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MA State review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Allopathic provider- the most widely recognized type of doctor- diagnose illnesses, provides treatments, performs procedures, and writes prescriptions is known as: | Medical Doctor (MD) |
| This provider is similar to the MD- use osteopathic manipulative therapy in treating patients | Osteopathic provider (DO) |
| This provider can diagnose and prescribe medications for common illnesses- focus on preventative care and disease prevention: | Nurse Practitioner (NP) |
| This provider can practice medicine under the direction and supervision of a licensed MD or DO- are able to make clinical decisions: | Physician Assistant |
| This medical person performs diagnostic testing on blood, bodily fluids, etc. and is under the supervision of a medical technologist: | Medical lab technician |
| Consists of the skills, behaviors, and appropriate judgement that represents the best qualities of a person in a specific profession. Based on a set of values and moral virtues of hard work and diligence. | Professionalism |
| A group of physicians, hospitals, and other providers who come together to voluntarily provide coordinated high-quality care to their medicare program. | Accountable Care Organizations |
| Payment model- pt are assigned per-member, per-month payment based on their age, race, sex, lifestyle, medical history, and benefit design is: | Capitation (partial or full) |
| Fixed total dollar amount paid annually for all care- limit the level and rate of increase of health care cost is: | Global budget |
| A plan that contracts with a medical center or group of providers to provide preventative and acute care for the insured person- they generally require referrals to specialists as well asp recertification and preauthorization for hospital admissions, etc | (HMO) Health Maintenance Organization |
| When a primary care provider coordinates treatment to make sure patients receive the required care when and where they need it, and in a way they can understand is: | Patient centered medical home (PCMH) |
| This reimbursement model compensates providers only if they meet certain measures for quality and efficiency | Pay for performance |
| This type of plan has more flexibility than a HMO. Insured people do not need a PCP and can go directly to a specialist without referrals: | Preferred provider organization (PPO) |
| MD's who treat acute and chronic illnesses and provide preventative care and health education to patients are: | General Practitioners |
| A provider who cares for the whole family, from birth to geriatric, failure with a wide range of disorders and diseases is a: | Family Practitioners |
| These providers provide comprehensive care of adults, often diagnosing and treating long term-conditions, they also offer treatment for common illnesses and preventative care is: | an Internist |
| A provider specializing in hormonal and granular conditions, often working with PT's who have diabetes mellitus are: | Endocrinologist |
| ________ deal with blood and blood-producing organs- often work with PT's who have anemia, leukemia, and lymphoma. | Hematologist |
| ___________ specialize in kidney care and treating diseases of the kidneys. | Nephrologist |
| ____________ specialize in the care of women during and after pregnancy | Obstetricians |
| _____________ Specializes in the treatment and care of PT's who have cancer | Oncologist |
| __________ specializes in eye conditions. | Ophthalmologist |
| ______________ specializes in the ear, nose, and throat | Otolaryngologists |
| _____________ specializes in the mental disorders and conditions | Psychiatrists |
| ______________ specialize in disorders of the urinary tract | Urologist |
| ____________ __________ meets a specific medical need for a specific population | ancillary services |
| Alternative to emergency room- cost less, shorter wait time, and often conveniently located, more flexible hours, and offer walk-in appointments | Urgent care (ancillary services) |
| Perform diagnostic testing on blood, body fluids, and other types of specimens to conclude a diagnosis for the provider | Laboratory services (ancillary services) |
| Devices such as x-ray equipment, ultrasound machines, MRI, CT take images of body part to further diagnose a condition are: | Diagnostic testing (ancillary services) |
| _______ ________ assists PT's who have conditions that disable them developmentally, emotionally, mentally, or physically- helps PT compensate for loss of functions and rebuild to a functional level: | Occupational Therapy (Ancillary Services) |
