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Pharmacology ch 1-10

1a. Pharmacology Midterm review ch 1-10

What is the rate-limiting factor for drug distribution? blood flow
What term is used to describe a drug which binds to a receptor and has an action similar to that of an endogenous chemical? agonist
What can drugs combine with in addition to receptors? enzymes, transport proteins, and nucleic acids
By what process can one drug increase the metabolism of both itself and other drugs? induction
What form of a drug crosses cell membranes easily? nonionized
What term is used to decribe the situation when the effect of two drugs given together is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual actions? synergism
What term is used to describe the phemomenon in which elevating a dose of drug no longer improves the clinical effect for that drug? ceiling effect
What term is used to describe the strength by which a particular messenger binds to its receptor site? affinity
What is the study of the activity of drugs within the body known as? pharmacokinetics
What term is used to describe a severe response to a chemical that is characterized by life-threatening respiratory distress and shock? anaphylactic reaction
An all-inclusive effect on the whole body is also called a(n)______ effect. systemic
From what two organs are most drugs eliminated? kidney and liver
What happens during an oxidative metabolic reaction? The drug loses an electron and gains an oxygen atom.
How does grapefruit interact with certain drugs? It contains a compound that can inhibit intestinal cytochrome P-450, allowing more drug to be absorbed.
What is a classic example of a drug that is eliminated by a zero-order pharmacokinetic process? alcohol
Why are the intestines the major site of drug absorption after oral administration of drugs? They have a large surface area from which to absorb drugs.
If a drug has a half-life of 6 hours and a starting blood concentration of 100mg/kg, how long will it take until the concentration of the drug in the blood is 25mg/kg? 12 hours
In what way are the capillaries in the central nervous system (CNS) different from other capillaries? They are enveloped by glial cells, which present additional barriers against water-soluble compounds.
What does bioavailability reflect? The fraction of an administered dose that is available to the target tissue.
What does the abbreviation ADME stand for? absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination
What is the most serious allergic reaction to penicillins? anaphylaxis
What is the biggest challenge in developing a new antibiotic? killing the bacteria without harming the patient.
What bacterial pathway do sulfonamides interfere with? folic acid biosynthesis
Which of the following is not a mechanism by which bacteria develop antibiotic resistance? metabolism
Which of the following is an example of a gram-positive bacterium and infection it causes? staphylococcus resulting in toxic shock syndrome.
What are two general signs that an infection is bacterial in origin? white blood cell count above 12,000 and fever above 101 degrees Fahrenheit.
What is true of a bacteriostatic antibiotic? It inhibits the growth or multiplication of bacteria.
By which century were the organisms that cause cholera, syphilis, and leprosy isolated and identified? 20th
Which of the following drugs is associated with an adverse effect known as Red Man's syndrome? vancomycin
Which statement regarding linezolis (Zyvox) is incorrect? It should be stored in clear glass containers.
What was the first true class of antibiotics? sulfonamides
What term is used to describe antibiotic treatment that is begun before the results of the organism culture have been returned? empirical
Which of the following classes of antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes? tetracyclines
Which of the following drugs is classified as a macrolide? erythromycin
What are the bacteria that require oxygen to survive known as? aerobic
What is the most frequent form of bacterial resistance to antibiotics? destruction of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes
What type of infections are aminoglycosides such as amikacin or kanamycin used to treat? sepsis
Why should the counting tray be swabbed with alcohol after dispensing an antibiotic? to prevent cross-contamination
When this drug is dispensed, a "Do not drink alcohol" sticker must be attached to the container. metronidazole
How do third-generation cephalosporins differ from earlier cephalosporins? improved activity against gram-negative bacteria
Why is it more difficult to develop antiviral drugs than it is to develop antibiotics? Because viruses utilize the host (patient) cell processes, killing them is often toxic to the patient.
Which of the following choices represents a class of antiretroviral drugs? nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), protease inhibitor (PI), and fusion inhibitor
What is common about the mechanism of action of antifungal drugs? Antifungals interfere with the synthesis of ergosterol, a building block for fungal cell membranes.
