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1S051 CDC URE's
AF Occupational Safety 1S051 CDC URE's Volumes 1-5
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The National Security Act of 1947 created the Department of Defense and the _____ . | National Safety Council |
| What four pillars does the Air Force Safety Management System use? | Policy and Leadership; RM; Assurance; Promotion and Education |
| What safety disciplines are covered by the Air Force Safety Management System? | Aviation, occupational, weapons, systems, and space safety |
| What process of RM is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during execution of a planned operation? | Real-time |
| How many steps are in the RM process? | 5 |
| What safety assurance measure's goal is to improve the wing's safety program by decreasing frequency and/or severity of mishaps? | Leadership review |
| What is not an element of an Informed Culture? | Focused culture |
| To ensure AF personnel comply with directive publications, what statement is provided in the publication? | COMPLIANCE WITH THIS PUBLICATION IS MANDATORY |
| What non-directive publication is informational and recommends procedures or suggests how to implement AF guidance? | Pamphlets |
| What is an example of a horizontal standard? | General Industry |
| What organization develops national consensus standards designed to eliminate death, injury, property, and economic loss due to fire, electrical, and related hazards? | National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) |
| What organization oversees the creation, promulgation and use of thousands of norms and guidelines that directly impact businesses in nearly every sector? | American National Standards Institute (ANSI) |
| What is a level of command that does not typically include a (COS)? | Squadron |
| Within how many days of assignment as COS must active duty members complete the COS Course? | 90 |
| The maximum number of days the COS may extend out follow-up of hazards or deficiencies is? | 90 |
| Newly assigned OSM conduct a safety program self-assessment within 90 days of taking a position to _____ . | determine the status of the safety program and organization's safety culture. |
| OSMs update the AEF ART with the current deployment status of all _____ . | assigned military personnel |
| What are safety personnel responsible for coordinating on or updating to approve use of new hazards materials? | Authorized Users List |
| What course do occupational safety personnel deliver that teaches how to identify hazards and manage risk? | SST |
| To limit attractiveness to wildlife, the grass in aircraft movement areas must not be more than _____ . | 14 inches |
| What is not one of the four weapons safety program functions? | Systems safety |
| Who is the OPR for explosives site plans? | Safety office |
| Who approves local written procedures as the authorization for operations involving licensed explosives? | Unit or squadron commander |
| Who does the WSM assist in determining the explosives clear zones required on appropriate base maps? | Civil engineer |
| What action is a written authorization that allows a specific departure from a mandatory requirement for other than quantity-distance (QD) criteria? | Deviation |
| The timeframe for air Reserve Component (ARC) primary and alternate USR to complete initial training is within how many unit training assemblies of appointment? | 2 |
| The JSTO consists of how many mandatory items? | 14 |
| Who must be notified when a civilian is involved in a mishap? | Civilian Personnel Office |
| What is a RM tool for supervisors and personnel to use when planning travel? | Travel Risk Planning System (TRiPS) |
| Who approves all safety manpower requests or changes before they are submitted to the local management engineering team? | MAJCOM Safety |
| What section of the AF Manpower Standard 106A describes a wing safety office's duties during normal peacetime operations? | Process oriented description |
| What is not an authorized civilian safety specialty code? | GS-0018, Occupational Safety Apprentice |
| What is a financial blueprint for a specific period of time called? | financial plan |
| What step in the budget process consists of validating training that is required to meet mission demands? | Conducting training needs assessment |
| What form documents the support a supplier provides a receiver, and the reimbursement the receiver pays for that support? | DD Form 1144, Support Agreement |
| Ultimately, the support agreement is a negotiated contract based on the _____ . | receiver's needs and the supplier's ability to meet those needs. |
| A supplier may not end or reduce support without giving the receiver written notice within _____ . | 180 calendar days. |
| What safety discipline is responsible for developing the mishap response plan? | All safety disciplines |
| What is not an installation level council? | Occupational Safety Corporate Committee (OSCC) |