| ______ Assists patients in regaining mobility and improving strength and range of motion, often impaired by an accident, injury or disease. | Physical Therapy |
| _______ involves pricking the skin or tissues with needles to relieve pain and treat physical, mental, and emotional conditions | Acupuncture |
| ________ Medicine diagnoses and treats mechanical disorders of the musculoskeletal system | Chiropractic |
| Calm method of clearing cellular memory through the human energy field promoting health, balance, and relaxation. Centered on physical, emotional, mental states of life found in various holistic healing techniques | Energy Therapy |
| _______ ________ include one or more dietary ingredient including vitamins, minerals, herbs, or other botanicals: | Dietary Supplements |
| An _________________ form provided to the PT when the provider believes Medicare will probably not pay for the service received. | Advanced Beneficiary Notice (ABN) |
| ______ _______ is the max amount the third party payer will pay for a particular procedure or service | Allowed Amount |
| _________ is an amount of money that is paid at the time of medical service | Copayment |
| _________ is the amount a policyholder is financially responsible for according to their insurance policies provisions | Coinsurance |
| __________ is a specific amount of money a patient must pay out of pocket before the insurance carrier begins paying for services | Deductible |
| _____ ___ ______ is a statement from the insurance carrier detailing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment: info on amounts applied to deductible, coinsurance, and allowed amounts. | Explanation of Benefits |
| Providers who agree to write off the difference between the amount charges by the provider and the approved fee established by the insurer is a: | Participating Provider (PAR) |
| ________ generally covers PT age 65 and older by Part A (hospitalization) or Part B (routine medical office visits) benefits. | Medicare |
| ________ authorizes dependents of military personnel to receive treatment from civilian providers at the expense of the federal government | Tricare |
| __________ covers surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service related disabilities | CHAMPVA |
| _______ provides health insurance to the medically indigent population through a cost-sharing program between federal and state governments for those who meet specific eligibility criteria | Medicaid |
| ______ _______ is an umbrella term for plans that provide health care in return for preset scheduled payments and coordinated care through a defined network of providers and hospitals | Managed Care |
| Protects wage earners against the loss of wages and the cost of medical care resulting from an occupational accident or disease as long as the employee is not proven negligent is: | Workers Compensation |
| _______ ________ is the oldest and largest system of independent health insurers | Blue Cross/Blue Shield |
| ________ must have PT and guarantor's demographic and insurance info, diagnostic test, treatment, procedure info, billing info for this form to be completed. Has 33 blocks in 3 sections and is a paper claim form | CMS-1500 Form |
| PT laying on back is the: | Supine position |
| PT laying with the head lower than the legs is: | Trendelenburg position |
| Head of bed at a 90 degree angle is the: | Fowlers position |
| Pt laying on their abdomen is the: | Prone position |
| MS, MS04, MgS04, abbreviated med names nitro x3d, cc, HS, AD,AU, AS @ & + / are all: | Error prone abbreviations |
| Submission for claims that allows a provider to submit all insurance claims using distinctive software: then it audits and shorts claims and send them in batched electronically to each of the insurance companies | Clearinghouse submissions |
| The process by which an insurance carrier allows a provider to submit insurance claims directly to the carrier electronically is: | Direct Billing |
| PT laying on back, knees bent with heels on table is the: | Dorsal Recumbent position |
| PT laying on side with legs pulled up toward chest is the: | Sims position |
| Patient laying on knees and elbows is the: | knee-elbow position |
| PT laying on back with legs up as when at gynecologist is the: | lithotomy position |
| Amp | Ampule |
| cap | capsule |
| cr | cream |
| elix | elixir |
| ung | ointment |
| ds | double strength |
| gr | grain |
| g, gm | gram |
| gtt | drop |
| mcg | microgram |
| mEq | milliequivalent |
| PR, r, rec | rectally |
| ut dict | as directed |
| aq | water |
| DAW | dispense as written |
| MDI | metered-dose inhaler |
| MO | mineral oil |
| nr | no refills |
| qs | sufficient amount |
| analgesics | relieve pain EX: acetaminophen or hydrocodone |
