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Physiology stack 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Are neurons the only living cells that maintain a difference in the concentration of ions across their membranes? | No, all living things do, including neurons. |
| What is the active transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that transports sodium and potassium ions in the opposite direction and at different rates? | Sodium-potassium pump. |
| In a myelinated fiber, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next. True or False. | True, it will leap or jump. |
| What is an ion channel that opens in response to a sensory stimulus? | Stimulus-gated channel. |
| Will the threshold potential be surpassed if the full peak of the action potential is always reached? | Yes. |
| In a myelinated neuron, the impulse can travel under the myelin between nodes of Ranvier. True or false. | True. |
| Whether and impulse is continued through the neuron depends on the magnitude of the voltage in the axon hillock. True or False. | True. |
| In depolarization, the membrane potential moves toward zero, where in hyperpolarization, the membrane potential moves away from zero. True or false. | True. |
| When a neuron is resting, the inner surface of its plasma membrane is slightly positive compared with its outer surface. True or fales. | False. |
| Which membrane receptor acts to directly change ion permeability when stimulated? | Gated-channel receptors. |
| Where can a synapse occur? | Between an axon and either a dendrite, cell body, or another axon. |
| The main difference between sodium and potassium in the generation of action potential is: | That sodium causes repolarization while potassium causes depolarization. |
| The sodium-potassium pump actively pumps three potassium ions out of the neuron and two sodium ions into the neuron. True or false. | False. The sodium-potassium pump actively pumps two potassium ions into the cell and three sodium ions out of the cell. |
| What is the membrane potential maintained by a nonconducting neuron's plasma membrane called? | Resting. |
| The magnitude of the action potential peaks when the sodium channels close. True or false. | True. |
| These chemicals allow neurons to communicate with each other. | Neurotransmitters. |
| What are synonyms for action potential? | AP, spike, nerve impulse, and conduction signal. |
| What are the two types of synapses in the body? | Chemical and electrical. |
| The mechanisms that produce and maintain the resting membrane potential do so by producing a: | slight excess of negative ions on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. |
| Does the speed of a nerve impulse depend on the neuron's resting potential? | No. |
| What mechanism quickly terminates the action of a neurotransmitter once it binds to its postsynaptic receptor? | Neurotransmitter molecules are transported back into the synaptic knobs, neurotransmitter molecules are metabolized into inactive compounds, and neurotransmitter molecules are transported to nearby glial cells. |
| What is membrane potential? | The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a membrane. |
| A neurologist is using a voltmeter to measure potential. The membrane potential of a neuron was recorded at +30 mV. This is what type of membrane potential? | Action. |
| What is a membrane that exhibits a membrane potential? | Polarized. |
| What is a movement of the membrane potential away from zero (below the usual RMP) called? | Hyperpolarization. |
| When neurotransmitters from synaptic knobs stimulate a postsynaptic neuron in rapid succession, their effect can add up over a brief period to produce an action potential. This is called: | Temporal summation. |
| What is the tiny bulge on the end of a terminal branch of a presynaptic neuron's axon that contains vesicles housing neurotransmitters called? | Synaptic knob. |
| What is the saltatory conduction? | It is when the action potential seems to leap from node to node along the myelinated fiber. |
| What is the refractory period? | The brief period which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation. |
| If the magnitude of the local depolarization surpasses a limit called the _____, voltage-gated Na+ channels are stimulated to open. | Threshold potential. |
| What is the impulse conduction called when the current leaps across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node? | Saltatory conduction. |
| When neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses, these are called: | Enkephalins. |
| Serotonin is an example of: | Amine transmitters. |
| Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: | Catecholamines. |
| What is the first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron? | Some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open. |
| What happens to the sodium pump with resting potential? | The sodium pump has moved sodium to the outside of the plasma membrane. |
| Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? | A large diameter neuron with myelin. |
| Within the nervous system, how is the coding for the strength of a stimulus accomplished? | Through the frequency of nerve impulses. |
