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Cardiology

FA review

QuestionAnswer
What is an Paradoxical emboli? DVT combined with a sign of stroke
What are the most common causes of a Paradoxical emboli? ADS or a PFO
Auscultation of an ASD Wide and fixed S2
What is the effect of ACE inhibitors on AT II and renin? Decrease levels of AT II and increase release of Renin
What is the most classical presentation of Infective endocarditis? Fever and a new heart murmur
What is the MC left-sided complication of Infective endocarditis? Septic emboli that can be lodged in the brain, spleen, kidney, and gut.
What is caused, anatomically, by Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? Asymmetric septal hypertrophy and at times leads to outflow obstruction, leading to dyspnea, dizziness, and syncope
What reduces the intensity of an HCM murmur? Decreased Left Ventricle size and volume, which maneuvers such as squatting, by reducing the venous return
Squatting, leads to a decrease in what blood circulation parameter? Venous return
Squatting increases or decreases venous return to the heart? Decreases venous return
What is caused by non-selective Beta blockers? Decrease in HR, contractility and renin release
Is renin release increased or decreased by the use of nonselective beta blockers? Decrease renin release
What are the classic auscultation findings of Aortic Stenosis? Mid-to-late peaking systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border that decreases with Valsalva maneuver.
What maneuver is known to decrease intensity of AS? Valsalva maneuver
What is a useful and common diagnostic use for BNP levels? To rule out non-cardiac causes of dyspnea
What is BNP? Sensitive marker for congestive heart failure an in released by the ventricles in response to high volume or pressure
What causes the ventricles to release or secrete BNP? High volume or pressure
Is BNP released by the ventricles or atria? Ventricles
What causes an AV block? Defects in the AV node and the inability to transmit impulses from the atria to the ventricles via the AV node
What is the associated relationship of impulses from the atria and those from the ventricles? Impulses by the atria and ventricles, are dissociated, leading to bradycardia
On which phase of the nodal action potential does Verapamil work on? Phase 0
What is a unwanted result of Verapamil? Delaying atrial depolarization rates, leading to uncoordinated firing of AV and SA nodes, leading to AV block
MOA of Verapamil: Decreased Ca2+ conditions during phase 0 of the Nodal Action potential
Is atrial depolarization or atrial repolarization, delayed by Calcium channel blockers? Atrial depolarization
What is the MC drug to safely treat acute hypertension in pregnancy? Hydralazine
What is the most common adverse effect of Hydralazine? Reflex tachycardia
How is Reflex tachycardia due to Hydralazine use prevented? Concurrent use of B-blocker
Which is the common beta blocker used to prevent hydralazine-induced reflex tachycardia? Labetalol
Which cardiomyopathy is seen with systolic dysfunction? Dilated cardiomyopathy
Which abnormal heart sound is associated with DCM? S3
What is the MCC of DCM? Ischemic cardiomyopathy resulting from coronary artery disease.
How does NE increase myocyte contractility? Via B1-adrenergic receptor stimulation, leading to increased Ca2+ influx into the cardiomyocytes.
What causes Aortic Stenosis (AS) in Turner syndrome? Bicuspid aortic valve, and/or coartation of the aorta
What is caused by Coarctation of the aorta? Difference in blood pressure in legs and arms
What causes the difference in blood pressure between legs and arms in a patient with Turner syndrome? Coarctation of the aorta
Which ECG leads show ST-segment elevation or Q waves in MI of the Right Coronary artery? Leads II, III, and aVF
Which artery irrigates the inferior part of the heart? Right coronary artery
What are the most common manifestations of Congestive HF? Pulmonary and peripheral edema and jugular venous distension
How does RAAS response to HF? Increase renal sodium retention and AT II-mediated vasoconstriction
How long after initial MI is neutrophilic infiltration seen microscopically? 1 to 3 days after onset of MI
What is the histological finding after 0-4 hours onset of MI? Wavy fibers
How soon is early coagulative necrosis seen after initial MI? 4-24 hours
What type of drugs are given to patients to prepare them for Percutaneous coronary intervention? P2Y12 receptor blockers
What are two common P2Y12 receptors blockers? Prasugrel and Ticagrelor
How do P2Y12 receptor blocker work? Inhibit ADP binding to P2Y12 receptor
What does blocking the P2Y12 receptor cause that aid in preparing patients for percutaneous coronary intervention? Blocking both PLATELET AGGREGATION and the expression of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors
Which two receptors are blocked by Prasugrel and Ticagrelor? P2Y12 receptors and GpIIb/IIIa receptors
What does the y-decent on the Jugular venous tracing represent? Rapid emptying of the right atrium after the Tricuspid valve opens
To which heart sound does the y-descent of JV tracing correspond? S3
Which jugular venous tracing trace represent the rapid emptying of the RA after the tricuspid valve opens? y-descent
What are the 4 more common causes of Aortic regurgitation? 1. Rheumatic heart disease 2. Congenital bicuspid aortic valve 3. Calcific valve disease 4. Aortic root dilation
