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Pharm Comprehensive

Comprehensive Cards

QuestionAnswer
Drugs that readily pass through the blood-brain barrier are... lipid soluble
Decreased response to a drug with prolonged use is... tolerance
Six rights of drug administrations are... patient, drug, dosage, time, route, documentation
Water solubility, reduced blood flow, ionized, small surface area, and bowel hyperactivity are... factors that reduce drug movement (pharmacokinetics)
An example of physical barrier to the distribution of drugs is... blood brain, blood-eye, or fetal placental
Impact of protein binding on drug distribution is... decreased distribution (intrinsic activity)
This organ must be mature and healthy in order to effectively metabolize drugs liver
Size of doses needed for drugs with a high first pass effect: increase in amount needed
Effect of competition for drug metabolizing enzymes on drug levels: decrease in amount needed
Ratio between lethal dose of a drug and effective dose is called... therapeutic index
This organ must be mature and healthy in order to effectively excrete drugs: kidneys
Routes which avoid first pass effect are: IV, IM, SubQ
Non-protein bound, water soluble, ionized:
Safety level of drugs with a narrow therapeutic range: decreased
Amount of time required for the 50% of a dose to be eliminated half-life
Type of drug that mimics the actions of the body's own regulatory molecules: agonist
Type of drug that prevents receptor activation by endogenous regulatory molecules and have no effect of their own: antagonist
Effect of food on rate of drug absorption: decreases absorption
Effect of grapefruit on the levels of many drugs: increases drug levels (can create toxic effect)
Disease produced by drugs: iatrogenic
Tests used to monitor for hepatoxicity: LFT (tests AST and ALT levels)
Tests used to monitor for nephrotoxicity: BUN, creatinine
Test used to monitor for bone marrow suppression: CBC
Proven risk of fetal harm: Category X
Step to minimize entry of medications into breast milk: Administer just after breastfeeding, use drugs that are water-soluble with a short half-life
About 10% of individuals are allergic to this class of antimicrobials: penicillins
5-10% of individuals who are allergic to penicillins are allergic to this class of antimicrobials: cephalosporins
DOC for treatment of an anaphylactic response: epinephrine
DOC for treatment of methicillin-resistant Staph aureus (MRSA): vancomycin
Antimicrobial that discolors teeth and can cause enamal loss--withhold pregnancy and less than 8 yr.: tetracycline
Antimicrobial alternative for individuals allergic to penicillin: erythromycin
Major toxic effects of this class of antimicrobials are ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity: aminoglycosides
This antimicrobial has a higher risk for photosensitivity: tetracycline
This antimicrobial can produce a hypersensitivity reaction known as Stevens-Johnson syndrome (25% mortality): sulfonamides (sulfamethexazole)
DOC for antibiotic associated colitis: metronidazole
This antimicrobial can produce a disulfiram-like reaction if comined with alcohol: Flagyl
Adverse effects of this antimicrobial include infusion reactions, nephrotoxicity, hypokalemia, phlebitis, hypotension, and bone marrow depression: Amphotericin B
This antimicrobial is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV): acyclovir
Contraindicated for persons with hypersensitivity to eggs: vaccinations
Enfavirtide (Fuzeon), zidovudine (Retrovir), efavirenz (Sustiva), Lopinavir (Kaletra), and nelfinavir (Viracept): anti-retroviral drugs
Reduction in viral load: treatment is working
Levodopa, Levodopa with Carbidopa (Sinemet), Amantadine (Symmetrel), and Benztoprine (Cogentin) are... drugs to treat Parkinson's disease
Length of time to wait betwen administration of last dose of Levodopa and first dose of Sinemet: eight hours
To avoid abrupt cessation of this prototype drug's effects--spread out protein intake throughout the day: Levodopa
Dyskinesias, postural hypotension, psychosis, n/v--are adverse effects of this prototype drug used to treat Parkinson's: Levodopa
Tacrine (Cognex) and Memantine (Namenda) are drugs to treat... Alzheimer's disease
Phenytoin (Dilantin) carbamazepine (tegretol), valproic acid (depakote), diazepam (valium), and phenobarbital (barbiturate) are... anti-epileptic drugs
DOC for treatment of status epilepticus: Benzodiazepines (Diazepam/Lorazepam) and Phenytoin