| What is possible with relative refractory periods? | The action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus. This cannot occur during absolute refractory periods as no stimulus will be strong enough to cause action potential. |
| Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: | Serotonin, which is an amine. |
| What are examples the small molecules body may use as neurotransmitters? | Acetylcholine, nitric oxide, carbon monoxide, ATP. |
| What amino acids may the body use as neurotransmitters? | Glutamate, gamma-aminobutyric acid, and glycine. |
| What large molecules might the body use as neurotransmitters? | Neuropeptides (chains of amino acids), vasoactive intestinal peptides, cholecystokinin, substance P, enkephalins, endorphins, dynorphins, neuropeptide Y. |
| What are monoamines the body uses for neurotransmitters? | Serotonin and histamine. |
| What are catecholamines the body uses for neurotransmitters? | Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine. |
| For a neurotransmitter to produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential, which of the following channels must open? | Potassium and/or chloride channels. |
| What happens when an impulse reaches a synapse? | Chemical transmitters are released into the synaptic cleft. |
| What other neurotransmitters are in the same class as acetylcholine? | None. It is a Class I, small molecule class of its own. |
| The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? | Almost 300 times faster. |
| The inside has what type of charge compared to the outside of the neuron? | Negative. |
| What is a slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane? | A local potential. |
| In an action potential, what is the charge outside of the plasma membrane, as well as inside? | The outside is negatively charged while the inside is positively charged. |
| When neurotransmitters are released in a synapse, what do they bind to? | Receptors of the postsynaptic neuron. |
| Triglycerides are a main chemical class of neurotransmitters. True or False | False. |
| What does a synapse consist of? | The synapse consists of a synaptic knob, which is a bulge at the end of the terminal branch of a presynaptic axon; a synaptic cleft, which is a space between the synaptic knob and the plasma membrane of the postsynaptic neuron; and the plasma membrane of the postsynaptic neuron, which contains protein receptors for the neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic axon. |
| What do stimulus-gated channels open in response to? | Sensory stimuli. |
| What is the only ion that can diffuse across the neuron's membrane when the neuron is at rest? | Potassium. |
| When can an impulse not be sent through a neuron? | During the absolute refractory period. |
| What is true of amino acid neurotransmitters? | - They are among the most common neurotransmitters in the CNS. Glycine is a widely distributed inhibitory transmitter in the spinal cord. They may be involved in memory. (The are not all inhibitory transmitters, though a few are.) |
| What is true of spatial summation? | If the sum of the local potentials spread enough to reach the axon hillock, they will add together. Neurotransmitters released simultaneously from several presynaptic knobs converge on one postsynaptic neuron. |
| Where is a synaptic knob located? | In an axon. |
| What are excitatory neurotransmitters most likely to do? | Initiate an action potential. |
| How fast can the fastest nerve fibers in the body conduct impulses in meters? | 130 meters per second. |
| Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? | Phenelzine. |
| What is the body part that consists of several structures that lies beneath the thalamus and forms the floor of the third ventricle and lower part of its lateral walls. | The hypothalamus. |
| What does the reticular activating system maintain? | Consciousness. |
| Where do sympathetic preganglionic axons pass? | In the anterior, not the dorsal root of certain spinal nerves. |
| Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active. What does this mean? | This means they continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors. |
| The groove between the frontal and parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex is: | The central sulcus. |
| Mixed cranial nerves contain axons of what type of neurons? | Sensory and motor. |
| Which region of the brain plays a part in the mechanism responsible for emotions by associating sensory impulses with feelings of pleasantness and unpleasantness? | Thalamus. |
| What is a skeletal muscle or group of muscles that receives motor axons from a given spinal nerve? | Myotome. |
| The action of acetylcholine is quickly terminated by its being hydrolyzed by which enzyme? | Acetylcholinesterase. |
| What receptors does acetylcholine bind to? | Cholinergic. |
| The effect of sympathetic stimulation on the urinary bladder is: | Relaxation while the parasympathetic effect is contraction. |
| A reflex consists of either a muscle contraction or: | A glandular secretion. |
| The somatic motor system includes all ____ motor pathways ____ the CNS. | Voluntary; outside. |
| Skin surface that is supplied by sensory fibers of a given spinal nerve is called what? | Dermatome. |