What is an example of a chronic viral infection? herpes
How can antibiotics worsen fungal infections? Antibiotics may kill the body's natural flora, which tend to keep fungi in check.
Which of the following antifungal drugs should be taken with a fatty meal and can be used safely in children? griseofulvin
What is a route by which most common viruses spread? direct contact, ingestion of contaminated food and water, ingalation of airborne particles, and exposure of contaminated body fluids and/or comtaminated equipment
What pair of viruses below are examples of latent viruses? herpes and HIV
What is a common target of fungal infections? nails
What is another name for an individual virus particle? virion
What is becoming a common dosing method for treating fungal nail infections? pulse dosing (one week per month)
Which of the following drugs is used to treat influenza A or influenza B? rimantadine, zanamivir, and oseltamivir
Which drug or drug class listed below is least likely to be used to treat side effects associated with amphotericin B? penicillin
Which of the antiviral drugs listed below is also effective in treating patients with parkinsonism? amantadine
Which of the following drugs acts by preventing the HIV virus from entering immune cells? enfuvirtide
What aspect of the fungal cell wall is affected by amphotericin B? permeability
What term is used to describe a specific molecule produced by B-lymphocyles with help from T helper cells and other mechanisms? immunoglobulin
Patients taking which of the following drugs should not drive at night? viroconazole
How are fungal and human cells similar? They both have a defined nucleus
Which of the following drugs is classified as a nucloside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)? abacavir
Which of the following drugs is an example of a selective 5-HT receptor agonist? sumatriptan (Imitrex)
Which local anesthetic drug does not relax vascular smooth muscle? cocaine
Which of the following narcotics is a controlled substance? morphine, codeine, oxycodone, and meperidine
Which of the following drugs can be used to reverse the effects of a narcotic? naloxone (Narcan)
Which narcotic is the standard against which all other narcotics are measured or compared? morphine
What is not an aspect of balanced anesthesia? hypertension
What neurotransmitter is also known as adrenaline? epinephrine
What is the only neuromuscular blocker that acts via a depolarizing mechanism? succinylcholine (Quelicin)
What class of drugs can be used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers? anticholinesterases
Which of the following general anesthetics is administered intravenously? ketamine (Ketalar)
What class of drugs may be used to treat migraine headaches? triptans
Following injection with a local anesthetic, what sensation is affected first? pain perception
Which of the following drugs are the most used preoperative sedatives? benzodiazepines
What is the most inportant action of alpha-adrenergic receptors? vasoconstriction, raising blood pressure
What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system? afferent and efferent
Which drug listed below can be administered as a nasal spray to treat a migraine attack? sumatriptan (Imitrex), zolmitriptan (Zomig), dihydroergotamine (Migranal), and butorphanol (Stadol)
What did the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) define, in 2001, as the "fifth" vital sign? pain
What term describes the physical and emotional reliance of patients on narcotics? dependence
What ate the primary opiate receptors associated with analgesia? mu, kappa, delta
Which of the following narcotics can be given intravenously as a preanesthetic medication and also administered as a patch or as a lozenge? fentanyl (Actiq)
Fluoxetine is an example of an antidepressant that appears to work through which of the following mechanisms? It inhibits the reuptake of serotonin into certain neurons in the brain
What drug used to treat alcohol addiction interferes with the metabolism of ethanol? disulfiram (Antabuse)
Which monoamine oxidase inhibitor is used to treat Parkinson's patients rather than depressed patients? selegiline (Eldepryl)
Tardive dyskinesia is associated with the long-term use of which psychiatric medication? antipsychotics
Which two neurotransmitters are believed to be most involved with schizophrenia and the drugs used to treat this disorder? dopamine and serotonin
Which or the following new antipsychotic drugs is classified today as being "atypical"? olanzapine (Zyprexa)
Which of the following is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal? nausea and vomiting, delirium tremens (DTs), hallucinations, and sweating