This anti-seizure drug should not be administered at a rate faster than 50 mg/min: Dilantin
This anti-seizure drug should not be administered at a rate faster than 2 mg/min: Benzodiazepines (Diazepam/Lorazepam)
These prototype drugs are strong opiods: Morphine/Fentanyl
Prototype opioid antagonist: Pentazocine/Narcan
To avoid this adverse effect, morphine must be administered slowly over 5 minutes: respiratory depression
Morphine should be held if a client's baseline respiratory rate is less than ______/min twelve
Constipation, respiratory depression, urinary retention, emesis, increased ICP, and sedation are adverse effects of this class of analgesics: opioids
A maximum of 4 gm of this prototype drug should be taken in one day in order to avoid hepatoxicity: acetaminophen
Sumatriptan (Imitrex) and ergotamine are... drugs to treat migraines
Anti-inflammatory, analgesic and antipyretic effects are the result of inhibition of: Cox 2 (aspirin)
Tinnitus, sweating, headache, and dizziness are symptoms of what type of drug toxicity? Salicylism
Use of this analgesic is contraindicated for children who may have influenza or chickenpox: aspirin
Neurotransmitter at nicotinic and muscaranic receptors: acetylcholine
Location of alpha 1 sympathetic system receptors: eyes, arterioles, veins, bladder
Location of beta 1 sympathetic system receptors: heart, kidneys
Location of beta 2 sympathetic system receptors: lungs
Response to activation of alpha 1 receptors: pupil dilation
Response to activation of beta 1 receptors: increased heart rate, renin release
Response to activation of beta 2 receptors: bronchodilation
Response to blockade of alpha 1 receptors: pupil constriction
Response to blockade of beta 1 receptors: decreased heart rate, no release of renin
Response to blockade of beta 2 receptors: bronchoconstriction
Response to activation of muscarinic receptors on the bladder: increased urine output
Response to activation of muscarinic receptors on the eye: pupil constriction
Response to blockade of muscarinic receptors in the lungs: bronchodilation
Effect of blockade of muscarinic receptors on quantity of secretions: decrease in output
Response to blockade of muscarinic receptors on the heart: increase in heart rate
Prototype drug used to treat hypertension by blockade of alpha 1 receptors: Prazosin
Prototype drug used to treat hypertension, decrease 02 demand, and/or to decrease HR for rapid dysrhythmias through blockade of beta 1 receptors: Propanolol/Atenolol/Metaprolol
Prototype cholinergic (muscarinic) agonist used to treat urinary retention: Bethanecol
Prototype cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat myasthenia gravis: Neostygmine
Antidote for too much cholinesterase inhibitor or too much cholinergic agonist: atropine
Prototype cholinergic (muscarinic) antagonist: epinephrine
Effect of anticholinergics on pupil diameter: pupil dilation
Drugs which increase contractility are: positive inatropics
Class of drugs which prevent the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotension 2: ACE inhibitors
Effect of blockade of aldosterone secretion in the RAA: water and sodium excretion (lowers blood pressure)
Effect of blockade of the converstion of angiotension 1 to angiotension 2 on vascular smooth muscle: vasodilation (decreased afterload)
Strategies for "first dose" hypotension: take at bedtime; rise slowly
Antihypertensives should be held if the systolic pressure falls below _____ mm Hg 100
Beta blockers CCB and Dig should be held for baseline pulse rates below _____ bpm 60
Potential adverse effect of all antihypertensives hypotension
Rate at which furosemide (Lasix) is given IV in order to avoid hypotension: 20 mg/min
Normal (therapeutic) digoxin level: 0.5-0.9 ng
Effect of dopamine and dobutamine on cardiac contractility (output): increases contractility
Cardiosuppressant effects on heart rate, contractility (CO) and AV conduction: decreases
Adverse effect of all vasodilators: reflex tachycardia, decreases BP
Periodic liver function tests are indicated for users of this cholesterol lowering agent: statins
This cholesterol-lowering agent has to be separated from other medications because of its binding effects. It also has constipation and decrease absorption of fat soluble vitamins adverse effects: Questran (cholestyramine)
Used for hypertensive crises. Adverse effects include hypertension, cyanide poisoning, and thiocyanate toxicity: Nipride
Toxicity that is characterized by bradycardia, GI symptoms, and CNS effects like visual disturbances. Toxicity is potentiated by hypokalemia: Digoxin