| What is the second largest part of the brain and where is it located? | The cerebellum, which is located just below the posterior portion of the cerebrum. |
| Fight or flight psychological changes include: | Increased conversion of glycogen to glucose, increased perspiration, and dilation of blood vessels in the skeletal muscles. Not constriction of airways as the airways open to help increase oxygen. |
| What is an extension of the great toe, with or without fanning of the other toes, in response to stimulation of the outer margin of the sole of the foot? | Babinski sign. |
| What nerve transmits impulses that result in sensations of the equilibrium? | Vestibular nerve. |
| Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell? | Olfactory nerve. |
| What cranial nerve controls tongue movement? | Hypoglossal. |
| What are the two types of adrenergic receptors? | Alpha and beta. |
| If the center of a reflex arc is the brain, the response it mediates is called a: | Cranial reflex. |
| Many cerebral functions have a typical location. This fact is known as: | Cerebral localization. |
| What is another name for the parasympathetic division? | Craniosacral division. |
| Axon terminals of autonomic neurons release either of two neurotransmitters, which are? | Norepinephrine and acetylcholine. |
| What are the most numerous cerebral tracts? | Association tracts. |
| The set of coordinated commands that control the programmed muscle activity mediated by extrapyramidal pathways is called the: | Motor program. |
| Limbic system incorporates the _____(3) to help shape behavior. | Cortical, diencephalon and brainstem. It integrates emotion. |
| What are examples of sympathetic stimulation? | Relaxation of bronchioles, decreased secretion of the pancreas, constriction/contraction of the urinary sphincters, relaxation of the urinary bladder, and dilation of the skeletal blood vessels. |
| What is the cortex capable of storing and retrieving regarding memory? | Short and long-term. |
| How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? | A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division. |
| The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: | Medulla. |
| The part of the brain that assists in balance maitenance: | Cerebellum. |
| The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased. T/F | False. |
| The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the: | Hypothalamus. |
| All sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic. | True. |
| The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. | True. |
| Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. | Thalamus. |
| Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricles, into the central canal and _____, and is absorbed back into the blood. | Subarachnoid space. |
| What are some functions of the hypothalamus? | Production of hormones, go between of psyche and the soma, and appetite center. (It has nothing to do with motor function.) |
| The parasympathetic division is the dominant controller of most autonomic effectors most of the time. | True. |
| Under quiet, nonstressful conditions, more impulses reach autonomic effectors by cholinergic parasympathetic fibers than by adrenergic sympathetic fibers. | True. |
| Parasympathetic stimulation causes an increase in the secretion of pancreatic juice and insulin. | True. |
| The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an emergency response. | False, this is the sympathetic nervous system. |
| Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, a preganglionic fiber may take one of three paths: | Synapse with sympathetic postganglionic neuron, send ascending or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia, pass through one or more chain ganglia without synapsing |
| Characteristics of the dorsal nerve root include: | It is also called posterior, it includes the spinal ganglion, and it includes sensory fibers. |
| Audition is a function of the ___ lobe. | Temporal. |
| Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. | True. |
| Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because? | Preganglionic fibers synapse with several postganglionic fibers. |
| Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: | Choroid plexuses. |
| A mixed nerve is one that contains: | Both sensory and motor fibers. |
| Nerve impulses over the _________ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. | Vagus. |
| Propranolol is/does: | Is a beta blocker that is used to treat irregular heartbeats and treat hypertension. |
| Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the _____ nerve. | Trigeminal, or 5th cranial nerve. |
| How many nerve pairs are there in each area of the spine? | There are 8 pairs of cervical nerves, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 1-2 coccygeal. There are only 7 cervical vertebrae but 8 cervical nerves because cervical nerve 1 (C1) comes out rostral to the first cervical vertebra and cervical nerve 8 (C8) comes out caudal to the seventh cervical vertebra. |
| Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? | Lateral corticospinal. |