| Who chairs the Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health Council(ESOHC)? | Wing commander or commander's designee |
| What organization is chartered by the Secretary of Labor and authorized under federal regulation? | Field Federal Safety and Health Council (FFSHC) |
| Who regulates the movement of traffic and personnel on an AF installation? | Installation Commander |
| What document describes the safest and most efficient way to use primary and secondary roads on an installation? | Base traffic circulation plan |
| When would a traffic engineering study be useful? | When a hazard report identifies an intersection with a high number of accidents. |
| Who may authorize the routine use of GVOs in traffic, industrial, or pedestrian environments? | Installation Commander |
| To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, who establishes and enforces duty-hour limits for operators of government-owned motor vehicles? | Unit Commander |
| What is not an exception allowing motor vehicles operators to use hand-held electronic devices? | When the vehicle is pulled on the roadway. |
| Who evaluates and determines the need for a cellular phone free school zone? | TSCG |
| Bicycles will be equipped with _____ . | front-facing, pedal, side, and a rear-facing reflector. |
| Traffic safety training is required for _____ . | military personnel under the age of 26. |
| In order to train and qualify vehicle operators, units that own government motor vehicles are required to develop _____ . | a plan of instruction. |
| What course is a 1 hour driver rehabilitation course intended to educate personnel on safe driving? | Driver Improvement and Rehabilitation Course |
| Operators of what type of vehicles do not require motorcycle safety training? | Three-wheeled motorcycles |
| What motorcycle training should be provided within 60 days of request and completed no more than 1 year after completion of initial training? | Intermediate course |
| Military personnel must complete refresher motorcycle training every _____ . | 5 years |
| AFIS inspections are conducted on behalf of whom? | Secretary of the AF, Chief of Staff of the AF, and Commanders at all levels |
| What is not an AFIS inspection? | Compliance Unit |
| The four MGAs assessed by the AFIS does not include _____ . | executing the vision. |
| A safety evaluation is completed in conjunction with _____ . | a UEI. |
| The Headquarters AFSEC will conduct safety evaluations of MAJCOM Headquarters staffs at intervals not to exceed _____ months. | 36. |
| At a minimum, program assessments at wing level and below are conducted every how many months? | 24 |
| The safety assessment for GSUs is conducted at intervals not to exceed _____ . | 3 years. |
| What is not an assessment rating used under the AFSMS? | Was either met and somewhat effective |
| The purpose of out briefing after an inspection is to discuss _____ . | your findings and recommendations. |
| The formal written inspection report must be sent to the squadron or unit commander within how many days after the inspection is complete? | 15 |
| In addition to the unit commander, send a copy of a tenant unit's annual inspection report to the _____ . | unit's parent Safety office. |
| Action taken to make certain that reported discrepancies have been or are being corrected is called _____ . | follow-up action. |
| What two activities help ensure that the hazards are mitigated for all findings identified during the annual inspection? | Spot inspections and unit follow-up reporting |
| What must OSHA representatives present before conducting an inspection of a workplace on an AF installation? | Identifying credentials |
| If required, provide photographic or video support; however, videos or photographs taken on installations fall under the exclusive control of the _____ . | Installation Commander. |
| Although units are cited individually, OSHA may classify a similar finding at another installation as a _____ . | Repeat citation |
| Who has the primary responsibility for identifying workplace hazards that place workers at risk? | Individual |
| Who evaluates a hazard report to determine if it is a valid hazard? | COS |
| The OPR for a hazard report must return the report to the Safety office with action annotated within how many workdays? | 10 |
| Who monitors the hazard report until the hazard is eliminated? | Safety professionals |
| What is the highest review level in the appeal process for hazard reports that originate from installations in foreign countries? | Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Environmental Security |
| A procedure used by supervisors and employees to assess the hazards associated with a work procedure and determine the safest and most efficient means of doing a given task best defines _____ . | JSA. |
| What hazard abatement measure recommends using protective equipment as a last resort? | Procedural actions |