This class of drugs have generic names that end in "sartan": ARB's (angiotensin receptor blockers)
This class of drugs have generic names that end in "pril": ACE inhibitors
This class of drugs have generic names that end in "olol": Beta blockers
Clients taking this antihypertensive agent must be monitored for hyperkalemia: ACE inhibitors and ARB's
Clients taking this antihypertensive agent must be monitored for hypokalemia: Lasix
An adverse effect of this drug is a persistent dry irritating nonproductive cough due to bradykinin accumulation: ACE inhibitors
Digoxin, Dopamine, Dobutamine are referred to as: positive inatropics
DOC for iron deficiency anemia: 1st choice: Ferrous sulfate; 2nd choice: Iron dextran
DOC for Vitamin B12 deficiency: cyanocobalamin
Doc for folic acid deficiency: folic acid
Erythropoietin growth factor: Epogen
Leukopoietic growth factor: Neupogen
Thrombopoietic growth factor: Neumega
DOC for prevention of arterial thromboses: Ticlid, Plavix, Persantine, aspirin
Thrombolytic: Streptokinase/Altepase
DOC for prevention of venous thromboses: Heparin
Antidote for heparin: Protamine sulfate
Antidote for warfarin (Coumadin): Vitamin K
Expected change in stool appearance with iron administration: dark green, black tarry stools
Rationale for test dose prior to IV administration of iron: analphylactic reaction (IV/IM)
Reason that cyanacobalamin is usually not given orally:
Adverse effect associated with filgastrin (Neupogen) administration: bone pain
Adverse effect associated with oprelvekin (Neumega) administration: fluid retention, cardiac dysrhythmias
Lab test to monitor effectiveness of ferrous sulfate: CBC, iron level
Lab test to monitor effectiveness of epoeitin alfa (Epogen): HGB, CBC diff, BUN, uric acid, creatine, P, K, iron
Lab test to monitor effectiveness of filgrastim (Neupogen): CBC, platelets
Lab test to monitor effectiveness of oprelvekin (Neumega): CBC, platelets
Lab test to monitor effectivenes of warfarin: INR-PT
Lab test to monitor effectiveness of heparin: aPTT
Target aPTT range for heparin anticoagulation: 1.5-2x aPTT(nl 40 sec; target 60-80sec)
Target PT range for warfarin anticoagulation: 1.5-2X normal (nl PT 12 sec)
Target INR range for warfarin anticoagulation: 3-4.5
Interpretation of a WBC of 1800: low (normal=5,000-10,000)
Interpretation of a platelet count of 35,000: low (normal=150,000-400,000)
Potential adverse effect of heparin therapy: hemorrhage and Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia
Anticoagulant of choice during pregnancy: Heparin
Expected onset of Warfarin effects: 8-12 hours after admin. Peak several days
Timeframe in which thrombolytics must be administred following symptom onset: 4-6 hours
Most serious adverse effect associated with use of thrombolytics: bleeding, hypotension
Urticaria, itching, flushing, and headache are signs of an allergic reaction to which thrombolytic: Streptokinase
Interpretation of a peak flow meter reading in the yellow zone: some symptoms present, insufficient control, some intervention (SA beta 2 agonist inhaler)
Inhaled beta 2 agonist used for quick relief during an asthma attack: albuterol
Tachycardia, angina, and tremor can be adverse effects of this bronchodilator if taken in excess: Beta 2 agonists-Albuterol
Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) and phenylphrine (Neosynephrine): Sympathomimetics (tx of allergic rhinitus)
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl), Loratadine (Claritin), and Azelastine (Astelin): oral/nasal antihistamines
Expected action of guafenesin (Mucinex): stimulate flow of respiratory tracts secretions
Expected action of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst): reacts directly with mucus which results in increased water content of secretions
Hypokalemia, immunosupression, fluid retention, ulcerogenic, hyperglycemia: Glucocorticoids
Adverse effect of use of nasal decongestant sprays for more than 3-5 days: rebound congestion
Adverse effect of first generation antihistamines: drowsiness
A leukotriene modifier: Singulair
A mast cell stabilizer: Cromolyn (Intal)
Oropharyngeal candidiasis and dysphonia are possible adverse effects of this inhaled prototype drug: Glucocorticoids
With this prototype drug use to prophylactically treat asthma the nurse must monitor for toxicity. Therapeutic range is 10-20 mcg/ml. Theophylline (Theolair-SR)
Created by: fambrough
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