| The spinal tract that is located in the side of the cord, originates in the brain, and terminates in the spinal cord is the _____ tract. | Lateral corticospinal. |
| The cerebellum acts with the _____ to produce skilled movement. | Cerebrum. |
| Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of ___ years. | 1.5 to 2. |
| Norepinephrine is liberated at: | most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings |
| Afferent nerves or fibers are found only in the _____ nervous system. | Sensory and autonomic. |
| What is true of the knee jerk reflex? | It is a spinal cord reflex, a segmental reflex, a monosynaptic reflex, an ipsilateral reflex, a deep reflex, a stretch reflex, and an extensor reflex that involves the brain. It is not a flexor reflex. |
| What cranial nerve is not involved in proprioception? | Vagus. |
| What is proprioception? | also called kinesthesia, is the body's ability to sense its location, movements, and actions. It's the reason we're able to move freely without consciously thinking about our environment. |
| Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. | Nicotinic. |
| Nerves that innervate the floor of the pelvic cavity and some of the surrounding areas are found in the _____ plexus. | Coccygeal. |
| Damage to the _____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function. | Phrenic. |
| If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose? | Willed movement. |
| The knee jerk can be classified as a segmental reflex because: | impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord. |
| What is associated with the oculomotor nerve? | Movement of external eye muscles, movement of intrinsic eye muscles, and proprioception of eye muscles. (NOT blinking reflex). |
| What is the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway? | Acetylcholine. |
| If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose? | sensory perception. |
| A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child's eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were due to: | Sympathetic nervous system. |
| What are some functions of the cerebellum? | Coordinating control of muscle action, help to control posture, and controlling skeletal muscles to maintain balance. (NOT control cardiac fucntion). |
| Which is the only plexus that contains fibers from the thoracic region of the spinal cord? | Brachial. |
| What is a description of the principle of antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system? | If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it. |
| Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share: | Direction of information flow, location of peripheral fibers, and acetylcholine. (NOT number of neurons between the CNS and effector). |
| The spinal cord does not completely fill the spinal cavity. | True. |
| The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to the first lumbar vertebra. | True. |
| One bundle of nerve fibers (nerve roots) projects from each side of the spinal cord. | False. |
| The spinal cord has anterior and posterior grooves that almost divide the spinal cord into symmetrical halves. | True. |
| A small molecule binds to a G protein, preventing its activation. What direct effect will this have on signaling that involves cAMP? | Adenylyl cyclase will not be activated. |
| Which hormone produced by the adrenal glands is responsible for mobilization of energy stores? | Cortisol. |
| Which hormone is released by the pituitary to stimulate the thyroid gland? | Thyrotropin, also known as Thyroid stimulating hormone or TSH. |
| What should you avoid doing in the middle of your sleep cycle that would lower melatonin? | Turning on the lights. |
| What goes wrong in the function of insulin in type 2 diabetes? | The cells do not respond to insulin like they should. |
| Why does diabetes occur? | We have too much sugar (or glucose) in the body. |
| Diabetes affects what other body parts? | Eyes, nerves, and kidneys. |
| Type 1 diabetes is caused by: | No insulin exists. |
| Type 2 diabetes is caused by: | Insulin is produced, but the insulin receptors are broken, so receptors will not respond properly. |
| Delta islet cells in the pancreas release: | Somato statin, which will cause the effects of hormones to cease. |
| Which ear structures are responsible for the amplification and transfer of sound from the external ear to the inner ear? | Ossicles. |
| Where do frequencies—from high to low pitches—cause activity in the hair cells within the cochlear duct? | The apex of the cochlea, and between the base and the apex of the cochlea. |
| What part of the eye does light enter through? | The cornea. |
| Where is light focused onto after entering the cornea? | It is focused by the lens onto the retina. |
| What are specialized cells in the retina called? | Ganglion cells. |
| What do ganglion cells in the retina do? | They convert light rays into electrical signals. |
| What happens after light rays are converted to electrical signals? | They are sent through the neuropathway to the brain carried by the optic nerve through the lateral geniculate nuclei and visual cortex of the brain. |
| What happens in the visual cortex? | The images are seen. |
| What interprets 3-D imaging? | The retina has a 2-D field, but the brain uses the information of movement in space by comparing the vision of both eyes to interpret 3-D. |