| antacids/anti-ulcer | neutralize stomach acid EX: esomeprazole or calcium carbonate |
| Antibiotic | kill bacteria EX: amoxicillin |
| anticholinergics | reduce bronchospasm |
| anticoagulants | delay blood clotting EX: warfarin, enoxaparin, and heparin |
| anticonvulsants | prevent or control seizures EX: clonazepa or phenytoin |
| antidepressants | relieve depression EX: doxepin or fluoxetine |
| antidiarrheals | reduces diarrhea EX: loperamide |
| antiemetics | reduces nausea and vomiting EX: ondasetron |
| anti fungal | kills fungi EX: miconazole |
| antihistamines | relieve allergies EX: diphenhydramine |
| antihypertensive | lowers blood pressure EX: metoprolol |
| anti-inflammatories | reduces inflammation EX: ibuprofen or naproxen |
| antilipemics | lowers cholesterol EX: atrovastatin |
| antipsychotics | control psychotic symptoms |
| antipyretics | reduces fever EX: acetaminophen or aspirin |
| antispasmodics | reduces or prevents muscle spasms |
| antitussives/expectorants | controls cough, promotes elimination of muscus EX: Codeine |
| antivirals | kill viruses |
| anxiolytics | reduce anxiety EX:Alprazolam (Xanax) |
| diuretics | eliminates excessive fluid |
| laxatives | promote bowel movements |
| high potential for abuse and no approved use in the US. Illegal, may not be prescribed at all. EX: heroin or LSD | Schedule 1 |
| high potential for abuse, considered dangerous, can lead to dependance, providers must give handwritten prescription without refills EX: morphine, oxycodone, hydrocodone | Schedule 2 |
| moderate to low potential for abuse/dependance, must have hand written prescription that can be refilled 5x's in 6 months. EX: ketamine, anabolic steroids, and testosterone | Schedule 3 |
| low potential for abuse/dependance, providers must sign these prescriptions and can be refilled by phone EX: alprazolam | Schedule 4 |
| Substances that contain limited quantities of some narcotics: usually for antidiarrheal, antitussive; providers must sign prescriptions & can be refilled over the phone EX: diphenoxylate | Schedule 5 |
| 15 drops = 1ml 1 tsp = 5 ml 1 TBS = 15 ml 1 fluid oz = 30 mL 1 cup = 8 oz = 240 mL 2.2 LB =1 kg | conversions |
| meds that go through the GI tract EX: bucal swab, oral and sublingual | enteral |
| Meds that are outside the GI tract; usually refers to injections | parenteral |
| How meds move through the body; four actions-absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion | pharmacokinetics |
| The body converts the medication into a form the body can use and moves it into the bloodstream is called: | absorbtion |
| The transportation of the medication throughout the body-carries medication to body tissues and organs is known as: | distribution |
| _______ changes active forms of the medication into harmless metabolites ready for excretion through urine or feces- liver & kidneys are the primary organs in this process | metabolism |
| ________ is the removal of medication and metabolites from the body | excretion |
| _________ ________ is how long it takes for the processes of metabolism and excretion to eliminate half a dose of a medication | Medication half life |
| Right: patient, medication, dose, time, route, documentation, technique, assessment, right to refuse treatment are all parts of: | Patient right of medication administration |
| dosage calculation- desired/have x quantity = x is: | formula method |
| ________ __________ is assigned by the medication manufacturer, identifies the meds as property of the company, begins with a capital letter. | brand/trade name |
| ________ is the noncommercial name for a medication usually less complex that the medications chemical name but more complex than a brand name | generic name |
| A ______ ________ specimen used for screening purposes- PT urinates in a clean non sterile container | random urine |
| A ______ ________ ________ is when a PT performs perineal cleaning using moist wipes, begins to urinate, and then collects specimen midstream in a sterile container | clean catch urine |
| ______ ______ ______ uses a container with preservatives- collects urine for 24 hours (excludes first specimen of first day but include first specimen of second day) | 24 hour urine |
| stool specimen collection to screen for presence of blood, which can indicate disease process or GI bleeding is a: | fecal occult blood test |
| Test used to detect pin worms: | tape test |
| PT produces a deep productive cough- best collected in early morning. PT should avoid mouth wash. | sputum specimen |
| Various tests related to chemistry, microbiology, hematology, that are easily performed in physicians office laboratories (HCG, step test, urine dip, A1c, glucose test, drug screening); low level of complexity | CLIA waived testing |
