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Kate Maravillas
PHYSIOLOGY WEEK 1-5
Negative-feedback control systems: | OPPOSE A CHANGE |
Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? | TAPEWORMS |
Pathogenesis can be defined as: | THE COURSE OF DISEASE DEVELOPMENT |
Homeostasis can be described as: | STATE OF RELATIVE CONSTANCY |
Which of the following is NOT one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? | A. EFFECTOR MECHANISM B. TRANSMITTER C. SENSOR D. INTEGRATING CENTER B. TRANSMITTER |
Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? | A. ENVIRONMENT B. STRESS C. LIFESTYLE D. ALL OF THE ABOVE D. ALL OF THE ABOVE |
Intrinsic control: | IS SOMETIMES CALLED AUTOREGULATION. |
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? | A. VIRUS B. BACTERIA C. PRION D. PROTOZOAN |
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: | THE BODY TRYING TO MAINTAIN HOMEOSTASIS AND A NEGATIVE - FEEDBACK MECHANISM |
The term that literally means self-immunity is: | AUTOIMMUNITY |
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? | OXYTOCIN WOULD INHIBIT UTERINE CONTRACTIONS |
Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: | VIRUSES |
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. | OCCURRENCE, DISTRIBUTION AND TRANSMISSION |
The body’s thermostat is located in the: | HYPOTHALAMUS |
Negative-feedback mechanisms: | MINIMIZE CHANGES IN BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVELS, MAINTAIN HOMEOSTASIS AND ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR AN INCREASED RATE OF SWEATING WHEN AIR TEMPERATURE IS HIGHER THAN BODY TEMPERATURE. |
Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? | A. CIRCULATORY B. ENDOCRINE C. LYMPHATIC D. REPRODUCTIVE D. REPRODUCTIVE |
The normal reading or range of normal is called the: | SET POINT |
The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. | POSITIVE |
Positive-feedback control systems: | ACCELERATE A CHANGE |
Which of the following is a basic component of every feedback control loop? | SENSOR MECHANISM, INTEGRATING CENTER, EFFECTOR AND FEEDBACK. |
The concept that information may flow ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event that will follow is called | FEED-FORWARD |
Processes for maintaining or restoring homeostasis are known as | HOMEOSTASIS CONTROL MECHANISMS |
The body naturally changes some set points to different values at different times of the day. These daily cyles are called | CIRCADIAN CYCLES. |
Because negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance, they are | SLOWED OR MAINTAINED IN THE HOMEOSTATIC RANGE |
Local control or _____, intrinsic mechanisms often make use of chemical signals. | AUTOREGULATION |
Events that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot are examples of | POSITIVE FEEDBACK |
The impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as | NEUTRAL FEEDBACK SYSTEMS |
Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation? | NERVOUS AND ENDOCRINE |
To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a(n) | FEEDBACK CONTROL LOOP |
Many complex processes of the body are coordinated at many levels. These include | INTRACELLULAR, INTRINSIC AND EXTRINSIC |
Effectors can be described as | ORGANS THAT DIRECTLY INFLUENCE CONTROLLED PHYSIOLOGICAL VARIABLES |
Which level of control operates at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell function? | INTRACELLULAR REGULATION |
What term describes a signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference? | AFFERENT |
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: | THE BODY TRYING TO MAINTAIN HOMEOSTASIS AND A NEGATIVE HOMEOSTASIS AND A NEGATIVE-FEED MECHANISM |
The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories? | STRUCTURAL AND FUNCTIONAL |
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body. | GLYCOGEN |
Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? | CREATINE PHOSPHATE |
Which lipid is part of vitamin D? | STEROIDS |
A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons. | FREE RADICALS |
Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? | THEY BOTH CONTAIN A HYDROPHOBIC AND HYDROPHILIC END. |
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: | DEHYDRATION SYNTHESIS |
The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is: | NITROGEN |
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? | SECONDARY |
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? | DEGREE OF SATURATION |
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? | MALTOSE |
RNA or Ribonucleic Acid | IT CONTAINS RIBOSE SUGAR AND ADENINE AND IT IS COMPOSED OF SMALLER MOLECULES CALLED NUCLEOTIDES. |
The basic building blocks of fats are: | FATTY ACIDS AND GLYCEROL |
Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? | BOTH HAVE A RING STRUCTURE IN THEIR MOLECULES |
Amino acids frequently become joined by: | PEPTIDE BONDS |
What is Carbohydrates? | IT IS COMMONLY CALLED SUGARS. THEY ARE THE PRIMARY SOURCE OF ENERGY. THEY ARE PART OF BOTH DNA AND RNA |