| If movement of a visual stimulus is leftward in one eye and rightward in the opposite eye, the brain interprets this as movement toward (or away) from the face along the midline. Which eye is visualizing leftward stimulus? | Right eye. |
| When the right cornea senses a tactile stimulus, what happens to the left eye? | Blinks. |
| Sensory impulses ending in what part of the central nervous system trigger imprecise or "crude" sensation awareness? | Thalamus. |
| Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the: | Crista ampullaris. |
| The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with: | Smell. |
| What is true of the hormone somatostatin? | It is produced by the delta cells of the pancreas. It inhibits the secretion of both glucagon and insulin. |
| The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the Tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: | 1. Malleus (hammer) 2. Incus (Anvil) 3. Stapes (Stirrup) |
| The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the __. | Transcription of RNA. |
| Which of the following is true about pain receptors? | Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain. |
| What fiber is associated with sharp, localized pain ("fast pain")? | Alpha fibers. These are the largest fibers and are fast-moving. |
| The primary hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: | Progesterone. |
| Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? It follows the all-or-none law. It is a graded response. It occurs when an adequate stimulus acts on a receptor. It can stimulate an action potential in the axon of a sensory neuron. | It follows the all-or-none law. |
| The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: | Anterior pituitary. |
| Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. | Tectorial. (This is the "shelf) of gel-like substance that has hair.) |
| When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? | M. |
| Red-sensitive cones are called: | L cones. |
| Blue-sensitive cones are called: | S cones. |
| How many cones do the eyes have? | About 6 million. |
| The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: | Protein kinases activate other enzymes. |
| What is the phenomenon called when one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect? | Permissiveness. (It is permitting the action). |
| Of these, which is a nonsteroid hormone? Oxytocin, calcitonin, cortisol, glucagon. | Cortisol. |
| What tends to be a function of glucagon? | Increase blood glucose concentrations. (It counteracts the actions of insulin by stimulating hepatic glucose production and thereby increases blood glucose levels.) |
| What are characteristics of the endocrine system? | Effector tissues include virtually all tissues, receptors are located on the plasma membrane or within the target cell, and chemical messengers travel long distances. |
| Clear potassium-rich fluid that fills the membranous labyrinth of the inner ear: | Endolymph. |
| In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: (Slow or rapid, long- or short-lived?) | Slow to appear, but long-lasting. |
| What is visual acuity? | It is the clearness (clarity) or sharpness of visual perception. |
| How many different prostaglandins are there? | 16. |
| Where was the first prostaglandin found? | Semen. |
| What are PGFs used for regarding women? | To induce labor and accelerate delivery of a baby. Specifically, PGF2alpha. |
| Does the effect of aspirin on PGE reduce or increase synthesis? | It reduces synthesis. |
| Where is the pineal gland located? | Dorsal aspect of the diencephalon. |
| What does the pineal gland produce? | Melatonin. (Note that melatonin is not stimulated by the presence of sunlight as this is a sleepy-time chemical.) |
| One of the few hormones that functions on a positive feedback loop is: | Oxytocin. |
| The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations such as: | Touch, pain, and temperature. |
| Visceroceptors are located in what parts of the body? | Internal organs. |
| The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure: | The sensitivity of skin in various parts of the body. |
| What is the relationship between the accuracy of a subject's tactile localization and the results of the two point discrimination test? | Areas with the most accurate touch localization have the smallest two point thresholds. In other words, not all areas of the body have the same sensitivity. |
| What 3 accommodations are necessary for near vision? | 1. An increase in the curvature of the lens. 2. Constriction of the pupils. 3. Convergence of the two eyes. |
| If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers. (acute, chronic, visceral). | Acute. |
| The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: | Bulbous (Ruffini) corpuscles. |
| What type of touch is associated with the Meissner corpuscles? | Low-frequency vibration. |
| What type of touch is associated with the Bulboid (Krause) corpuscl | Low-frequency vibration; textural. |
| What type of touch is associated with Lamellar (Pacini) corpus? | Deep pressure; high-frequency vibration; stretch. |
| Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)? | Corticotrophs. |
| What hormone group do these belong to? TSH, ACTH, FSH, and LH. The two gonadotropins, FSH and L. | Tropic hormones (tropins) that specifically regulate the functions of gonads. |
| The second step of hemostasis occurs when additional coagulation factors beyond factor VII respond in a cascade to form fibrin strands. Fibrin stands to strengthen what? | Platelet plug. |
| Fluid shift is when ... | The body's fluids move between the fluid compartments. |
| Pulmonary circulation is the portion of the circulatory system which carries ____________ blood away from the right ventricle, to the lungs, and returns ____________blood to the left atrium and ventricle of the heart. | deoxygenated; oxygenated. |
| In an electrocardiogram the T wave represents: | Repolarization of the ventricles. |
| In an electrocardiogram the P wave represents: | Depolarization of the atria. |
| In electrocardiogram the QRS wave represents: | Depolarization of the ventricles. |
| P wave abnormalities often mean: | Atrial enlargement. |
| What causes the ventricles to contract? | The impulse to the Perkinje Fiber. |
| What part of the heart is the natural pacemaker? | Sinoatrial node (SA node). It generates an electrical impulse to the atria to cause contraction. |
| Where does the SA node impulse travel? | 1. To the atria to cause contraction. 2. To the atrioventricular (AV) node. 3. To AV bundle, also known as the bundle of His. 4. Bundle of branches. 5. Perkinje fibers which cause the ventricles to contract. |
| Veins from our digestive organs send blood to the Hepatic Portal Vein in order for: | Nutrients and toxins can be extracted from digested contents. |
| The foramen ovale allows blood to move from the right atrium to the left atrium bypassing what system? | Bypassing pulmonary circulation, or the lungs. |
| Umbilical vein allows what transporation? | Blood for oxygen and nutrients to the baby. |
| What two shortcuts allows the blood to bypass the lungs during pregnancy for the baby? | 1. Ductus arteriosum - detours away from the lungs and allows flow into the aorta, through the heart, and onto the rest of the body. 2. Ductus for venosus - a continuation of the umbilical vein. Serves as a shunt allowing blood from placenta to divert from fetal liver, but into inferior vena cava. |
| What is the foramen ovale? | It is a hole in the middle of the heart (or septum of the heart) that allows. It allows blood to flow into the right side, to the left side, and out to the body. |
| What occurs when the umbilical cord is cut? | The umbilical vein and artery cease to function. The umbilical vein in the baby's body because the round ligament of the liver. The ductus venosus becomes the ligament venosum of the liver. |
| What happens to the foremen of ovale does what after the baby's first breath? | It closes. |
| The greatest pressure drop is in the ____________ which has muscle fibers that expand and contract change diameters. | arterioles |
| The amount of water that moves into the blood from the interstitial fluid depends on the concentration of: | Plasma protein. |
| The process of red cells are production in the marrow of certain bones is referred to as: | Erythropoiesis. (Erythro means red; poiesis means making). |
| Erythropoietin comes from: | The kidneys. |
| What doe hemes carry? | Oxygen. |
| What do globins carry? | Carbon dioxide. |
| A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: | Polycythemia. |
| The right coronary artery is dominant in about __% of all hearts. | 50%. |
| The more abundant blood supply goes to the myocardium of the left ventricle rather than the right ventricle. True or false. | True. |
| Only a few connections, or anastomoses, exist between the larger branches of the coronary arteries. True or false. | True. |
| Both atria receive their blood supply from branches of the right and left coronary arteries. True or false. | False. |
| Mechanisms of which three hormones work together to regulate blood volume? | Aldosterone, atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH), and antidiuretic hormone (ADH). |
| Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of: | Vasodilation. |
| The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called: | Perfusion pressure. |
| The mathematical equation that describes the relation among pressure gradient, resistance, and minute volume is called: | poiseuille's law. |
| Starling's law of the heart states that: | the longer, more stretched the heart fibers are at the beginning of a contraction, the stronger is their contraction. |
| What is a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels? | Heparin. |
| The heart beat of a fetus begins at about what stage? | About one month, or 4 weeks. |
| What factors are involved in determining a person's total blood volume? | Age, body type, and sex. |
| Which two factors promote the return of venous blood to the heart? | Blood-pumping action of respirations and skeletal muscle contractions. |
| Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: | Adult stem cells known as hematopoietic stem cells. |
| The term blood type refers to the type of: | Antigen. |
| Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with: | Body fat. |
