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Chap 7 and 8 Quiz
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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| T/F: An enterprise-wide VPN can include elements of both the client-to-site and site-to-site models. | True |
| T/F: After L2TP establishing a VPN tunnel, GRE is used to transmit L2TP data frames through the tunnel. | False |
| T/F: PPP can support several types of Network layer protocols that might use the connection. | True |
| T/F: A community cloud is a service shared between multiple organizations, but not available publicly. | True |
| T/F: A Type 2 hypervisor installs on a computer before any OS, and is therefore called a bare-metal hypervisor. | False |
| T/F: Office 365 is an example of an SaaS implementation with a subscription model. | True |
| T/F: Digital certificates are issued, maintained, and validated by an organization called a certificate authority (CA). | True |
| T/F: The HTTPS (HTTP Secure) protocol utilizes the same TCP port as HTTP, port 80. | False |
| T/F: FTPS (FTP Security or FTP Secure) and SFTP (Secure FTP) are two names for the same protocol. | False |
| T/F: The Virtual Network Computing (VNC) application uses the cross-platform remote frame buffer (RFB) protocol. | True |
| Which type of cloud service model involves hardware services that are provided virtually, including network infrastructure devices such as virtual servers? | IaaS |
| What cloud service model involves providing applications through an online user interface, providing for compatibility with a multitude of different operating systems and devices? | SaaS |
| What type of scenario would be best served by using a Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud model? | A group of developers needs access to multiple operating systems and the runtime libraries that the OS provides. |
| When using public and private keys to connect to an SSH server from a Linux device, where must your public key be placed before you can connect? | In an authorization file on the host where the SSH server is. |
| The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below? | key pair |
| What security encryption protocol requires regular re-establishment of a connection and can be used with any type of TCP/IP transmission? | IPsec |
| At what layer of the OSI model does the IPsec encryption protocol operate? | Network layer |
| The PPP headers and trailers used to create a PPP frame that encapsulates Network layer packets vary between 8 and 10 bytes in size due to what field? | FCS |
| When using a site-to-site VPN, what type of device sits at the edge of the LAN and establishes the connection between sites? | VPN gateway |
| Amazon and Rackspace both utilize what virtualization software below to create their cloud environments? | Citrix Xen |
| What open-source VPN protocol utilizes OpenSSL for encryption and has the ability to possibly cross firewalls where IPsec might be blocked? | OpenVPN |
| VMware Player and Linux KVM are both examples of what type of hypervisor? | Type 2 hypervisor |
| Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate? | The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN. |
| When is it appropriate to utilize the NAT network connection type? | Whenever the VM does not need to be access at a known address by other network nodes. |
| By default, what network connection type is selected when creating a VM in VMware, VirtualBox, or KVM? | NAT mode |
| Which statement regarding the IKEv2 tunneling protocol is accurate? | IKEv2 offers fast throughput and good stability when moving between wireless hotspots. |
| The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys with certain users is known by what term? | public-key infrastructure |
| What is NOT a potential disadvantage of utilizing virtualization? | Virtualization software increases the complexity of backups, making creation of usable backups difficult. |
| A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model? | Layer 2 |
| Which of the following virtualization products is an example of a bare-metal hypervisor? | Citrix XenServer |
| In a software defined network, what is responsible for controlling the flow of data? | SDN controller |
| What term is used to describe a space that is rented at a data center facility by a service provider? | point of presence (PoP) |
| Which of the following statements regarding the Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol is NOT accurate? | PPP can support strong encryption, such as AH or ESP. |
| Why is the telnet utility a poor choice for remote access to a device? | It provides poor authentication and no encryption. |
| What statement regarding the SSH (Secure Shell) collection of protocols is accurate? | SSH supports port forwarding. |
| In order to generate a public and private key for use with SSH, what command line utility should you use? | ssh-keygen |
| Regarding VNC (Virtual Network Computing or Virtual Network Connection), what statement is accurate? | VNC is open source, allowing companies to develop their own software based on VNC. |
