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Phenom 300 E505

Phenom 300 systems questions

QuestionAnswer
Engine: What engines are on the Phenom 300? How many lbs of thrust? Pratt & Whitney PW535E; 3360 lbs of thrust.
ENGINE :How are the engines controlled? By a dual channel Full Authority Digital Electronic Control, (FADEC) system. Each engine is controlled and monitored by two FADEC channels. When one channel is in control, the other is in standby mode.
ENGINE : What supplies power to the FADEC? 28VDC for the system and to start the engine. Once the engine is running, the FADEC takes its primary power from either the engine driven PMA or the 28VDC airframe power, whichever provides more power
ENGINE : What are some of the functions of the FADEC? During START, N2 to 72% to protect the gear box from damage. No exceedance on hot, hung or no start. Controls ATR. WHSAIS info to AMS controller. Fuelflow during startingControls igniters. N1 tothe (TLA), compensates for ambient and pressures,bleed
ENGINE : During start, when are both igniters automatically energized? The FADEC energizes one igniter for ground engine starting when TT0 is above 0°C and both igniters when TT0 is below 0°C or for in-flight engine starting.
ENGINE : How does the FADEC assist an In-Flight Start? FADEC automatically actuates both igniters during starting and disables the abort starting logic. In this case, the decision on whether to abort an unsuccessful start is at the pilot’s discretion.
ENGINE : How does the FADEC assist for an Auto Relight? The FADEC continuously monitors the engine parameters and automatically turns on both igniters and schedules the relight fuel flow in case an engine flameout is detected, assuming the ENG START/STOP knob is out of the STOP position.
ENGINE : How is dry motoring performed? By setting the ENG IGNITION switch to OFF, while the engine is in shutdown state, and by setting the ENG START/STOP knob to START
ENGINE : What is the purpose of the Permanent Magnetic Alternator, (PMA)? The PMA is the primary source of AC power to Fadecs Below this speed, the primary source of AC power to the FADEC is the airframe 28VDC power, which is used during engine starting and as a backup source for the PMA.
ENGINE : What is the purpose of the ATR? Answer 1 The ATR, controlled by the FADEC, automatically provides maximum engine thrust (TO RSV or GA RSV) whenever it is armed, thrust levers are at least at the TO/GA position, and one of following conditions occurs: Difference N1 values is 20%
ENGINE : What is the purpose of the ATR? Answer 2 The TO RSV thrust is also provided whenever both engines are operating and both thrust levers are positioned to MAX, if the ATR is armed. The ATR status (ON/OFF) may be selected via MFD bezel on the Takeoff Data Set Menu.
ENGINE : What is the purpose of the ATR? Answer 3 When ATR FADEC will send a to close the ECS flow control no bleed to the airplane air conditioning system will be extracted from the engine. The ECS OFF if one bleed fails during takeoff or go-around with whsai anti-ice ON.
ENGINE : What will happen if the START/STOP knob is moved to STOP and the TLA is not at idle? The FADEC will disregard the STOP selection and not shut down the engine.
ENGINE : Under normal operating conditions what color are the engine instruments pointers and digits? Normal conditions eng instruments are Green
ENGINE : What does an “E1/2 OIL IMP BYP” CAS message indicate? There is an impending blockage of an oil filter.
Electrical: How many batteries power the Phenom 300? Two Batteries on Phenom 300
What type of batteries are they? Lead acid
Electrical: Where are the Batteries located? Battery #1 in the nose; #2 behind rt. wing root.
How many volts and amps for each Battery.? Battery 24VDC; 34 Ah, 36 Ah, or 42 Ah (after serial #15).
Which battery provides electrical power for engine starting? #2 battery (if 42 Ah, 2 extra starts are available)
What is the minimum voltage for starting? __ volts Charging ___ volts? 24 Volts ; 27 Volts
How many generators? Two Volts? __ VDC Amps? ___ amps 28 VDC ; 400 amps
What are the generator loads? Ground=___ In-Flight=____ Ground=330A; In-Flight=390A
What is the minimum battery temperature for normal operation? -10C (14F)
What function in the electrical system allows the engine to start without causing surges in the Avionics? Quiet start contactor
If a single generator fails in-flight, what happens? Both SHED BUSES lose power.
