused by: Photoelectric absorption
Differential absorption is dependent on (the): - kVp of the exposure - atomic number of the absorber - mass density of the absorber
Barium is a good contrast agent because of its: High atomic number
At energies below 40 keV, the predominant x-ray interaction in bone is photoelectric absorption
If 5% of an incident beam is transmitted through a body part, then 95% of that beam was: Attenuated
Compton interactions, photoelectric absorption, and transmitted x-rays all contribute to: Differential absorption
X-rays transmitted without interaction contribute to: The radiographic image
In the diagnostic range, rare earth scintillators are better absorbers than Calcium Tungstate. This is due to the phenomena known as: k-edge effect or absorption
The main reason to use a scintillator or phosphor as a capture element is: to decrease patient exposure (dose) vs. direct exposure systems
The light-emitting efficiency (speed) of the intensifying screen is improved by the: reflective layer
Screen characteristics are determined by the: - size of the phosphor crystals - thickness of the phosphor layer - phosphor concentration
A phosphorescent material emits light: for a period of time after stimulation
A screen that emits light after an exposure terminates is exhibiting: Screen lag
The intensification factor is a measurement of screen: Speed
The ability of an intensifying screen to absorb x-ray is called: detective quantum efficiency
Image noise is increased with increased: conversion efficiency (CE)
Both the isotropic emission of light from screen phosphor crystals and the added reflective layer contribute to: Image blur
As screen speed ______image detail _______: Increases; decreases
A wrist x-ray required ________ detail and would be best imaged with a ______speed phosphor: Higher; 100
Adding a light absorbing dye to the tube side of a phosphor ___________ the screen speed compared to phosphors with a reflective layer: Decreases
True/ False: The tube side of a cassette should have a high Z# material, to prevent excessive attenuation: False
Nosie in an image negatively effects: Contrast
True/ False: The best method of reducing noise when using a very fast speed system, would be to increase the mAs. The best method of reducing noise when using a very fast speed system, would be to increase the mAs.
True/False: An image with very few gray shades, mostly black and white, is described as having a wide latitude: False
True/ False: The law of reciprocity states that as long as the mAs is the same, no matter the combination of mA and time, the amount of exposure is the same. True
Patient or part thickness has a direct effect on scatter in the resulting image. Which of the following parts would produce the most scatter? Femur
The best way to minimize magnification is to use a: - Long SID - Small OID
The distance at which a focused grid can be used is directly related to the: focal range
The interspace material used in grids is said to be: Radiolucent
The most commonly used beam restricting device is the: variable collimator
If the grid ratio is increased, and no technical factors are changed, the radiograph would show an increase in: Contrast
How can you improve image contrast with a heavy patient without increasing patient dose: Use tight collimation
Which type of collimation (beam restrictor) is most effective? Cylinder
Which of the following grids would be best used for portable imaging? parallel, 10:1
Which kVp selection would result in the most scattered x-rays in the image-forming beam? 90 kVp
The prime factors include each of the following except: filtration
Milliamperage-second directly affects each of the following except: quality
If kVp is doubled, the amount of x-ray photons approximately: increases fourfold
The 15% rule states that an increase in kVp is equivalent to a _______ increase in mAs, in terms of exposure to the IR: 100% (doubling)
A factor that affects the amount of scatter produced is: Kilovoltage
As the volume of irradiated tissue ___, the amount of scatter ___: Increases; increases
Increasing the kVp from 60 to 80 increases the intensity of xray from 100mR to ____mR: 178
As patient size increases a ______in mAs is required for every 4cm increase in patient thickness: Doubling
When imaging a barium filled stomach, which of the following kVp selections is most appropriate when a standard abdomen requires 75kVp for good image quality: 110
A radiograph taken at 80 kVp, 40 mAs, 10:1 grid (GCF 4) at 40 inches was of adequate quality. If the distance is changed to 80 inches what corresponding change would provide an image of equal contrast and density: 160 mAs