| What are three important facts about ventricles? | They are the pumping chambers of the heart. The myocardium of the ventricles is thicker than that of the atria. The myocardium of the left ventricle is thicker than that of the right ventricle. |
| The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: | Hemodynamics. |
| ___ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. | Hematocrit. |
| Factors that affect the strength of myocardial contraction are called: | Inotropic factors. |
| What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium? | Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium. |
| The difference between a patient's systolic and diastolic blood pressure is called: | Pulse pressure. |
| Blood pressure is measured with the aid of an apparatus known as a(n): | Sphygmomanometer. |
| A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissue is: | Erythropoietin. |
| What are 4 critical components to coagulation? | Prothrombin, thrombin, fibrinogen, and fibrin. |
| What is cardiac output determined by? | Stroke volume and heart rate. - CO= HR X SV |
| The physiological mechanism that dissolves clots is known as: | Fibrinolysis. |
| What is leukopenia? | The decrease in white blood cells. |
| Which are the two baroreceptors that are located near the heart? | Aortic baroreceptors and carotid baroreceptors. |
| The vagus is said to act as a "brake" on the heart. This situation is called: | Vagal inhibition. |
| Blood viscosity stems mainly from the red blood cells but also partly from the _____ in blood. | Protein molecules present. |
| In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of: | Prothrombin factor. |
| Neutrophils are highly mobile and phagocytic. They migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces. This process is called: | Diapedesis. |
| Lymph is filtered by the: | Lymph nodes. |
| The lymphatic organs produce: | Lymphocytes. |
| The purpose of the lymphatic system is to: | Fight against infection. |
| Fluid that is clear, watery and contains protein molecules, salts, and other substances is called: | Intercellular fluids. |
| The lymphatic system is made up of lymphatic vessels where lymph flows in only one direction towards: | The heart. |
| Antigen presenting macrophage interact with: | a T-helper cell that recognizes the same antigen. |
| The T cell is considered: The messenger, the transmitter, the communicator, or the receiver. | The communicator. |
| Millions of B cells release millions of: | Antibodies. |
| The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are: | Fluid balance and immunity. |
| Adaptive immunity, part of the body's third line of defense, is orchestrated by to different classes of a type of white blood cell called the: | Lymphocyte. |
| Lymphatics in the villi of the small intestines is called: | Lacteals. |
| What acts as a powerful poison directly on any cell and quickly kills it? | Lymphotoxin. |
| Antibodies are proteins of the family called: | Immunoglobulins. |
| The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called: | Phagocytosis. |
| What substances operates immune mechanisms? | Sebum, mucus, enzymes, and hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa. |
| Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of: | Detecting and then moving toward higher concentration of the factor |
| Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of: | Prostaglandins. |
| Which antibody is synthesized in B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? | Immunoglobulin M. |
| The internal environment of the human body is protected by the __, which is(are) referred to as the first line of defense. | Skin. |
| The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called: | Diapedesis. |
| Each cortical nodule is composed of packed lymphocytes that surround a less dense area called a: | Germinal center. |
| What are functions of the spleen? | Tissue repair, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir. |
| Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called: | Lymphokinetic activities. |
| The body's defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are: | Innate (also known as non-specific) and adaptive (also known as acquired or specific). |
| Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? | Spleen. |
| During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into __, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. | Thymocytes. |
| The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the t cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized t cells that form: | Effector T cells and memory cells. |
| Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an: | Antigen's epitopes fit into and bind to an antibody molecule's antigen-binding site. |
| Bean-shaped structures located at certain intervals along the lymphatic system are: | Lymph nodes. |
| The primary organ of the lymphatic system is the: | The thymus, though the bone marrow is also primary. |
| Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? | Interferon. |
| _____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens. | Species resistance. |
| Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called: | Tonsils. |