What does it mean if the GPU is plugged in, but there is no GPU AVAIL light illuminated on the button? DC power requirement from the GPU of between 26V and 29V is not being met.
What are we looking for when we push in the Electrical Emergency Button on the before taxi checklist? That the batteries show at least 23.5 volts. The generators continue to power the DC busses in this scenario, but certain other relays open in order to confirm battery voltage)
If the GPU is powering the airplane, when do the generators come on line? When the GPU is disconnected (from the Central Bus) which can be confirmed on the electrical synoptic page.
If the GPU is connected and the Electrical Emergency Button is pushed in, what happens? the electrical system is forced into electrical emergency, connecting the batteries directly to the emergency busses The Batteries 1 and 2 will supply power to the HOT BATT BUSES, EMERGENCY BUS and the CENTRAL BUS.
If a Dual Generator failure occurs in flight, what remains powered? The aircraft wiring logic will automatically configure the electrical emergency scenario. The Batteries 1 and 2 will supply power to the HOT BATT BUSES, EMERGENCY BUS and the CENTRAL BUS providing engine starting.
For approximately how long will batteries last in emergency mode 45 minutes max
If while in flight, the CAS message ELEC XFR FAIL appears, what is the memory item and why is this procedure necessary? ELEC EMER BUTTON…………PUSH IN the automatic transfer logic has failed to so to override the automatic transfer failure and enable the load shedding process by forcing the system into the electrical emergency condition.
What is normally powered by Starter Generator 1? DC BUS 1, SHED BUS 1, EMERGENCY BUS and HOT BATT BUS 1.
What is normally powered by Starter Generator 2? DC BUS 2, SHED BUS 2, CENTRAL BUS, HOT BATT BUS 2.
FUEL SYSTEM Where is the fuel stored? Two integral wing tanks.
Fuel: How many pumps are found in each tank and what are they called? Three; one ejector pump, one scavenge ejector pump, one electric fuel boost pump.
What is normally used to supply fuel from the wing to the engine fuel control unit in flight? Ejector pumps.
How is the primary fuel ejector pump powered? Motive flow from the respective engine.
What is the primary purpose of the scavenge jet pump? Maintains the fuel level in the collector tank ensuring a constant flow of fuel to the engine during normal flight.
When is the electric fuel pump activated if in the auto position? Engine start, crossfeed operation, if primary ejector pump fails.
What ensures that the differential pressure between the tank and ambient remains within structural limits and prevents fuel spillage? A vent system including a NACA air inlet/outlet.
How is crossfeeding performed? Select the XFEED switch to the wing tank with the Lowest (LO 1 or LO 2). This opens the XFEED valve and turns on the electric DC pump in the wing tank with the highest level of fuel. Both engines will utilize fuel from that tank.
What is the restriction on crossfeed operation? Shall not be performed during takeoff and landing.
When fuel becomes balanced and the XFEED valve is still open, what CAS message will be annunciated? “FUEL EQUAL”.
Will the total tank quantity indication be lost if only one wing tank quantity indicator fails? Yes the total tank qty indication will be lost If one tank indicator fails
The fuel shutoff valves are normally open. What is the only way to close one of these valves? By pushing the fire shutoff pushbutton.
What would cause a “FUEL LO LEVEL” CAS message? 310 lbs (140.6 Kgs )of fuel remaining in the respective tank.
What would cause a “FUEL IMBALANCE” CAS message? 220 lbs (100 kgs) imbalance.
Is there de-fueling capability? Yes, by means of a dump valve located under each wing.
While fueling, what monitors the fuel quantity in the tanks and controls refueling flow into each tank? EFCU, Electronic Fuel Control Unit.
How long is maximum refueling time from empty to full? Less than 12 min, at 50 psig.
