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MLT BOC BLOODBANK
MLT BOC BLOODBANK QUESTIONS
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is: 12.0 g/dL (120 g/L) 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L) 13.5 g.dL (135 g/L) 15.0 g/dL (150 g/L) | 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L) |
| Which one of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor? | Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously |
| female blood donor: age: 16 Temp: 99.0°F (37.2°C) Hct: 36% History: Tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously How many of the above results excludes this donor? | 1(The Hct must be >38%) Temperature must not exceed 99.5F/37.5C blood pressure must be <180 mmHg systolic and <100 mmHg diastolic, pulse 50-100 unless an athlete [which can be lower]. Toxoids and vaccines no deferral.) |
| 8) Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution of: a. hypochlorite b. isopropyl alcohol c. 10% acetone d. PVP iodine complex | d. PVP iodine complex |
| 9) All donors blood testing must include: a. complete Rh phenotype b. anti-CMV testing c. DAT d. serological test for syphilis | d. serological test for syphilis |
| 10) During the preparation of Platelet Concentrates from whole blood, the blood should be: a. cooled towards 6 C b. cooled towards 20-24 C c. warmed to 37 C d. heated to 57 C | b. cooled towards 20-24 C |
| 12) The western blot is a confirmatory test for: a. CMV antibody b. anti-HIV-1 c. HbsAg d. serum protein abnormality | b. anti-HIV-1 |
| 13) The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is: a. anti-HBc b. anti-HIV-1,2 c. HbsAg d. ALT | b. anti-HIV-1,2 |
| 14) A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV detection is: a. latex agglutination b. RIA c. TLC d. ELISA | d. ELISA |
| 16) A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 am. The expiration time for each aliquot is: a. 4 pm the same day b. 8 pm the same say c. 8 am the next morning d. the original date of the unsplit unit | d. the original date of the unsplit unit |
| 18) When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temps. must be recorded: a. once a day b. twice a day c. every 4 hours d. every hour | c. every 4 hours |
| 19) Which of the following is the correct storage temp for the component listed: a. Cryo AHF = 4 C b. FFP = -20 C c. Frozen RBC = -40 C d. Platelets = 37 C | b. FFP = -20 C (Fresh Frozen Plasma is stored at -18 C or below for 12 months.) |
| 20) A unit of RBCs is issued at 9 am and at 9:10 am it is returned to the blood bank. The best course of action for the tech is to: | a. culture the unit for bacteria b. discard the unit if not used within 24 hrs. c. store the unit at room temp ***d. record the return and place the unit back into inventory |
| 22) Optimum storage temperature for RBCs: a. -80 C b. -20 C c. -12 C d. 4 C | . 4 C (Red Blood Cells are stored at 1-6C.) |
| 23) If the seal is entered on a unit of RBCs stored at 1 C to 6 C, what is the maximum allowable storage period in hours? a. 6 b. 24 c. 48 d. 72 | b. 24 |
| 24) Optimum storage for Cryo AHF is: a. -20 C b. -12 C c. 4 C d. 22 C | a. -20 C (Cryoprecipitated AHF is stored at -18C or lower.) |
| 25) Cryo AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling? a. 4 hrs. b. 8 hrs. c. 12 hrs. d. 24 hrs. | a. 4 hrs. |
| 26) Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22-24 C in 50 mL of plasma and gently agitated can be used for up to: a. 24 hrs. b. 48 hrs. c. 3 days d. 5 days | d. 5 days |
| 27) Optimum storage temperature for platelets: a. -20 C b. -12 C c. 4 C d. 22 C | d. 22 C (The required temperature for storage of platelets is 20-24 C.) |
| 28) According to AABB standards FFP must be infused within what period of time following thawing: a. 24 hrs. b. 36 hrs. c. 48 hrs. d. 72 hrs. | a. 24 hrs. (Per AABB standards, thawed FFP should be stored at 1-6 C for no more than 24 hours.) |
| 29) Cryo AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18 C or below, has a shelf life of: a. 42 days b. 6 months c. 12 months d. 36 months | c. 12 months |
| 30) Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within: a. 4 hrs. b. 8 hrs. c. 12 hrs. d. 24 hrs. | d. 24 hrs. |
| 32) In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at: a. 1 - 6 C b. 22 C c. 37 C d. 56 C | a. 1 - 6 C |
| 36) Irradiation of a unit of RBC's is done to prevent the replication of donor: a. granulocytes b. lymphocytes c. red cells d. platelets | b. lymphocytes (Irradiation inhibits proliferation of T lymphocytes.) |
| 37) Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing FFP in a 37 C water bath. because they prevent: a. FFP bag from cracking b. water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane c. the entry ports from being contaminated with water | c. the entry ports from being contaminated with water |