| The functions of the lymph nodes are: | Defense and hematopoiesis. |
| Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as: | Natural killer cells. |
| The __ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby | Clonal selection theory. |
| Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell's surface, which result in: | Cytolysis. |
| Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as __ immunity. | Cell-mediated. |
| During inspiration, as the size of the thorax increases, the intrapleural and alveolar pressures ____. | Decrease. (Boyle's law). |
| The amount of oxygen that diffuses into blood each minute depends on which factor? | - Oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood. - total functional surface area of the respiration membrane. - respiratory minute volume. -alveolar ventilation. |
| What is vital capacity? | This represents the largest volume of air an individual can move in and out of the lungs. |
| Term that refers to the volume of inspired air that actually reaches, or "ventilates," the alveoli. | Alveolar ventilation. |
| What law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure? | Boyle's law. |
| What variations exist in the body to temporarily store or carry oxygen? (3) | Neuroglobin, myoglobin, and fetal hemoglobin. |
| What part of the body are pressure gradients established? | Thorax cavity. |
| Oxygen enters blood from alveolar air because the partial pressure of alveolar air is: | Greater than the partial pressure of incoming blood. |
| What are the 2 sensors that provide feedback information to the medullary rhythmicity area? | Central chemoreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors. |
| The apparatus used to measure the volume of air exchanged in breathing. | Spirometer. |
| The exact amount of oxygen in blood depends mainly on the amount of: | Hemoglobin. |
| The volume of air exhaled normally after a typical inspiration. | Tidal volume. |
| The basic rhythm of the respiratory cycle of inspiration and expiration seems to be generated by the: | Medullary Rhythmicity Area |
| How is pH affected by an increase in carbon dioxide? | A drop in pH in the blood will occur. If either CO2 or H+ increases (resulting in decreased pH). |
| What is acidosis caused by? | Can be caused by hypoventilation which leads to an increase in CO2 and therefore an increase in [ H+] |
| During the respiratory cycle, is intrapleural pressure always less or greater than the alveolar pressure? | Intrapleural is less than alveolar pressure. |
| During the respiratory cycle, what is the difference called when intrapleural pressure is less than the alveolar pressure? | Transpulmonary pressure. |
| According to the law of partial pressures, the partial pressure of gas in a mixture of gases is: | Directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and to the total pressure of the mixture. |
| When carbon dioxide dissolves in water, some of the carbon dioxide molecules associate with water to form? | Carbonic acid. |
| What can spirometry not measure? (3 things). | Residual volume cannot be measured. Therefore, functional residual capacity nor total lung capacity can be accurately measured since each of these include residual volume. |
| What is residual volume? | It is the air left over in the lungs after all of the air has been exhaled as much as a person can. |
| The mechanism that produces pulmonary ventilation is one that establishes a gas pressure gradient between the: | Atmosphere and the alveolar air. |
| An obstructive lung disorder that is characterized by recurring spasms of the smooth muscles in the wall of the bronchial air passages. | Asthma. |
| The forced expiratory volume test can determine the presence of respiratory obstruction by measuring the: | Volume of air expired per second during forced expiration |
| Which 4 structural feature facilitates oxygen diffusion from the alveolar air into the blood in lung capillaries? | - Alveolar and capillary walls are both very thin. - Alveolar and capillary surfaces are both extremely large. - The lung capillaries accommodate a large amount of blood. - Each red blood cell comes close to alveolar air. |
| The ability of the lungs and thorax to stretch is referred to as: | Compliance. |
| Which oxygen-binding protein helps move oxygen out of the blood and into muscle cells? | Myoglobin. |
| Hyperpnea means? | Increase in breathing. |
| A right shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve due to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide is also known as: | The Bohr effect. |
| More than two-thirds of the carbon dioxide carried by blood is carried in the form of: | Bicarbonate ions. |
| In what 2 forms does oxygen travel in the blood? | Dissolved oxygen in the plasma and associated with hemoglobin. |
| The compound formed when carbon dioxide combines with hemoglobin. | Carbaminohemoglobin. Oxyhemoglobin is the combination of oxygen and hemoglobin. |
| The exit of the bicarbonate ion from the red blood cell is balanced by the inward transport of another negative ion, chloride. This countertransport of negative ions is often called the ___ shift. | Chloride. |
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