| this is a series of processes and procedures used to ensure security and accuracy is called: | chain of custody |
| Males= 13 to 18 g/dl Females = 12 to 16 g/dl are: | hemoglobin values |
| Males =42% to 52% Females = 36% to 48% are: | hemoglobin values |
| Common lab test values for total cholesterol | less than 200mg/dl |
| low density lipoprotein value | less than 130 mg/dl |
| high density lipoprotein value | greater than 40 mg/dl |
| Triglyceride values | less than 150 mg/dl |
| Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) | males = 0-20 females = 0-30 |
| international normalized ratio (INR) | 0.8 to 1.2 |
| Specific gravity value | 1.005 to 1.030 |
| urine urobilinogen value | 0.1 to 1 |
| Urine Ph should be between | 4.5 to 8 |
| screens for (difficulty seeing up close) presbyopia/hyperopia. Printed material is 14 - 16 inches away from the eyes. | Near vision test / near sighted |
| Screens for myopia (difficulty seeing far) PT stands 20 feet from chart and can wear corrective lenses during this testing | Distance Vision test / far sighted |
| Determines presence of fluid/infection records movement of tympanic membrane uses a small ear bud, changing air pressure is applied | Tympanometry |
| raising hand to acknowledge when tones are heard through headphones Normal hearing: Adult 25 decibels, Child 15 decibels tuning fork are used and placed on top of the mastoid process to test hearing | Audiometry |
| Diagnosis Coe that correlates with the tests being ordered | iCD 10 |
| Median cubital, cephalic, basilic, in the antecubital space | Preferred sites for venipuncture procedures |
| Order of draw for micro capillary tubes | blood gas, EDTA, other additives, SST |
| Excessive build up of fluid in the body tissue is called: | edema |
| rupture of RBC's is caused by using too small of a needle guage or over mixing/shaking the tube is called | Hemolysis |
| What info should be verified on requisitions | provider name, patient name, DOB, CPT code, and labels on tubes |
| Leads I, II, and II record: | Lead I- records impulses between left and right arms Lead II- between the right an d left leg Lead III- left arm and left leg |
| Leads AVL, AVR, AVF are: | Unipolar |
| What are the lead colors for right arm left arm left leg right leg V1 V2 V3 V4 V5 V6 | white black red green red yellow green blue orange purple |
| P Wave shows: | atrial depolarization (contraction) |
| ventricular depolarization or contraction (atrial repolarization is not visible but occurs during this phase) is what wave on ECG | QRS Wave |
| ventricular repolarization or relaxation is what wave on ECG | T wave |
| Not always visible; repolarization of the bundle of HIS and Purkinjie fibers is what wave on ECG | U wave |
| starts at beginning of the P wave and ends at the beginning of the Q wave; represents the time it takes from the beginning to the atrial depolarization to ventricular depolarization is the: | p - r interval |
| represents the time it takes from the beginning of ventricular depolarization to the end of the ventricular repolarization is the: | QT interval |
| represents the time from the end of ventricular depolarization to the beginning of ventricular repolarization | ST segment |
| irregular spikes throughout the tracing and is related to muscle movement (Parkinson's disease can result in this) | Somatic Tremor |
| 60 cycle interference; characterized by regular spikes in the tracing- related to poor grounding or external electricity interfering with tracing. ex: fluorescent lights, computers, etc | AC interference |
| results from poor electrode connection, can be associated with lotions, oils, or powders | wondering baseline |
| obvious when there is a break in the tracing usually relating to a disconnected or broken lead wire | interrupted baseline |
| heart rate less than 60 beats per minute is: | sinus bradycardia |
| A heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute | Sinus tachycardia |
| break in a normal EKG- SA node failed to fire, it is not significant unless it lasts more than 6 seconds. | Sinus arrest |
| atria are contracting at a rapid rate much faster than ventricles contracting | atrial flutter |
| no organized contraction of atria is: | atrial fibrillation |
| ventricles are not contracting but quivering is: | ventricular fibrillation |
| no heart rhythm is: | Asystole |
| nuts, seeds, seafood, meat, poultry, beans, peas, eggs, and soy products are: | protein foods |
| primarily for energy for its cells and all their functions (glucose) are: | carbohydrates |
| highly concentrated source of energy the body can use as a backup for available glucose are: | lipids, fats |