| 38) Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hrs. after phlebotomy: a. RBCs b. FFP c. Frozen rbcs d. Cryo AHF | b. FFP (Fresh Frozen Plasma [FFP] must be separated and frozen within 8 hours of Whole Blood collection.) |
| 42) A blood component prepared by thawing FFP at refrigerator temp and removing the fluid portion is: a. Plasma Protein Fraction b. Cryo AHF c. Factor IX Complex d. FP24 | b. Cryo AHF (Cryoprecipitate is the fraction of plasma proteins that precipitate when FFP is slowly thawed at 1-6 C.) |
| 43) Upon inspection, a unit of platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. the tech should: a. issue without concern b. filter to remove clots c. centrifuge to express off the clots d. quarantine for gram stain and culture | d. quarantine for gram stain and culture |
| 46) Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of platelets from Whole Blood: a. light spin followed by hard spin b. light spin followed by 2 hard spins c. 2 light spins d. hard spin followed by a light spin | a. light spin followed by hard spin |
| 59) The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitutes a (an): a. allele b. trait c. phenotype d. haplotype | d. haplotype (The entire set of HLA antigens located on one chromosome is a haplotype.) |
| 61) A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. what is his RBC phenotype? a. A b. B c. O d. AB | c. O (The A and B structures cannot be developed since there is no H precursor substance due to the lack of the H gene in the blood donor.) |
| 62) An individual has been sensitized to the k antigen and has produced anti-k. What is her most probable Kell system genotype: a. KK b. Kk c. kk d. K0K0 | a. KK |
| 63) Given the following typing results, what is the donors racial ethnicity: Le(a-b-) Fy(a-b-) Js(a+b+) a. African American b. Asian American c. Native American d. Caucasian | a. African American (Fy[a-b-] individuals are very rare with all populations other than the individual of African descent. 68% of African Americans are Fy[a-b-].) |
| 65) In an emergency situation, Rh-neg. red cells are transfused into a Rh-pos person of the genotype CDe/CDe. the first antibody most likely to develop is: a. anti-c b. anti-d c. anti-e d. anti- E | a. anti-c ( The most common genotype in Rh-negative individuals is rr. Anti-e would not be formed because the recipient's red cells contain the e antigen. The first antibody most likely to develop would be anti-c.) |
| 66) Most blood group systems are inherited as: a. sex-linked dominant b. sex-linked recessive c. autosomal recessive d. autosomal codominant | d. autosomal codominant |
| 67) The mating of an Xg(a+) man and a Xg(a-) women will only produce: a. Xg(a-)sons + Xg(a-) daughters b. Xg(a+)sons + Xg(a+)daughters c. Xg(a-) sons + Xg(a+) daughters d. Xg(a+) sons + Xg(a-) daughters | c. Xg(a-) sons + Xg(a+) daughters |
| 70) The red cells of a nonsecretor will most likely type as: a. Le(a-b-) b. Le(a+b+) c. Le(a+b-) d. Le(a-b+) | c. Le(a+b-) |
| 71) Which of the following phenotype will react with anti-f: a. rr b. R1R1 c. R2R2 d. R1R2 | a. rr (Anti-f will react with cells that carry c and e on the same Rh polypeptide. No other listed genotypes produce an Rh polypeptide that carries both c and e.) |
| 74) A women types as Rh-pos. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by HDFN. What is the fathers most likely Rh phenotype. a. rr b. r"r c. R1r d. R2r | c. R1r |
| 75) Which of the following red cell typings are most commonly found in the African Americans: a. Lu(a-b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Fy(a-b-) d. K-k- | c. Fy(a-b-) |
| 76) 4 units of blood are needed for elective surgery. the patient serum contains anti-C, anti-e, anti-Fya and anti-Jkb. Which of the following would be the best source of donor blood: | a. test all units in current stock b. test 100 group O Rh-neg c. test 100 group compatible donors ***d. rare donor file |
| 83) In relationship testing a "Direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is: | d. present in child, absent in the mother and alleged father (When a marker is in a child that the mother and alleged father do not have the alleged father cannot be the biological father of the child. This is a direct exclusion.) |
| 85) In a relationship testing case the child has a genetic marker that is absent in the mother and cannot be demonstrated in the alleged father. What type of paternity exclusion is this: a. indirect b. direct c. prior probability d. Hardy-Weinbery | b. direct (Direct exclusion of paternity is established when a genetic marker is present in the child but is absent from the mother and the alleged father.) |