Explain one of two critical tests that should be accomplished on the control panel before re-fueling begins? Lamp Test – When the LAMP TEST switch is held up, the LH TANK and RH TANK indicator lights stay on or come on according to the status of these lights, the FAIL indicator light turns on and the digits light up. Shut-Off Test
Explain another one of the two critical tests that should be accomplished on the control panel before re-fueling begins? Shut-Off Test – When the SHUT-OFF TEST switch is held up during pressure refueling operation, the LH TANK and RH TANK indicator lights must come on, indicating that the shut-off valve closes, and the FAIL indicator light must be off.
What action is necessary to accomplish on the refueling panel if external power is not being utilized? The POWER SWITCH must be selected to BATT.
What systems require hydraulic pressure? Landing Gear, Wheel Brakes, Pusher, Rudder Boost, Spoiler/Speed Brakes. LBPRSS
What provides variable flow and pressure to the system? And at what rate? Two engine-driven hydraulic pumps at 3000psi (located on the accessory gear box of each engine).
In case of a hydraulic pump malfunction, what prevents rotation without interfering with the continued operation of the engine? The hydraulic pump connecting shaft to the AGB has a recess designed to work as shaft shear point if the torque imposed by the hydraulic pump to the AGB exceeds limits.
What is the function of the Priority Valve? It guarantees hydraulic power to the spoilers, stick pusher, rudder spring actuator or brakes by restricting the flow to the landing gear, if being used simultaneously.
What encases the hydraulic fluid? A (spring-biased bootstrap diaphragm type) reservoir. (50psi reservoir pressure, 3000psi system pressure)
How much can the reservoir hold? Maximum 1.3 gals.
What provides contamination protection for the system? Two disposable filter elements located on the lower portion of the manifold (one for low pressure return and one for the high pressure line; the filter can capture any particle greater than 5 microns).
What would happen if the filter fails or is blocked by too much contamination? A bypass valve will open to allow continued flow though the hydraulic system.
What is available to indicate that the filters need to be replaced? The filters have red “pop-up” differential pressure indicators to provide a visual indication when the filters need to be replaced.
How are the Fire Shutoff Valves closed? Manually by the engine fire extinguisher shutoff buttons, automatically in case of hydraulic system high temperature, or through the shutoff switches on the hydraulic panel.
What does a “HYD HI TEMP” CAS message indicate? The hydraulic fluid temp has risen (to above 235+/- 7F) and both FSOV automatically close.
What does a “HYD LO PRES” CAS message indicate? The system is not capable of providing flow at rated pressure.
What does a “HYD SOV ½ FAIL” CAS message indicate? A Fire Shut Off Valve (FSOV) was commanded to close and did not close. (or a FSOV position does not agree with its switch position).
The landing gear is ______________ actuated and ______________ operated. The landing gear is electrically actuated and hydraulically operated.
Where is the landing gear emergency handle located? Under the cockpit floor between the pilot seats.
What holds the landing gear in the up position? An uplock box on each gear.
Explain the Emergency Extension process. pull free-fall selector valve to release left over hydraulic pressure from the gear lines to the , releases the landing gear uplocks. Gravity extends the landing gear The downlock mechanism then locks the gear in its extended position.
When the flap lever is set to either 0, 1, or 2 position, when would the landing gear aural warning sound? Diff between press Alt and LFE <700’, or RA <700’ ,and Airsp < 160kts; and *either thrust lever < 40 degrees for two engines; and *Thrust lever of operative engine is set below 40 degrees for a one-engine inoperative condition.
When would the landing gear aural warning sound at flap lever 3 position or FULL? Regardless of thrust lever position, airspeed and altitude, the landing gear aural warning cannot be silenced by pushing the WRN INHIB button.
When would the landing gear aural warning sound if flaps failed? The landing gear aural warning will sound when the difference between pressure altitude and LFE is less than 700’ while descending.