| complex carb that humans cannot digest; slows the time food takes to pass through the stomach, lowers cholesterol levels, etc. | fiber |
| whole grains, beans, nuts, fruits, and veggies are all: | sources of fiber |
| organic substances that the body needs for cellular functions; do not provide energy but are necessary for the body to metabolize energy | vitamins |
| milk fat, meat, butter, leafy veggies, egg yolk, fish oil, yellow and orange fruits are sources of: | vitamin A |
| whole grains, meats, and nuts | B1 vitamin sources |
| berries, citrus fruits, green peppers, mango, broccoli, potatoes, tomatoes are sources of; | vitamin C |
| sunlight, fortified milk, eggs, fish, butter, and liver are sources of: | Vitamin D |
| inorganic substances the body needs for building and maintaining body structures: calcium, magnesium, potassium, and sodium are | minerals |
| exert sever control of over eating; self starvation, perfectionism, extreme sensitivity to criticism, fear of weight gain, no menstrual period, excessive exercise, and ritualistic eating | anorexia nervosa |
| eating large amounts of food then purging by self-induced vomiting, laxatives, diuretics- buying and consuming large amounts of food, purging after eating, using bathroom immediately after eating, mood swings, depression after eating is a: | bulemia |
| people chronically over eating, weight gain and obesity; eat when not hungry, eat when alone, eat quickly is known as: | binge eating disorder |
| low level of sodium in the blood is | hyponatremia |
| scheduling 3 pt at same time to be seen in the order in which they arrive | wave scheduling |
| allocating 2 PT's to arrive at a specified time and the third to arrive approximately 30 minutes later is: | modified wave scheduling |
| two patients scheduled at same time to see same provider; creates delays in provider schedule is called: | double booking |
| offers Pt the option of cancelling, confirming, or rescheduling an appointment is: | automated call routing system |
| grouping related papers together & removing all paper staples, attaching smaller papers to regular sheets, fixing damaged records is called: | conditioning (filing system) |
| marking the form to be filed with a mark of designated preferance is: | releasing record |
| determining where to place the original record in the file, and whether it need to be cross references in another section | indexing and coding |
| ordering papers in a filing structure and placing the documents in specific groups is: | sorting |
| securing documents permanently in the file to ensure the medical record documents do not become misplaced is: | storing and filing |
| most widely used; files arranged by last name, first name, middle initial is: | alphabetical filing |
| combining DOB with color coding is: | numeric filing |
| used for general correspondence using the alphabetic or alphanumeric filing method is: | subject filing |
| explanation of benefits sent to the provider from the insurance carrier is | remittance advice |
| a system comprised of medical classifications for procedural codes typically used within hospitals that record various health treatments and testing is: | ICD 10 PCS |
| the total balance on an account; it can be a debit (negative) or a credit (positive) is: | account balance |
| the amount owed to the provider for the services rendered is | accounts receivable |
| debt incurred but not yet payed, this can be for supplies or utilities is | accounts payable |
| an entry on an account represented as an addition to profits is | credits |
| subtracted from income is | debts |
| property of an individual or organization that is subject to payments for debt owed is | assets |
| amounts owed; debts= | liabilities |
| an electronic record about an individual that can be managed, created, and accessed by authorized individuals within a single health care organization is | electronic medical record |
| an electronic record that conforms to nationally recognized interoperability standards, and can be created, managed, and accessed by authorized individuals from multiple health care organizations is | electronic health records |
| pens, pencils, paper, ink, paper clips, clipboard are all: | administrative supplies |
| addresses the rules and statutes that define wrongdoings against the community as a whole is | criminal law |
| intentionally touching or the use of force without consent results in what charge(s) | battery |
| a person who files a lawsuit to initiate a legal action is called | plaintif |
| a written order that commands someone to appear in the court to give evidence is a | subpoena |
| infarction or violation of law, obligation, tie, or standard is a | breach |