| 87) Human blood groups were discovered around 1900 by: a. Jules Bordet b. Louis Pasteur c. Karl Landsteiner d. PL Mollison | c. Karl Landsteiner |
| 88) Cells of the A3 subgroup will: a. react with Dolichos biflorus b. bE-with anti-A c. have a mixed field reaction with anti-A,B d. bE- with anti-H | c. have a mixed field reaction with anti-A,B (Mixed-field reactivity with anti-A and anti-A,B is a typical finding for A3 subgroups.) |
| 89) The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha_: a. galactosyl transferase b. n-acetylgalactosaminyl tranferase c. L-fucosyl transferase d. N-acetylglucosaminyl transferase | c. L-fucosyl transferase (Fucose is the immunodominant sugar for H.) |
| 90) Even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay phenotype will always have naturally occurring: a. anti-Rh b. anti-K0 c. anti-U d. anti-H | d. anti-H (Bombay phenotypes [Oh] lack H antigen on their red cells, and produce naturally occurring anti-H in their serum.) |
| 91) The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at lower temps: a. anti-Lua b. anti-Lub c. anti-Lu3 d. anti-Luab | a. anti-Lua |
| 93) Anti-Sda is strongly suspected if: a. the patient has been previously transfused b. the agglutinates are mixed field and refractile c. the patient is group A or B d. only a small number of panel cells are reactive | b. the agglutinates are mixed field and refractile |
| 94) HLA antibodies are: a. naturally occurring b. induced by multiple transfusions c. directed against granulocyte antigen only d. frequently cause hemolytic transfusion reactions. | b. induced by multiple transfusions |
| 95) Genes of the major histocompatibility complex: a. code for HLA-A,HLA-B, and HLA-C antigens only b. are linked to genes in the ABO system c. are the primary genetic sex-determinants d. contribute to the coordination of cellular and humoral immunity | d. contribute to the coordination of cellular and humoral immunity |
| 97) Saliva from which of the following individuals would neutralize an auto anti-H in the serum of a group A, Le(a-b+) patient: a. group A, Le(a-b-) b. group A, Le(a+b-) c. group O, Le(a+b-) d. group O, Le(a-b+) | d. group O, Le(a-b+) (Group O have the most H substance in their saliva. The person must also be a secretor of ABH substances. Due to gene interaction between the secretor gene and Lewis gene, people who are Le[a-b+] assures H in their saliva.) |
| 99) Which of the following Rh antigens has the highest frequency in Caucasians: a. D b. E c. c d. e | d. e |
| 105) Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i? a. associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia b. found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis c. detected at lower temps in the serum of normal individuals | b. found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis (Patients with infectious mononucleosis often demonstrate potent examples of anti-i that are transient in nature.) |
| 104) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following: a. Kell system antigens b. Duffy system antigens c. P antigen d. I antigen | c. P antigen (Autoanti-P, a cold-reactive IgG autoantibody described as a biphasic hemolysin, is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria.) |
| 103) Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A: a. M,N b. Lea, Leb c. S, s d. P, P1,pk | a. M,N |
| 106) In a case of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the patient's serum would most likely react 4+ at immediate spin with: a. group A cells, B cells and O cells, but not his own cells c. all cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells | c. all cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells (Cold agglutinin syndrome is mainly found in lymphoproliferative diseases.) |
| 107) Cold agglutinin syndrome is associated with an antibody specificity toward which of the following: a. Fy:3 b. P c. I d. Rh:1 | c. I |
| 108) Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i? a. often associated with HDFN b. reacts best at room temp or 4 C c. reacts best at 37 C d. is usually IgG | b. reacts best at room temp or 4 C (Anti-i is an IgM antibody that reacts with cord cells and i adult cells. It is not associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn since IgM antibodies do not cross the placenta.) |
| 109) The Kell antigen is: a. absent from the red cells of neonates b. strongly immunogenic c. destroyed by enzymes d. has a frequency of 50% in the random population | b. strongly immunogenic |
| 111) The antibodies of the Kidd blood group system: a. react best at the IAT b. are predominately IgM c. often cause allergic transfusion reactions d. do not generally react with antigen-positive, enzyme-treated RBC's | a. react best at the IAT (Antibodies in the Kidd blood group system are IgG and react best at the antiglobulin phase. These antibodies are associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions and reactivity can be enhanced by testing with enzyme pre |