What is the primary input to the Air/Ground System? Weight-on-Wheels (WOW)
Name some of the aircraft systems that utilize the WOW signals: Brake Control System,Landing Gear Control Lever,FADEC, Electrical System Lights (Baggage Compartment) Air Conditioning and Pressurization Fuel Indication,Flaps and Spoilers, Avionics (Data Concentrator Unit and GEA (Garmin Engine/Airframe unit) 3).
What is the maximum turning radius? Rudder pedals give up to 20 degrees of steering authority with another 23 degrees thru differential braking and thrust.
What would a “LG WOW SYS FAIL” CAS message indicate? There is disagreement between the signals from right and left WOW sensors for more than 3 seconds.
The brake system includes what functions: 1) Locked Wheel Protection, 2) Anti-Skid Protection, 3) Touchdown Protection, 4) Gear Retract Braking, 5) Initiated Built In Test (IBIT)
What is Locked Wheel Protection prevents the main landing gear tire from bursting. where the wheel speed is 30% or > of the other wheel reference speed, The pressure dump is cancelled when the wheel speed or the “locked wheel” attains 70%
Anti-Skid Protection prevents tire skidding maximizes brake efficiency controls the amount of hydr to brakes, provides antiskid protection when both wheel speed reference speeds >30kts. <10kts, anti-skid is deactivated, allowing the pilot to pivot on a wheel)
Gear Retract Braking – provides a brake pressure application during gear retraction to stop the rotating wheels before entering the wheel well. Gear Retract Braking – provides a brake pressure application during gear retraction to stop the rotating wheels before entering the wheel well.
What is Initiated Built In Test (IBIT) – Initiated Built In Test (IBIT) – it exercises the pressure loop components throughout their full range in order to ensure correct operation of the SOV, BCV, and PT.
What happens if the wheel speed input fails? Anti-Skid is not available.
What would a “BRK FAIL” CAS message indicate during an approach? Only the emergency/parking brake will be available for stopping. (Actuating the T-Handle in the cockpit ports brake accumulator pressure to each brake assembly proportional to the amount the handle is pulled).
Is Anti-Skid available for the emergency/parking brake? No
How many applications does the emergency/parking brake provide? Six
What are the primary flight controls? Aileron, elevator, and rudder.
What do each of the Flight Control Electrical (FCE) systems control? FCE 1 controls Pitch Trim Backup and Flaps FCE 2 controls Normal Pitch Trim and Spoilers
What are the flap position degrees and airspeed limitations? Flap 1 is 8 degrees, 180 kts Flap 2 and 3 are each 26 degrees, 170 kts
What are the (3) functions of the spoilers? Roll Spoiler –flaps at any position otherthan 0, and the control wheel isrotated >30 *left orright, the spoiler therespective side deploys, providing incr roll authority. Ground Spoilerincreases drag and dump lift on landing and rejected takeoff
What conditions must be met for ground spoilers to deploy? 1) aircraft on the ground 2) thrust levers idle 3) ground spoilers armed (Ground spoilers deploy to 35 degrees at approximately 1.2 seconds)
Will the speed brakes function in conjunction with flaps? No. The spoilers will not extend if flaps are beyond 0 degrees. If open, they will retract if flaps are commanded to extend.
What prevents the spoilers from opening further than their original position in the event of loss of hydraulic fluid? A Hold-Down Lock Valve (HDLV). Its purpose is to trap hydraulic fluid in the retract chamber of the PCU in the event of hydraulic fluid loss. It shuttles to the by-pass position allowing the check valve to close and block fluid from exi
If extended, at what airspeed will the speed brakes retract? 110kts
Will the speed brakes retract if the power is advanced? Yes. If the speed brakes are deployed, or open, and you advance the power, they automatically retract. A CAS message confirms speed brake retraction. Placing the speed brake switch to up extinguishes the CAS message.
Describe the flaps. Four-position, four-panel trailing edge Fowler Flaps mechanically actuated by jackscrews, which are powered by a DC electric motor. The Flight Control Electronics (EFC) operates one Power Drive Unit (PDU) which drives 6 flexible shafts,
Created by: denisesemedo
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