| an action that wrongly causes harm to an individual but is not a crime and is dealt with in court- 2 major classification (intentional and negligence) is | tort |
| verbal defamation is | slander |
| written defamation | libel |
| res ipsa loquitor means: | "it speaks for itself"- obvious negligence |
| the performance of an unlawful, wrongful act; EX: performing procedure on wrong PT | malpractice |
| failure to perform an act on a PT knowing of the consequences to the PT is | malfeasance |
| failure to do something that a reasonable person of ordinary prudence would do is | negligence |
| failure to perform a task, duty, or undertaking that one has agreed to perform or has a legal duty to perform; EX; waiting to treat a PT until it is too late | nonfeasance |
| morally good or bad acts are: | ethics |
| set of accepted behaviors and values that a person is expected to possess in a particular organization or profession is | professional ethics |
| consists of a set or requests that a PT puts in writing for their provider, family, and other health care professionals to carry out surrounding end of life treatments is | medical directives |
| someone who exerts power | agent |
| legal document stating what procedure the PT would want, wouldn't want, and under what conditions she would want the provider to do organ or tissue donations, dialysis, blood transfusions, and DNR is a | living will |
| a legal document naming a healthcare agent or proxy to make medical decisions for the PT when they are not able to do so. The agent will be able to decide if and when the PT would need treatment decisions made. | Durable power of attorney for healthcare (medical directive) |
| medical document that specifies which treatments will be allowed during end of life care. a provider must sign off on these bright pink forms | MOLST/medical directive/palliative care form |
| orders allowing organs or bodily parts from an otherwise healthy person to be transferred to people who need them in the event of a death the healthy person is | organ and tissue donation/medical directive |
| the person assigned to make health care decisions for the PT if they are mentally incapacitated is | a health care proxy |
| the right to make ones own personal decisions, even when those decisions might not be in that person's own best interest | autonomy |
| birth to 18 months- trusting others and own body is | trust vs mistrust |
| autonomy vs shame and doubt | 2-3 years- toddlers begin to develop sense of self control and language skills |
| 3-6 years children look for new experiences = | initiative vs guilt |
| the ability and tendency to start an action | initiative |
| competence in performing task | industry |
| a personal feeling or sense of being inadequate | inferiority |
| 12 to 20 years old trying to figure out where they fit in and what direction they should take in life | identity vs role confusion |
| 7 to 12 years children need to receive recognition for accomplishments to provide reinforcement take on more responsibility | industry vs inferiority |
| 20 to 35 years old begin to think about partnership, marriage, family, and career is | intimacy vs isolation |
| 35 to 65 year old adults continue raising children, want to help guide future generations | generatively vs stagnation |
| the concern for establishing and guiding the next generations that stems from a sense of optimism about humanity is | generativity |
| the result of stopping progression is | stagnation |
| 65+ years old retired empty nest health concerns | ego integrity vs despair |
| physiological needs (water, air, food) safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem, self actualization is | maslow's hierarchy of needs |
| Kubler-Ross = | the five stages of grief/ denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance |
| when a person cannot or will not believe that the loss is happening or has happened is | denial |
| a grieving person might aim feelings of hostility at others because they cannot fix or cure the decease is | anger |
| a persons attempt to avoid the loss by making some kind of deal, or searching for alternative solutions is | bargaining |
| the reality of the solution take hold, and the person feels sad, lonely, and helpless; might have feelings of regret and self blame is | depression |
| a person comes to terms with loss and begins making plans to move on with life is | acceptance |
| a feeling of indifference; a lack of interest, feeling, concern, or emotion is | apathy |
| a method of balancing a failure or inadequacy with an accomplishment is | compensation |
| transformation of an anxiety into a physical symptom that has no cause is | conversion |