| Which file transfer protocol has no authentication or security for transferring files, uses UDP, and requires very little memory to use? | Trivial FTP (TFTP) |
| What special enterprise VPN supported by Cisco devices creates VPN tunnels between branch locations as needed rather than requiring constant, static tunnels? | Dynamic Multipoint VPN |
| Which of the following is NOT a task that a VPN concentrator is responsible for? | A VPN concentrator shuts down established connections with malicious traffic occurs. |
| T/F: Network segmentation decreases both performance and security on a network. | False |
| T/F: Only Class B and Class C networks can be subnetted. | False |
| T/F: By default, the native VLAN is the same as the default VLAN. | True |
| T/F: A native VLAN mismatch occurs when two access ports that are connected to each other are both tagging traffic with different VLAN IDs. | False |
| T/F: All that is needed to provide communication between two VLANs is a DHCP relay agent | False |
| T/F: Network segmentation at Layer 2 of the OSI model is accomplished using VLANs. | True |
| T/F: A /24 CIDR block is equivalent to a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask. | True |
| T/F: IPv6 addressing does not utilize classful addressing, therefore every IPv6 address is classless. | True |
| T/F: An unmanaged switch can still support the creation of VLANs, provided there is an interface for configuration. | False |
| T/F: In order to identify the transmissions that belong to each VLAN, a switch will add a tag to Ethernet frames that identifies the port through which they arrive at the switch. | True |
| A network with a CIDR notation of /26 would have what subnet mask? | 255.255.255.192 |
| A network with 10 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses? | 1022 |
| An interface that manages traffic from multiple VLANs is known by what term? | trunk port |
| Which of the following suggestions can help prevent VLAN hopping attacks on a network? | Disable auto trunking and move native VLANs to unused VLANs. |
| With VTP, where is the VLAN database stored? | On the switch that is known as the stack master. |
| What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information? | 802.1Q |
| In an IPv6 address, what do the first four blocks or 64 bits of the address represent? | The site prefix or global routing prefix. |
| On certain Cisco products, what command can be used to create and send helper messages that support several types of UDP traffic, including DHCP, TFTP, DNS, and TACACS+? | ip helper-address |
| When an 802.1Q tag is added to an Ethernet frame, where is it placed? | It is inserted between the source address and the Ethernet type field. |
| How large is the 802.1Q tag that is added to an Ethernet frame when using VLANs? | 4 bytes |
| On a Cisco switch, what would the security association identifier be for VLAN 13? | 100013 |
| What command will set the native VLAN on a Juniper switch port? | set native-vlan-id |
| You are working on a Cisco switch and need to learn what VLANs exist on the switch. Which command will list the current VLANs recognized by the switch? | show vlan |
| Given a host IP address of 172.16.1.154 and a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0, what is the network ID for this host? | 172.16.0.0 |
| What is the maximum number of host IP addresses that can exist in a Class B network? | 65,534 |
| Which of the following terms is commonly used to describe a VLAN configuration in which one router connects to a switch that supports multiple VLANs? | router-on-a-stick |
| When dealing with a Cisco switch, what is NOT one of the pre-established VLANs? | VLAN 1001 |
| A subnet of 255.255.248.0 can be represented by what CIDR notation? | /21 |
| When using IPv6, what would a /64 network likely be assigned to? | A smaller organization or business. |
| What does the VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) do? | It shares VLAN database information amongst switches that participate. |
| Which of the following statements regarding IPv6 subnetting is NOT accurate? | The largest IPv6 subnet capable of being created is a /64. |
| If the EUI-64 standard is used, what part of an IPv6 address is affected? | The last four blocks of the address. |
| How many /64 subnets can be created within a /56 prefix? | 256 |
| What is NOT one of the ways in which networks are commonly segmented? | by device manufacturer |
| An IP address of 192.168.18.73/28 has what network ID? | 192.168.18.64 |
| Subtracting an interesting octet value from 256 yields what number? | magic number |
| You have been tasked with the creation and design of a network that must support a minimum of 5000 hosts. Which network accomplishes this goal? | 10.3.0.0/19 |
| How many subnets can a /48 site prefix support? | 65,536 subnets |
| By default, when using classful addressing, how many bits exist in the host portion of a Class A address? | 24 |
| What subnet mask can be used to segment the 172.16.0.0 network to allow for a minimum of 6 subnets while maximizing the number of hosts per subnet? | 255.255.224.0 |
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