What does AR demonstrate on the Pressure-Volume cardiac loop? Increased EDV and increased SV
Is stroke volume increased or decreased with AR? Increased
Which leads represent LAD MI on ECG? V1 - V6
Which leads represent inferior MI (RCA)? II, III, and aVF
Which lead would best represent Lateral MI? aVL and I
Which artery is causing the MI, if it is best represented by leads avL and I on ECG? Left circumflex artery
How is Thoracic Aortic dissection represented clinically? Chest and/or back pain, diminished or asymmetric pulses or BP, or aortic regurgitation, depend on the level of the dissection
Which heart sound is absent in AS auscultation? S2
Does diastolic or systolic heart failure represented with a preserved ejection fraction? Diastolic dysfunction
What are some common complication of Aortic stenosis? Diastolic heart failure, AFIB, and pulmonary hypertension
What is the most common clue or key factor to suspect coronary artery disease in a patient? Hx of previous MI or angina
Which heart murmur is associated with a high-pitched opening snpa during diastole? Mitral Stenosis
Opening snap ---> Murmur? Mitral Stenosis
Description of auscultation findings of MS: Sharp, high-pitched opening snap during diastole, followed by a harsh, rumbling murmur
What is the MCC of Mitral Stenosis? Rheumatic heart disease
What is the MCC of Rheumatic heart disease leading to MS? Untreated group A streptococcal pharyngitis
Is Rheumatic heart disease associated with untreated streptococcal pharyngitis or impetigo? Pharyngitis
What bacteria is known to potentially cause right- or left-sided valvular disease? Strep viridans
What are some risk factor of S. viridian endocarditis? Preexisting valvular disease, HF, injectable drug use, poor dentition, hemodialysis, implantable devices such as valves and catheters, age > 60, and male sex
What murmur is best heard at the left second intercostal space along the sternal border, and increases intensity with inspiration? Pulmonary regurgitation
Where is PR best auculated or heard? Left second intercoastal space along the sternal border
Pulmonary regurgitation is a diastolic or systolic murmur? Diastolic
What does the time after S2 and before S1 represent? Diastole
How is Restrictive cardiomyopathy clinically presented? Non-systolic heart failure, a normal ejection fraction, and low volvate on ECG.
What is the most common cause of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy? Myocardial fibrosis
What are the main findings of Pericarditis? Cardiac tamponade, including hypertension, increased JVP, distant heart sounds, and pulsus paradoxus
Which blood pressure phenomenon is associated with Pericarditis and Cardiac tamponade? Pulsus paradoxus
What is the most specific ECG finding of Cardiac tamponade? Electrical alternans and low QRS voltage
Electrical alternans is associated with which heart condition? Cardiac tamponade
Fixed and split S2 with systolic murmur ASD
What is a severe complication of an ASD? Allow for venous thromboembolism to enter left side of heart and subsequently the systemic circulation, leading to strokes
Class IB sodium channel blocker Lidocaine
Which phase does lidocaine work on? Phase 0
What type of arrhythmias are treated with Class IB Sodium channel inhibitors? Acute ventricular arrhythmias, especially after a MI
What is Pericarditis? Pleuritic chest pain that is relieved when the patients leans forward
Which autoimmune disease is often associated with Pericarditis? SLE
How is Pericarditis seen in ECG? Diffuse ST elevations
What kind of sound is produced by VSDs? Harsh or blowing holosystolic murmur best herad a the left sternal border
Why is Digoxin used to treat heart failure? Increases cardiac contractility
What are manifestations of Digoxin toxicity? Nausea, vomiting, and visual changes
What protein is directly inhibited by Digoxin? Na+/K+ ATPase
Which ion intracellular concentration is directly increased by Digoxin? Sodium
What causes an AV block? Defects in the AV node and an inability to transit impulses from the atria to the ventricles via the AV node
Mitral regurgitation is associated with a: Holosystolic murmur that is best heard at the cardicat apex
What causes MR? Increase in LA pressure during systole due to regurgitation of blood from the LV into the LA through an insufficient mitral valve
Is MR occurs during systole or diastole? Systole
Back of blood from LV to LA, leading to an increase in LA pressure. Dx? Mitral regurgitation
What causes AFIB? Aberrant electrical activity within the pulmonary veins
Abnormal electrical activity in the pulmonary vein leads to development of: AFIB
What adrenergic receptors are stimulated by Epinephrine? alpha-1, beta-1, and beta-2
Common hormone release in response to stress and adminitete as a drug for septic shock? Epinephrine
What are some common physical findings of Infective endocarditis? Osler nodes, splinter hemorrhages, and postinfectious glomerulonephritis with hematuria and proteinuria
What cause Osler nodes? Immune complex deposition in the tissues
How is Aortic regurgitation represented or changed in the LV Pressure-Volume loop? Increased EDV and Increased SV (stroke volume)
Phosphodiesterase-3 inhibitor Milrinone
What is MOA of Milrinone? Inhibiting PDE-3, leading to increase intracellular cAMP levels in cardiomyocytes and vascular smooth muscle.