Which of the following is the most commonly used technique chart in Radiography today: AEC chart
True/ False: Using a fixed kVp chart provides for a longer scale of contrast when compared to a variable kVp chart: True
True/False: Filtration of the x-ray beam causes an increase in quality and a decrease in quantity: True
True/ False: HVL is a good measure of beam quantity: False
True/False: The law of reciprocity states that no matter the mA and time combination, as long as the mAs is the same, exposure will be the same: True
True/False: Detail in an image is controlled by kVp: False
True/ False: Distortion in an image can be shape or size in nature: True
All of the following pathologies would require an increase in kVp except? COPD/emphysema
Magnification causes excessive blur in our images, to decrease magnification we would do all of the following except? Decreased SID
True/ False: A patient presents for a shoulder radiograph, they are much more muscular than the average patient. Increasing the mAs is the best option to get proper image quality: False
A high quality radiograph should always demonstrate: minimum magnification
Spatial resolution improves with decreased ___ blur: - Scintillator -Motion -Geometric
___ is defined as the ability to image two separate objects of high contrast and visually detect one from the other: Spatial resolution
Radiographic ___ is random fluctuation in the optical density of a radiograph: Noise
What is the formula for the magnification factor: MF = SID/SOD
The three primary geometric factors affecting image quality are _________: size distortion, shape distortion, and focal spot blur
Large objects with large interspaces are described as__________: having low spatial frequency
spot blur can be reduced by using: a small focal spot
The best way to minimize magnification is to use a: - Long SID - Small OID
Distortion can be reduced by: placing the object plane parallel to the image plane
Patient (part) thickness affects image quality by affecting - focal spot blur - radiographic contrast - Magnification
When reducing the field of view from 14 x 17 in to 10 x 12 in a decrease in scatter is realized. Which of the follwoing factors should be increased to maintain IR exposure or image density: mAs
The small focal spot will provide a: Finer detail of image
An average patient is imaged at 70 kVp 40 mAs for a lumbar spine exam. patient measuring 15 cm larger than average would require which of the following: 320 mAs
Patient or part tthickness has a direct effect on scatter in the resulting image. Which of the following parts would produce the most scatter: Femur
Which type of collimation (beam restrictor) reduces the blur seen in an image: Cylinder
Subject contrast(how x-ray interacts in the body) is affected by: patient thickness
The technologist primarily controls radiographic contrast by varying the: Kilovoltage
Which kVp selection would result in the greatest percentage of scattered x-rays in the image-forming beam? 90 kVp
The three primary factors influencing the amount of scatter in the exit beam are: kVp, field size, and patient thickness
The most commonly used beam restricting device is the: variable collimator
The use of a compression device will increase: contrast
The use of ___ improves contrast and reduces patient dose: collimation
Beam restriction with a(n) ___ is only accurate at a fixed SID: aperture diaphragm
Patient thickness should be measured with the ___ in a variable kVp chart: Caliper
In a fixed kVp system, a _______kVp and ____mAs are used compared to a variable kVp system: Higher; Lower
In a variable kVp technique chart, the optimal mAs is set for each body part and there is a ___ kVp increase for each cm of thickness: 2
How can you improve image contrast with a heavy patient without increasing patient dose? Use tight collimation
Decreasing the kVp while holding mAs constant will increase: Image noise
What are the four primary exposure factors: kVp, mA, time, and SID
Optical density or exposure to the IR is primarily controlled by changing the: mAs
Changes in kVp affect: - optical density - image contrast - patient exposure
An increase in mAs causes ___ in beam quality and ___ in beam quantity: no change, an increase
The relationship between the quantity of x-rays and the ___ is directly proportional: Milliamperage
If mAs is increased from 20 mAs to 40 mAs, the patient exposure will ____: be doubled
Beam penetrability is increased if ___ is/are increased: kVp
A ___% increases in kVp has the same effect on optical density as doubling the mAs: 15