| 112) Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen? a. Jka b. E c. Fya d. k | c. Fya (The Fya and Fyb antigens are sensitive to denaturation by proteolytic enzymes. |
| 113) Anti-Fya is: a. usually a cold reactive agglutinin b. more reactive when tested with enzyme treated RBCs c. capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions d. often an auto agglutinin | c. capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions (Anti-Fya is an IgG antibody that reacts best at the AHG phase, does not react with enzyme-treated red cells, is capable of causing hemolytic disease of the newborn |
| 114) Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups: a. Rh b. I/i c. P d. Duffy | d. Duffy (The Duffy glycoprotein on red cells is a receptor for the malarial parasite Plasmodium vivax. Red cells with the phenotype Fy[a-b-] are resistant to invasion by P vivax.) |
| 121) A blood component used in the treatment of hemophilia A is: a. Factor VIII concentrate b. FFP c. Platelets d. Whole Blood | a. Factor VIII concentrate (Patients with severe hemophilia A may have spontaneous hemorrhages that are treated with Factor VIII concentrate.) |
| 126) An obstetrical patient has had 3 previous pregnancies. her 1st baby was healthy, the 2nd was jaundiced at birth and required and exchange transfusion, while the 3rd was stillborn. Which of the following is the most likely cause: | d. Rh incompatibility (HDFN is caused by maternal antibody crossing the placenta and destroying fetal antigen-positive red cells. |
| 129) Which of the following antigens in most likely to be involved in HDFN. a. Lea b. P1 c. M d. Kell | d. Kell (HDFN is caused by maternal IgG antibodies. Outside the Rh system, the most clinically significant antibody for HDFN is anti-K |
| 128) ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn: a. usually requires an exchange transfusion b. most often occurs in 1st born children c. frequently results in stillbirth d. is usually seen only in the newborn of group O mothers | d. is usually seen only in the newborn of group O mothers |
| 130) ABO HDFN differs from Rh HDFN in that: a. Rh HDFN is clinically more severe that ABO HDFN b. the DAT test is weaker in Rh HDFN than ABO c. Rh HDFN occurs in the 1st pregnancy d. the mother's antibody screen is positive in ABO HDFN | a. Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN DAT is strongly positive in Rh HDFN, and could be negative in ABO HDFN |
| 132) A group A, Rh positive infant of a group O, Rh positive mother has a weakly positive DAT and moderately elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. the most likely cause is: a. ABO incompatibility b. Rh incompatibility | a. ABO incompatibility (ABO HDFN occurs most commonly in group A babies born to group O mothers and usually has a mild course. The DAT is typically weak or negative and jaundice develops 12-48 hours after birth. The mother and baby are both Rh-positive.) |
| 134) The Liley method of predicting the severity of HDFN is based on the amniotic fluid: a. bilirubin concentration by standard methods b. change in optical density measured at 450nm c. Rh determination d. ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin | b. change in optical density measured at 450nm |
| 135) These lab results were obtained on maternal and cord blood samples: Mother: A- baby: AB+ DAT 3+ cord hemoglobin 10 g/dL Does the baby have HDFN? | c. yes, the DAT and cord hemoglobin level both support HDFN c (A positive DAT on cord blood has a maternal antibody coating the baby's red cells and indicates hemolytic disease of the newborn. Normal cord hgb 14-20. A cord Hgb value of 10 is anemia |
| 137) Which unit should be selected for exchange transfusion if the newborn is group A, Rh pos. and the mother is Group A, Rh pos. with anti-c? a. A, CDe/CDe b. A, cDE/cDE c. O, cde/cde d. A, cde/cde | a. A, CDe/CDe a (Blood for an exchange transfusion should lack the antigen to any maternal antibodies that have entered the infant's circulation and are reactive at 37 C or AHG.) |
| 140) A blood specimen from a pregnant woman is found to be group B, Rh neg. and the serum contains anti-D with a titer of 512. What would be the most appropriate type of blood to have available for a possible exchange transfusion for her infant? | a (Blood selected for exchange transfusion should be ABO-compatible with the mother and baby, and antigen-negative. Prenatal antibody titers above 16 or 32 are considered significant, and the condition of the fetus should be monitored.) ***a. O, Rh-neg |