Which of the following drugs is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor? amitriptyline
Which class of antidepressants inhibits enzymes that metabolize catecholamines? MAOIs
Which of the following is an anticholinergic drug used to treat the Parkinson-like side effects of antipsychotic therapy? benztropine (Cogentin)
With which psychiatric disorder do patients suffer from alternating episodes of major depression and mild-to-severe agitation? bipolar mood disorder
Which drug used to treat depression is also used for smoking cessation? buproprion
Which of the following antianziety drugs is not a benzodiazepine? buspirone (Buspar)
Which of the following drugs used to treat insomnia is not a DEA scheduled controlled substance? diphenhydramine
What class of drugs is part of the standard of care for alcohol (ethanol) detoxification? benzodiazepines
What system can be adversely affected by lithium and how? gastrointestinal-nausea, vomiting, and anorexia; neuromuscular-tremors; weight- weight gain; renal- increased thirst and urination
Which of the following drugs is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant and has significant anticholinergic side effects? imipramine
During which stages of sleep does dreaming occur? stages III and IV
What term is used to describe anxiety for which there is no identifiable source than from within the patient? endogenous
What drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in the treatment of bipolar disorder, particularly with rapid cyclers? divalproex (Depakote)
Which of the following drugs has been shown to improve the cognitive function and social behavior of Alzheimer's patients and is sold over the counter? gingko
What dopamine precursor is used to treat Parkinson patients? levodopa (Doplar)
Which pair of anticonvulsants is most likely to interact with other drugs a patient may be taking? phenobarbital (Luminal) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
Which anticonvulsant does not appear to act via GABA receptors and is frequently used to treat neuropathic pain? gabapentin (Neurontin)
What is a characteristic pathologic feature in the midbrain of patients with Parkinson's disease? Lewy Bodies
What are the most common side effects of antiseizure medications? sedation and some degradation of cognitive process
Which of the following anticonvulsants is also used to treat manic episodes in bipolar mood disorders? valproic acid (Depakene)
What class of drugs may be used to diagnose and treat myasthenia gravis? acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
Which of the following anticonvulsants is correctly paired with the process it most likely affects? diazepam (Valium)--GABA
What combination drug contains levodopa plus an inhibitor of peripheral levodopa metabolism? Sinemet
What is the potential way in which antiepileptic medications can interact with each other and other drugs? They can alter the metabolism of other drugs
What term is used to describe continuous tonic-clonic seizures, lasting over 30 minutes, during which consciousness may not return? status epiepticus
The prevalence of Parkinson's disease is highest in what age group? above age 60
Which drug used to treat ADD/ADHD is not a controlled substance? atomoxetine (Strattera)
Which drug listed below is used to treat patients with multiple sclerosis? interferon beta-1a (Avonex, Rebif), interferon beta-1b (Betaseron), mitoxantrone (Novantrone), and baclofen
Which anticonvulsant is the drug of choice for absence seizures? ethosuximide (Zarontin)
With what type of seizure may patients display blank stares, rotating eyes and rapid blinking; not have generalized convulsions; and have up to 100 occurrences a day? absence seizure
Which neurotranmitter is deficient in the nigrostriatal pathways of patients with Parkinson's disease? dopamine
Which of the following anticonvulsants is a DEA scheduled controlled substance? diazepam (Valium)
What two neurotransmitters in the brain appear to play the greatest role in seizures? GABA and glutamate
Which of the following medication is least likely to be used to treat or stop an acute asthma attack? cromolyn sodium
Which of the following antitussives is a DEA controlled substance? codeine
What is a potential symptom of nicotine withdrawal? anxiety, difficulty in concentrating, gastrointestinal diturbances, and increased appetite and weight gain
In what percent of asthma patients is there an allergic component? 35-55%
Which of the following is a reversible syndrome in which breathing may be difficult? asthma
Which of the following is a potentially life-threatening condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing, has blue lips, and nail beds, may lose consciousness, and does not respond to normal management? status asthmaticus
