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IATRA
Memory items for the IATRA exam
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is dynamic hydroplaning? | Standing water, after heavy rain, tire becomes supported by water, up to 3mm of rain+ Vcrit |
| What is viscous hydroplaning? | Small film of water, occurs at slower speeds |
| What is reverted rubber hydroplaning? | Locking brakes, causes tires to melt, friction can cause film of water to overheat and turn to steam |
| Stopping distance while hydroplaning can increase to up to ____% | 700% |
| Hydroplaning formula: rotating tire | 9.0x√tire pressure (PSI) |
| Hydroplaning formula: non-rotating tire | 7.7x√tire pressure (PSI) |
| N1 is? | Low-pressure spool |
| N2 is? | High-pressure spool (in a 2 spool system) or Intermediate spool (in a 3 spool system) |
| Np is? | Prop speed |
| SAR (specific air range) formula: | SAR= TAS÷FF |
| SGR (specific ground range) formula: | SGR= GS÷FF |
| Q code on a NOTAM refers to? | Location of the FIR |
| NOTAMs can be published up to ____ days in advance. | 14 |
| Point of No Return (PNR) formula | Endurance x GS out÷GS out+GS back |
| Critical Point (CP) formula | Total distance x reduced (3 engine) GS home __________________________________ reduced (3 engine) GS out+reduced (3 engine) GS home |
| Ground visibility for RVR a) 1sm= ___ RVR b) 3/4sm= ___ RVR c) 1/2sm=___ RVR d) 1/4sm= ___ RVR | a) 5000 RVR b) 4000 RVR c) 2600 RVR d) 1200 RVR |
| ADIZ penatration (minutes and nm) | +/- 5 minutes of ETA +/- 20nm of proposed route |
| While flying in RVSM airspace, a non-RVSM compiant aircraft can be given_____ feet of seperation, in respect to your direction of travel. | 2000 |
| While flying in RVSM airspace, a, RVSM compiant aircraft can be given_____ feet of seperation, in respect to your direction of travel. | 1000 |
| RVSM airspace allows for a lower seperation minima. Instead of the mandatory 2000ft seperation minima, RVSM-equipt aircrafts may operate with 1000ft seperation minima. What 4 items make an aircraft RVSM capable? | 2 RVSM compliant altimeters, 1 altitude alerting system (TCAS), 1 autopilot |
| RVSM tolerances are___? | +/- 150ft |
| What is the first indication of a tail stall? | The aircraft nose suddenly pitches down |
| Interpret what 0.80 mach means. | 80% the speed of sound |
| What is the hold-over time for drinking alcohol? | 12h |
| How long must one wait before flying after donating blood? | 48h |
| Discribe the weight-limit catagories for heavy, medium and light aircrafts. | H= 300,000lbs+ M=15,500lbs-299,999lbs L=<15,500lbs |
| Where can the following be found in respect to a runway? a) RVR A b) RVR B c) RVR C | a) Runway threshold b) Runway midpoint c) Runway end |
| What is meant by QNH? | Altimeter setting region |
| What is meant by QNE? | Standard pressure region |
| On-Call refers to? | Must be available to report for duty on notice of 1 hour or less |
| Reserve refers to? | Must be available to report for duty on notice of 1 hour or more |
| Standby refers to? | To remain at a specified location and be available to report for duty on a notice of 1 hour or less |
| Maximum flight time within 365 days: | 1200h |
| Maximum flight time within 90 days: | 300h |
| Maximum flight time within 30 days: | 120h |
| Maximum flight time within 30 days (if on-call): | 100h |
| Maximum flight time within 7 days: | 60h |
| Maximum flight time within a 24h period: | 14h |
| Maximum flight time within a 24h period (single-pilot IFR): | 8h |
| When converting airspeeds, what acronym will help and what does each letter represent? | I C E T (ICETisaPrettyCoolDrink) P C D - Indicated, Position, Calibrated, Compressibility, Equivalent, Density, True |
| What is the difference between primary and secondary radar? | Primary- Does not involve a transponder, pulse emitted from the plane, bounces off an object and returns to the plane showing a reading (used for weather. Secondary- Requires an airborne transponder and a radar pose from a ground station |
| What are the ECG requirements for the following age groups? Under 30 Between 30-40 40+ | Under 30- Initially Between 30-40- Every 2 years 40+- Every year |
| NDB-VOR airways are__ nm wide from either side of it's centreline | 4.34 |