If the distance from the source to the image (SID) is reduced by half, how is the x-ray intensity at the image affected: it is increased 4 times
A 10% increase in kVp has ___ effect on x-ray intensity than/as a 10% increase in mAs: Much greater
True/False: The best spatial resolution is created with a smaller matrix size: False
True/ False: Larger pixel sizes provide better spatial resolution: False
True/ False: Bit depth describes the number of gray shades that can be displayed by a pixel, the greater the number the better: True
True/ False: An MTF of 0.8 is a higher quality image than an MTF of 0.3: True
True/ False: A system that displays 8 lp/cm has greater detail than a system that displays 10lp/cm: False
True/ False: Misalignment of the tube, part and receptor results in foreshortening/elongation of an object in our image: True
True/ False: When imaging an object with a SID of 100cm and an OID of 20cm, the MF = 1.25: True
True/False: A system with 5 lp/mm resolution, can show an object as small as 0.05mm: False
True/ False: Focal spot blur is greater when we utilize short SIDs and large OIDs: True
True/ False: Computed radiography cassettes may be used with the same imaging equipment as film/screen cassettes, with minor modification to techniques: True
A photostimulable phosphor in a metastable state will emit light: - Immediately - when stimulated by light - over time (after exposure but before processing)
The photostimulable phosphor screen is handled in a: Reader
The computed radiography reader is made up of ___, ___, and ___ modules: - Mechanical - optical (lend & mirror) - Computer
The four steps of creating an image with computed radiography are: metastable state, stimulate, read, and erase
Following the laser stimulation of the photostimulable phosphor, the excited electrons are: mostly (99%) stabilized
The laser is one of the ___ features of the computed radiography reader: Optical
Optical filters are used to filter out the ___ light and allow the ___ light to reach the photodetector: stimulating; emitted
The output signal from the photostimulable phosphor plate is converted from analog to digital by the: Photodiode
True/ False: Spatial resolution, contrast resolution, are identical in screen-film imaging and computed radiography False
The principal source of reduced contrast resolution in computed radiography is : Scatter radiation
With computed radiography the contrast is: constant(LINEAR) regardless of radiation exposure
The laser beam must be less than 100 nm in diameter in order to maintain: high spatial resolution
__ is prevented by flooding the imaging plate with bright light after reading: Ghosting
In CR as the display field of view is increased in size, spatial resolution (sharpness) in the image: Decreases
In a 12-bit analog-to-digital converter, each pixel will have how many possible values: 4096
Mottle is likely to appear in the computerized image any time the: exposure indicator is low in a positive system
Which of the following types of DR uses a fan beam and a detector array: SPR
True/ False: An indirect DR system with CsI is preferred over GdOS, due to its better spatial resolution from needle-like phosphor crystals: True
Which of the following DR systems has the best spatial resolution: a-Se
Which of the following choices will require the least image exposure for the same image quality/noise level: 5% dead space
True/ False: Indirect DR systems loss of detail is due to light spread in the scintillator: True
True/ False: The space a TFT fills in a Direct DR system is considered the active area of the pixel: False
Which of the following DR systems has the lowest spatial resolution or the widest Line spread function: scintillator with a-Si
Scanned Projected Radiography was developed to complement: CT
True/ False: In DR spatial resolution is improved with decreased FOV: False
True/ False: Systems with high dead space require greater technical factors verses systems with lower dead space for equal image quality: True
True/ False: In CR and DR selecting the exam and view prior to processing selects the VOI, algorithm and the Look up table: True
True/ False: In CR and DR the acquired or raw data is very low contrast. The algorithm used during processing will correct the contrast and brightness of the image for viewing: False
True/ False: In CR and DR, we have a wider exposure latitude, this requires technologist to be more accurate with their technical selection to avoid repeat examinations: False
Created by: emilygarner22
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