Which repiratory medication listed below is an inhaled coricosteroid? fluticasone (Flovent)
With which device, used to administer asthma or COPD medication, does a stream of air flow past a liquid to create a fine mist for the patient to inhale? nebulizer
An asthma attack consists of how many phases or responses? 2
What is the least sedating OTC antihistamine and the only one approved by the FDA for cold symptoms? clemastine (Tavist Allergy)
Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) may be used to treat what two lung diseases? bronchitis and cystic fibrosis
What are two signs or symptoms of nicotine excess? dizziness and diarrhea
Which of the following forms of nicotine replacement therapy is only available by prescription? nicotine nasal spray
Which of the following drugs is only indicated for long-term maintenance therapy of bronchospasms associated with emphysema and bronchitis? tiotropim (Spiriva)
Which of the following drugs may be used to treat tuberculosis? isoniazid (Laniazid, Nydrzid), rifampin (Rifadin. Rimactine), ciproflozacin (Cipro), and rifapentine (Priftin)
Which of the following asthma medications blocks parasympathetic acetylcholine receptors and should not be given to patients with known peanut allergies? ipratropium (Atrovent)
What is the most useful measure for assessing the severity of asthma on a regular basis? peak expiratory flow rate (PAOR)
Which of the following is an OTC expectorant available in caplet, capsule, liquid, syrup, tablet, and sustained-release forms? guaifesesin (Mucinex)
What is a common adverse effect of many (older) antihistamines (H-1 blockers)? anticholinergic responses, hyperactivity in some children, and sedation
What class of drugs used to treat hypertension, angina, cardiac arrhythmias, and migraine headaches is contraindicated in asthma patients? beta blockers
What drug is metabolized by colonic bacteria and is used to prevent and treat hepatic-induced encephalopathy? lactulose (Enulose)
Which medication below is used in preteens to treat diarrhea and acts by interfering with enzyme-dependent electron transfer in anaerobic energy metabolism? nitazoxanide (Alinia)
Which of the drugs listed below is a monoclonal antibody that binds to tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is indicated for the treatment of Crohn's disease? infliximab (Remicade)
What three drugs given together are used to treat H. pyloric-induced peptic ulcers? bismuth subsalicylate-metronidazole-tetracycline (Helidac)
Which drug listed below forms a protective coat over an ulcer, helping it resist degradation by gastric acid, pepsin, and bile salts? sucralfate (Carafate)
Which drug listed below is an example of a phase II drug used to treat GERD? cimetidine (Tagamet), omeprazole (Prilosec), esomeprazole (Nexium), and famotidine (Pepcid)
Which drug below acts on 5-HT-4 receptors and is used to treat constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome? tegaserod (Zelnorm)
Which drug listed below acts to facilitate the admixture of fat and water to soften stool? docusate-senna (Senokot-S)
What is a potential problem associated with low-fiber diets? constipation
Which histamine-2 receptor blocker affects cytochrome P-450 and may interact with many other drugs? cimetidine (Tagamet)
If abdominal pain is caused by the release of an allergy or inflammation mediator, what mast cell stabilizer may be prescribed? cromolyn sodium (Gastrocrom)
What is another term for heartburn? gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
By what criterion is dietary fiber characterized? fermentability, water-holding capacity, stool-bulking capacity, and solubility
For the treatment of hepatitis, which drug listed below is an interferon linked with a branched polyethylene glycol (PEG) molecule in order to allow once weekly dosing? peginterferon alfa-2a (Pegasys)
vWhich drug or drug combination is correctly paired with its DEA control schedule? diphonoxylate-atropine (Lomotil)--C-V
What receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) are blocked by metoclopramide (Reglan)? dopamine
What is the drug of choice in treating malabsorption syndrome due to panceratic insufficiency? pancrelopase (Creon-10)
Which of the following drugs is used for chemotherapy-induced emesis and frequently causes headaches in patients treated with it? ondansetron (Zofran)
What is praziquantel (Biltricide) used to treat? intestinal parasites (tapeworms)
What GI disorder is characterized by inflammation of the large bowel with the patient experiencing diarrhea containing blood, mucus, and pus? ulcerative colitis
Created by: danz on 2006-03-05

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