| VOR-VOR airways are__ nm wide from either side of it's centreline | 4 |
| An aircraft with a smaller/thinner wing will have a ________ catch rate. | Higher |
| The splay of an LF/MF (NDB-NDB) airway and a VHF/UHF (VOR-VOR) airway is____ º respectively. | 5º : 4.5º |
| What is the floor of the Northern Control Area | FL230 |
| What is the floor of the Arctic Control Area | FL270 |
| What is the flood of the Southern Control Area | FL180 |
| Interpret the VASIS and PAPI EWH a) AV, V1, V2 b) AP, P1, P2, P3 | AV 0-10ft/0-3m V1 0-10ft/0-3m V2 10ft+/3m-7.5m AP 0-10ft/0-3m P1 0-10ft/0-3m P2 10ft-25ft/3m-7.5m P3 25ft-45ft/7.5m-14m |
| Turbo-props are the most similar to___ ? | Turbojets (also turboshafts) |
| Every jet-engine is comprised of 5 sections. What are these sections? | Intake, compressor, combustion chamber, turbine, nozzle |
| On a turbo-prop, what mechanism keeps the propeller blade pitch angle at 0º during engine shut off? | Pitch lock |
| Most of the thrust generated in a turbo-prop engine comes from_____. | core exhaust |
| Nx is? | % of Max RPM |
| N3 is? | High-pressure spool (in a 3 stage system) |
| Ng is? | Single-stage free turbine gas generator |
| What is a hot start? | When combustion starts but airflow is insufficient for cooling Will lead to engine damage |
| What is a hung start? | Combustion starts but the engine has yet to accelerate normally Although temperatures will be high it will not exceed start limits |
| What is balance field length? | Where the accelerate-stop distance required is equal to the take off distance required for the aircraft's weight, engine thrust, runway conditions and aircraft configuration |
| What is the definition of transonic | A speed that is close to that of the speed of sound (jet aircraft range) |
| What is the definition of subsonic | A speed that is less than the speed of sound through air |
| What is the definition of supersonic | A speed that exceeds the speed of sound (Mach 1) |
| What are some functions of bleed air? | Power ancillary components, APU, air conditioning systems, cabin pressure systems, etc |
| Bleed air taken from the ______ region of the engine | Low pressure, cooler |
| You are flying along in -20ºC temperature. You land at an airport for a short stop that has a temperature of 10ºC and a dew-point of 9ºC. What will occur? | Cold soaking |
| Type II and IV fluids are bad for which types of aircraft? | Aircrafts with a rotation speed of less than 100kts |
| What prevents the prop from going into reverse while flying? | Low (fine) pitch stop system |
| In beta range, what controls the prop pitch? | The thrust lever |
| What is the best way to finish a checklist after being interrupted? | Start over from the beginning of the checklist |
| During landing, you cross the runway threshold at a speed higher than your Vref speed. How would you land? | -Reduce power -Apply spoilers/ reversers -Use full braking/ full reversers -Do not force the aircraft down or you risk a bounce or porpoise |
| What is EPR? | Engine pressure ratio- The ratio of the compressor inlet pressure to the turbine outlet pressure |
| You find yourself strongly disagreeing with your captain. What is the best way to handle this situation? | Overcome shyness to question, ask for clarification, and state your viewpoint. |
| Recall the minimum altitude for flight within designated mountainous regions. (Regions 1, 5/ Regions 2,3,4) | Regions 1,5= 2000ft within 5nm Regions 2,3,4= 1500ft within 5nm |
| What are the 3 accident reporting procedures with regards to the TSB? | -Someone is killed or sustains a serious injury -The aircraft is missing -The aircraft sustains structural damage |
| What occurs when precipitation falls onto a cold-soaked wing? | Clear ice may form (in ambient air temperatures from -2ºC up to +15ºC) |
| Which part of the airplane do you need to deice first | |
| How does airborne weather radar detect thunderstorms and lightning while you’re in clouds? | -Scans for precipitation and the greater the intensity the greater the return -Detects lighting indirectly -Senses lighting and turbulence by noticing large upward and downward movements of precipitation |