| 141) Blood selected for exchange transfusion must: a. lack RBC antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies b. be <3 days old c. be the same Rh as the baby d. be ABO compatible with the father | a. lack RBC antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies (Blood selected for exchange transfusion should be antigen-negative and ABO compatible with the mother and baby. |
| 142) When the main objective of an exchange transfusion is to remove the infant's antibody-sensitized RBCs and to control hyperbilirubinemia, the blood product of choice is ABO compatible: a. FFP b. RBCs washed c. RBC suspended in FFP | c. RBC suspended in FFP c (For exchange transfusion, antigen- negative Red Blood Cells are typically resuspended in ABO-compatible thawed Fresh Frozen Plasma.) |
| 143) To prevent graft vs host disease, RBCs prepared for infants who have received intrauterine transfusions should be: a. saline washed b. irradiated c. frozen and deglycerolized d. group-and Rh-compatible with the mother | b. irradiated b (Blood selected for intrauterine transfusion and transfusion to premature infants should be irradiated to prevent graft-vs-host disease.) |
| 147) What is the most appropriate interpretation for the laboratory data given below when an Rh-neg woman has an Rh-pos child? mother: 1 rosette/3 fields Positive Control.: 5 rosettes/3 fields Negative Control: no rosettes | a. mother is not a candidate for RhIg ***b. mother need 1 vial RhIg c. mother need 2 vials RhIg d. the fetal maternal hemorrhage needs to be quantified |
| 150) The results of a Kleihauer-Butke stain indicate a fetomaternal hemorrhage of 35 mL of WHOLE BLOOD. How many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 | b. 2 b (One dose of RhIg will protect the mother from a bleed of 30 mL. The bleed was 35 mL, 2 vials of RhIg will be needed) |
| 151) A fetal maternal hemorrhage of 35 mL of fetal Rh-pos PACKED RBCs has been detected in an Rh-neg woman. How many vials of Rh immune globulin should be given a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 | d. 3 d (One vial of Rh immune globulin protects against a fetomaternal hemorrhage of 15 mL of red cells, or 30 mL of Whole Blood. Divide the volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage [35 mL] by 15; round down to 2, then add 1 extra vial = 3 vials total.) |
| 152) Criteria determining Rh immune globulin eligibility include: a. mother is Rh-pos b. mother is Rh-neg c. mother has not been previously immunized to the D antigen d. infant has a positive DAT | c. mother has not been previously immunized to the D antigen c (RhIg should be given to nonimmunized D- females who are pregnant or have delivered a D+ infant.) |
| 154) Rh immune globulin administration would not be indicated in an Rh-neg woman who has a: a. first trimester abortion b. husband who is Rh-pos c. anti-D titer of 1:4,096 d. mother having a positive DAT | c. anti-D titer of 1:4,096 (RhIg is of no benefit once a person has been actively immunized and has formed anti-D) |
| 155) A Kleihauer-Betke stain of a postpartum blood film revealed 0.3 fetal cells. What is the estimated volume of the fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed as whole blood: a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35 | b. 15 b (The formula to calculate the percentage assumes the mother's blood volume as 5,000 mL. 0.003 x 5,000 mL = l5 mL.) |
| 156) Based upon Kleihauer-Betke test results, which of the following formulas is used to determine the volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed in mL of whole blood. a. % of fetal cell present x 30 b. % of fetal cell present x 50 | b. % of fetal cell present x 50 b (The percentage of fetal cells/100, the mother's volume is assumed to be 5,000 mL. The percentage must be multiplied by 50 to determine total volume.) |
| 158) The rosette test will detect a fetomaternal hemorrhage as small as: a. 10 mL b. 15 mL c. 20 mL d. 30 mL | a. 10 mL a (The rosette test is a sensitive method to detect FMH of 10 mL or more.) |
| 161) A 40 year old man with autoimmune hemolytic anemia due to anti-E has a hemoglobin level of 10.8 g/dL. This patient will most likely be treated with: a. whole blood b. RBCs c. FFP d. no transfusion | d. no transfusion d (Transfusion should generally be avoided except in cases of life-threatening anemia. A hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL [108 g/L] is not life-threatening, especially if the patient is not actively bleeding.) |
| 162) A patient in the immediate post bone marrow transplant period has a hematocrit of 21%. The red cell product of choice for this patient would be: a. packed b. saline washed c. micro aggregate filtered d. irradiated | d. irradiated d (Bone marrow transplant patients are at risk for transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease [TA-GVHD] and therefore should receive irradiated blood products.) |