DNA or Deoxyribonucleic Acid | IS A DOUBLE-HELIX STRAND OF NECLEOTIDES |
Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? | PRIMARY |
Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: | ESSENTIAL AMINO ACIDS |
Unsaturated fats: | WILL KINK OR BEND BECAUSE OF THE DOUBLE BONDS BETWEEN THE CARBON ATOMS |
The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: | LDL OR LOW-DENSITY LIPOPROTEINS |
What are the major groups of organic substances in the human body? | PROTEINS, LIPIDS AND NUCLEIC ACIDS |
The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component. | CARBOHYDRATES AND PROTEIN; PROTEIN |
The amino group in an amino acid is: | NH3+ |
Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? | PROSTALGLANDIN |
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: | HAPLOID |
What are the examples of passive transport? | FILTRATION, OSMOSIS AND DIALYSIS |
Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: | AN EVEN EXCHANGE OF MATERIAL ACROSS THE MEMBRANE |
Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? | ASTROCYTES |
The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: | NERVOUS |
Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? | EPITHELIAL |
The area referred to as true skin is the: | DERMIS |
What are the function of epithelial tissue? | ABSORPTION, SECRETION AND PROTECTION |
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? | CONNECTIVE TISSUE |
Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? | MICROGLIA |
Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? | FIBROBLASTS |
The hypodermis: | CONNECTS THE DERMIS TO UNDERLYING TISSUES |
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: | MESENCHYME |
Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? | SECRETION |
Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? | SCHWANN CELLS AND ASTROCYTES |
Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? | BROWN FAT |
A tissue is: | A GROUP OF SIMILAR CELLS THAT PERFORM A COMMON FUNCTION |
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: | BONES |
In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? | SOLE OF THE FOOT |
What are the proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? | GLUCOSAMINE, COLLAGEN, AND HYALURONIC ACID |
What are the characteristics of smooth muscles? | USUALLY NOT BEING UNDER VOLUNTARY CONTROL, COMPOSING THE WALLS OF VISCERA AND HAVING ONE NUCLEUS PER CELL |
What are the vitamins that are absorbed through the skin? | VITAMINS A, D, AND K |
Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. | TRUE |
What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? | BASEMENT MEMBRANE |
Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: | BASALE |
Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue. | CONNECTIVE AND EPITHELIAL TISSUES |
After the age of 50, the density of bone: | DECREASES SLOWLY BECAUSE OF A SHIFT IN THE REMODELING ACTIVITY. |
Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal? | FONTANELS |
Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? | CALCIUM |
A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is | KYPHOSIS |
What are the functios of the bone? | SUPPORT, PROTECTION, MINERAL STORAGE AND HEMATOPOIESIS. |
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: | THUMB |
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: | AMOUNT OF CALCIUM IN BONE INCREASES AND THE LEVEL OF CALCIUM IN THE BLOOD DECREASES. |
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: | PELVIC OUTLET |
In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _____ layer. | THIRD |
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. | EPIPHYSEAL PLATE |
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete | ADDITIONAL MATRIX |
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: | IN THE DIAPHYSIS |
Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones? | HORMONAL PRODUCTION |
In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: | OSTEOCLASTS |
An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture. | TRUE |
Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are | OSTEOBLASTS |
An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is | OSTEOPOROSIS |
Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. | TRUE |
What are the characteristic of the epiphyses? | MADE OF SPONGY BONE AND CONTAIN RED BONE MARROW |
The ulna articulates proximally with the: | HUMERUS |
In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: | ADDITION OF AN OUTSIDE LAYER OF OSSEOUS TISSUE ON FLAT BONES |
A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: | KNEE |
If the cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of: | INFECTIOUS MATERIALS PASSING FROM THE NOSE TO THE BRAIN |
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. | 35 AND 40 YEARS OLD |
What are the some of the causes of skeletal variations? | INADEQUATE SUPPLY OF CALCIUM AND VITAMIN D, MECHANICAL STRESS AND AGE. |