| What are the 3 conditions in which LASHO ops may be conducted? | Landing minima of 3sm visibility 1000 ft ceilings Runway must be bare with good braking action |
| What is a stopway? | The part of the runway used to slow an aircraft down in the event of a cancelled takeoff |
| What is a clearway? | The part of the runway clear of the paved part that is clear of all obstructive material |
| How does a tailplane stall occur? | The tailplane counteracts the aircrafts natural tendency to "nose down" by producing negative lift. When the tailplane (horizontal stabilizer) exceeds its critical angle of attack, it will stall causing the nose of the aircraft to pitch down. |
| _______ water droplets have a higher return than _______ water droplets. | Large, small |
| What is the formula to calulate ISA deviation? | ISAdeviation= OAT(SAT)-ISA(15ºC) |
| What are the usuable FL for the following altimeter settings? 29.92+ 29.91-28.92 28.91-27.92 | 29.92+ FL180 29.91-28.92 FL190 28.91-27.92 FL200 |
| 1º of latitude is equal to __nm | 60 |
| Jetstreams are only depiced on a GFA when? | Their core speeds are 60kts or faster |
| Jetstreams are only depicted on an upper level ANAL chart when? | Their core speeds are 80kts or faster |
| All turbines are in a ______ configuration. | axial |
| Compressor stalls are a result of? | Air entering the engine at too HIGH of an angle of attack (exceeds the fan blades critical AoA) |
| Control area extentions begin at _____ and extend up to _______ unless otherwise specified. | 2200ft AGL- 17,999ft AGL |
| Terminal Control Area's (TCA) begin at_____ and extend up to_______ | 700ft AGL : high level airspace |
| Class B airspace can be best defined as? | All low-level controlled airspace above 12,500ft ASL, or at and above the MEA, whichever is HIGHER, up to 17,999ft ASL |
| The turbine in a jet engine is responsible for what? | Extracts energy from the combustion process and is used to power the fan, compressor and any axillary systems such as bleed air for cabin air pressure and start-up |
| What are the 3 types of thrust reversers? | Cascade, clamshell, blocker door |
| What is the formula to calculate VHF reception distance? | 1.23x√aircraft height above the station in feet |
| How does the critical point move in realation to the wind? | The CP moves INTO the wind |
| What is the equation to calculate your stall speed in a turn? | Vs x√Load factor |
| Recall the angles of bank and their ascociated load factors | 45º= 1.4g 60º=2g |
| Recall the formula used to calculate cloud bases (ATPL method) | OAT-DPx406 |
| Recall the formula used to calcualte a rateone turn | TAS/Vs+7 |
| State the main difference between reduced visibilty ops and low visibility ops | Low visibility=RVR600- RVR1200 Reduced visibility= RVR1200-RVR2400 |
| In the northern hemisphere, you are flying in a jet steam. You notice your OAT guage is indicating a drop in temperature. How should you maneiver your aircraft to avoid CAT? | Turn south towards the warm air |
| Which transitioning between two fronts, how would you maneuver your aircraft to maintain your desired track? | Always turn to the right |
| What are the associated holding speeds for the following altitudes? 6000ft 6000ft-14,000ft 14,000ft+ | 6000ft- 200KIAS 6000-14,000ft- 230KIAS 14,000+- 265KIAS |
| Va is? | Maneuvering speed (where controls can be fully deflected and no structural damage would result on the aircraft) |
| Vb is? | Speed for maximum gust intensity |
| Vso is? | Stall speed in landing configuration |
| V2 is? | Take-off safety speed (the required one-engine-inoperative climb performance speed after liftoff) |
| Vmca is? | Airborne minimum control speed |
| Vra is? | Turbulence penetration speed |
| V1 is? | Critical engine failure speed |
| Vref is? | Computed approach speed |
| Vmo is? | Maximum operating limit speed |
| Vmca is determined by 5 factors. What are they? | Max gross weight Aft CoG Flaps in takeoff configuration Gear retracted Prop wind-milling where no auto-feather system is installed |
| TODA (Take Off Distance Available) includes? | The length of the runway + clearway |
| TORA (Take Off Run Available ) includes? | The length of the runway |
| LDA (Landing Distance Available) includes? |
Created by:
fly_luc
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