| an avoidance of unpleasant or anxiety provoking situations or ideas by rejecting them or ignoring their experience is | denial |
| the redirection of emotions away from its original subject or object onto another less threatening subject or object is: | displacement |
| a disconnection of emotional importance from ideas or events and compartmentalizing those emotions in different parts of awareness is | dissociation |
| the attribution of characteristics of someone else to oneself or the mimicking of another is known as | Imitation |
| anything that causes anxiety or stress is a | stressor |
| microorganisisms enter into the bodies blood supply: | Vasclar |
| What law determines how test results are reported | HIPPA |
| Treponema Pallidum is also known as: | Syphilis |
| A Suden blockage in the vascular tract is an: | embolism |
| Medical assistants never perform what type of draw | arterial |
| If I place a patient on their side they are in what position? | Lateral |
| What is the purpose of lab testing? | To assist in diagnosing a patient |
| What coding tells the insurance what to pay | CPT codes |
| the protein in blood associated with antibodies are: | Globulins |
| If QC testing is required more often than weekly who recommends it? | Manufacturer |
| Abbreviation for milliequivalent is | mEq |
| letters and post cards under 12oz are mailed | first class |
| The term used for motor neurons and the muscle fibers it controls is | motor unit |
| A tardive condition is: | Slow onset |
| Where do we locate medical diagnosis? | ICD |
| Purge means to | empty or remove |
| If we are testing multiple machines that perform the same test we: | test them according to guidelines |
| dactyl/o means: | fingers or toes |
| the range of blood volume in collection tubes is: | 2 to 15mls |
| Typhoid fever is caused by | Salmonella type |
| when counting a patients respirations the MA should: | have PT quiet and rested/still prior to stating the count |
| Arrector pilli is what type of muscle | smooth |
| overnight delivery is called | express mail |
| the coding modifier F% refers to the | right thumb |
| What test requires striking a running fork and holding it against the mastoid bone until PT can not hear the sound anymore. | The Rinne test |
| Benign prostatic hyperplasia is also known as | BPH |
| Desquamate is the | shedding of skin/cells |
| the longest lumbar nerve branch is | the sciatic nerve |
| a childs weight in pounds divided by 150 then multiplied by the average adult dosage of a medication is | how to find the pediatric dosage |
| diastolic BP reading is phase | phase 5 |
| Suprapubic aspiration needs to be stored in | an anaerobic environment |
| what position is a patient put in when a pelvic exam is needed | lithotomy |
| CLIA waived level one test examples: | blood urea nitrogen, Urine culture colony count, blood cell counts |
| Standard deviation is | the dispersion around the mean |
| the fourth phase of the blood pressure sounds | muffled |
| what type of medication helps reduce anxiety | tranquilizers |
| when one insurance works with a second insurance to determine what each pays is called | coordination of benefits |
| common practice to prevent exposure to blood | engineering controls, work practice controls, personal protective equipment |
| when getting a patients medical history: | do not perform this questioning at the front desk/window |
| femoral artery is located | in the groin |
| what type of check is prepared and signed by the bank | cashiers check |
| bronchoconstriction evaluation requires | 2 tests at a time |
| before providing an antimicrobial medication | collect the microbiology specimen |
| another name for after care instructions is | postoperative instructions |
| blunted tip scissors are | bandage scissors |
| generic name for Lipitor is | Atrovastatin calcium |
| desk top computers are also known as | microcomputers |
| if a patient exercises they are considered | active |
| gluteus maximus is the | large buttock muscle |
| an analgesic is a | pain medication |
| electrosurgery is used to | destroy or coagulate tissue |
| fasting blood glucose level should be | 70 - 100mg/dl |
| a cholangiogram is used to | visualize the bile duct |
| increased urine out put by the kidneys is | diuresis |
| 20mg to decigrams is | 200dg |
| Title 18 of the Social security act established | Medicare |
| Money, machinery, equipment, and securities are all | assets |
| assessing the quality of pain means | is the pain stabbing, dull, aching etc |
| dysphonia means | voice |
| mega is equal to | one million |
| first thing you do in any medical sterile field | wash hands |
| periodicals are mailed | second class |
Created by:
CWillems
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