Which enzyme is inhibited by Milrinone? PDE-3
What is the effect of increased cAMP in myocardial cells? Increased cardiac contractility
What is the effect of increased cAMP in vascular smooth muscle cells? Decreased peripheral vascular resistance
Common PDE-3 inhibitor increases cardiac contractility and reduce systemic blood pressure? Milrinone
How is diastolic heart failure defined? Congestive heart failure with a normal LV ejection fraction
What is the result in non-systolic heart failure? Impaired LV filling and high ventricular pressures, leading to increased LA and PCWP, leading to dyspnea
How long after initial MI, is an ventricular free wall rupture expected? First 2 weeks
What is caused by a Ventricular free wall rupture after in MI? Hemorrhage into the pericardial sac, leading to hemopericardium and cardiac tamponade
What are some common risk factors for Infective endocarditis? Drug use, dialysis, and dental procedures
How is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome characterized? AV reentrant tachycardia with a resting EFC showing short PR, long QRS, and delta waves
AV reentrant tachycardia + delta waves. Dx? Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
What causes Wolff Parkinson White syndrome? Reentry using an abnormal accessory conduction pathway through the bundle of Kent
Holosystolic murmur best heard at the cardiac apex Mitral regurgitation
Why is left atrial pressure elevated in MIR? Due to regurgitation of blood from LV into LA through an insufficient Mitral valve
Does MR's Left atrial pressure increase occurs during systole or diastole? Systole
Aortic stenosis is responsible for causing the following: 1. Prolonged ventricular systole 2. High pressures 3. Ventricular hypertrophy
Is AS seen with Ventricular or Atrial hypertrophy? Ventricular hypertrophy
How is Pulmonary edema clinically characterized? Bilateral crackles and dyspnea
What change in starling forces cause cardiogenic pulmonary edema? Increase in capillary fluid hydrostatic pressure
What leads to the Increase Capillary hydrostatic pressure seen in cardiogenic pulmonary edema? Left ventricular systolic or diastolic dysfunction that cause fluid to move from the capillaries into the alveoli
In simple terms, a person with CHF develops, pulmonary edema as fluid: Travels from the capillaries to the alveoli due to systolic or diastolic dysfunction
What are some of the produced effects of Non-Selective Beta blockers? 1. Decreased Heart Rate 2. Decreased Contractility 3. Decreased renin release
Which three factors are DECREASED by the use of non-selective beta blockers? Heart rate, contractility, and renin release
What may cause MR in a patient with recent Hx of MI? Papillary muscle rupture
Is MR a crescendo or decrescendo murmur? Decrescendo
What heart chamber is enlarged by acute MR development? Left atrium
What causes LA enlargement in acute MR? Blood entering the Left Atrium during systole
Which chamber pressure is increased in both MS and MR? Elevated atrial pressure
What is the most common cause of MS? Rheumatic heart disease
What is the cause of Rheumatic heart disease? Antibody cross-reaction between the bacterial antigen and mitral valve (molecular mimicry)
What condition is associated molecular mimicry? Rheumatic heart disease
What is an adverse effect of Hydrazine in a person with CAD? Increased myocardial demand and angina
Angina and reflex tachycardia are common adverse effects of which drug? Hydralazine
How do Beta-blockers work? Slow HR by decreasing the activity of the funny current (If) by reducing cAMP in SA nodal cells
Which current is affected by beta blockers? Funny current in SA node cells
Beta blockers decrease or increase cAMP in SA nodal cells? Decrease cAMP in SA nodal cells
Which type of beta blockers are contraindicated to COPD patients? Non-selective Beta blockers
COPD patient should be treated with selective or nonselective beta blockers? Selective Beta blockers
What are the consequences of uncorrected PDA? Reversal of the Right-to-Left shunt, leading to cyanosis and hypoxemia
What is Eisenmenger syndrome? Reversal to a right-to-left shunt, leading to cyanosis and hypoxemia
Which cardiomyopathy is due to asymmetric septal hypertrophy? Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
What type of maneuver leads to a reduced hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur? Squatting, which increases venous return
What is the effect on venous return due to Squatting? Increases venous return
What is the most common cause of aortic dissection? Severe hypertension
How are the retinal hemorrhages in infective endocarditis called? Roth spots
What is a common bacterial cause of IE? Viridans streptococci
What is the most common toxicity of Niacin? Flushing
How is niacin toxicity induced flushing commonly prevented? Pretreatment with aspirin
Created by: rakomi
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