| 163) HLA antigen typing is important in screening for: a. ABO incompatibility b. a kidney donor c. Rh incompatibility d. a blood donor | b. a kidney donor b (HLA antigen typing is important to consider before organ transplantation.) |
| 165) Anti-E is identified in a panel at the antiglobulin phase. When check cells are added to the tubes no agglutination is seen. The most appropriate course of action would be to | ***a. quality control the AHG reagent and check cells and repeat the panel b. open a new vial of check cells for subsequent testing that day c. open a new vial of AHG for subsequent testing that day |
| 167) Which of the following represents an acceptably identified patient for sample collection and transfusion | a. a handwritten band with patients name and hospital identification number is affixed to the patients leg a (Samples must be labeled with 2 independent patient identifiers and the date of collection |
| 169) The following test results are noted for a unit of blood labeled group A, Rh-neg, anti-A 4+ anti-B 0 anti-D 3+ What should be done next? a. transfuse as a group A, Rh-neg b. transfuse as a group A, Rh-pos c. notify the collecting facility | c. notify the collecting facility |
| 170) What information is essential on patient blood sample labels drawn for compatibility testing? a. biohazard sticker for AIDS patients b. patients room number c. unique patient medical # d. phlebotomist initials | c. unique patient medical # |
| 171) Granulocytes for transfusion should: a. be administered through a micro aggregate filter b. be ABO compatible with the recipients serum c. be infused within 72 hrs. of collection | b. be ABO compatible with the recipients serum b (Granulocytes must be compatible with recipient's plasma. Granulocyte products have an expiration of 24 hours.) |
| 172) A neonate will be transfused for the first time with group O Red Blood Cells. Which of the following is appropriate compatibility testing? a. crossmatch with mothers serum c. no crossmatch is necessary if initial plasma screening is negative | c. no crossmatch is necessary if initial plasma screening is negative |
| 173) A group B, Rh-neg patient has a positive DAT. Which of the following situations would occur? a. all major crossmatches would be incompatible b. the weak D test and control would be positive c. the antibody screen test would be positive d. the for | b. the weak D test and control would be positive b (A positive DAT will interfere with weak D testing, causing both the patient and control to demonstrate positive results. Any positive result in the control tube invalidates any results.) |
| 175) What is the most likely cause of the following ABO discrepancy? Cells: anti-A = 0 | anti-B = 0 serum: A1 cells = 0 | B cells= 0 | a. recent transfusion with group O blood b. antigen depression due to leukemia c. false-neg cell typing due to rouleaux **d. obtained from the heel stick of a 2 month old baby |
| 177) Which of the following is characteristic of Tn polyagglutinable red cells? a. if group O, they may appear to have acquired a group A antigen b. they show strong reactions when the cells are enzyme treated c. they react with Arachis hypogaea lectin | a. if group O, they may appear to have acquired a group A antigen |
| 178) Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO grouping with no history of transfusion would most likely be due to: a. Bombay phenotype (Oh) b. T activation c. A3 red cells d. positive IAT | c. A3 red cells (Mixed-field reactivity is a characteristic of the A3 subgroup. Transfusion history would be important to be sure it is not 2 cell populations.) |
| 179) Which of the following is a characteristic of polyagglutinable red cells? a. can be classified by reactivity with Ulex europaeus b. are agglutinated by most adult sera c. are always an acquired condition d. autocontrol is always positive | b. are agglutinated by most adult sera |
| 184) The test for weak D is performed by incubating patients red cells with: a. several different dilutions of anti-D serum b. anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum c. anti-Du serum d. antiglobulin serum | b. anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum |
| 186) The following results were obtained when testing a sample from a 20 year old first time blood donor Forward: anti-A = 0 | anti-B = 0 Reverse: A1 cells = 0 | B cells = 3+ What is the most likely cause of this ABO discrepancy? d. weak subgroup of A | d. weak subgroup of A d (Some subgroups of A are only recognized because of their lack of anti-A in the reverse typing. Often, the donors are confirmed as subgroups of A by an adsorption-elution technique.) |
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