| Who determines hazard abatement control measures? | Functional manager or supervisor with technical assistance from safety, fire, and health officials |
| Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program are called _____ . | interim control measures. |
| If you encounter an imminent danger situation, who should you immediately notify? | A responsible supervisor |
| Your hazard abatement recommendations should be _____. | appropriate and feasible. |
| What forms may be used to post notices of hazards in a workplace? | AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard |
| What RACs are required to be included on the AF Form 3, Hazard Abatement Plan? | Only RAC 1,2 and 3 |
| What are two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard? | Severity and probability |
| An assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap is called _____ . | Probability |
| How many RAC descriptions are used in the RAC matrix process? | 5 |
| The APN is a code consisting of the RAC and the _____ . | CEI |
| Who has the authority over a contract? | Contracting officer |
| What agency or office performs the pre-award survey? | Defense Contract Management Agency |
| Who is responsible for reminding the contractor of the contractual obligation to comply with all pertinent regulations? | Contracting officer |
| Mishaps are investigated to _____ . | prevent future mishaps. |
| Safety investigations and legal investigations are conducted separately to _____ . | protect privileged safety information in the report. |
| A SIO normally investigates what types of mishaps? | Class C, D and E. |
| When a board is appointed to investigate a Class A on-duty mishap, the president must be at least a _____ . | colonel or GS-15. |
| When a mishap occurs involving an individual in PCS status, the mishap is accountable to the _____ . | losing command until the individual signs in at the next duty station. |
| Information exempt from release outside the AF community by statute or case law is known as _____ . | privileged. |
| When mishap reports are no longer needed, dispose of them IAW AF _____ . | Records and Distribution Schedule. |
| What agency can approve the release of privileged information outside the AF? | HQ USAF/SE |
| Hiding the relationship between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations is called _____ . | sanitizing the report. |
| A promise of confidentiality is authorized for what mishaps? | Spaces |
| Promises of confidentiality are not allowed for what mishaps? | Afloat, motor vehicle, and ground and industrial |
| What system is used to transmit the majority of mishap reports? | AFSAS |
| The AF classifies mishaps by the _____ . | direct total dollar cost of damage and degree of injury/illness. |
| A mishap that involves intent for flight and no reportable damage to the DOD aircraft, but involves a fatality, reportable injury, or reportable property damage is categorized as what aviation mishap? | Aircraft Flight-Related |
| Mishaps involving injuries that occur during participation in some form of duty-related athletic or recreational sport activity is categorized as _____ . | ground and industrial--sports and recreation |
| Who must notify the Wing Safety Office of mishaps asap? | Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors |
| The most practical way of establishing an initial mishap notification system is by _____ . | written directive. |
| Many employers are required to keep a record of serious work-related injuries and illnesses when they have more than how many employees? | 10 |
| Who is responsible for reviewing and digitally signing the annual OSHA Form 300 Log? | Installation Commander |
| The OSHA Form 300A must be posted in a conspicuous place and remain in place until when? | 30 April |
| If witnesses provide statements (written or verbal), it must be recorded on what document? | Non-privileged Witness Statement |
| If a safety investigator believes AF personnel questioned in the investigation may be guilty of criminal misconduct, the safety investigator immediately stops the investigation and notifies who? | The CA |
| What is not an essential element of a mishap investigation? | Opinions |
| What are mishap findings not based on? | First impressions |
| A deficiency which if corrected, eliminated, or avoided, would likely have prevented or mitigated the mishap damage or significant injuries is called a _____ . | cause. |
| Mishap report recommendations should be both _____. | feasible and effective. |
| Despite the high up-front costs, what is the most preferable solution to eliminate a hazard? | Design fixes |
| Who normally has greater expertise and should be given the opportunity to develop the optimal solution for a problem? | Action agency |
| A thorough mishap investigation is absolutely necessary not only to determine the events causal to a mishap but also to _____ . | recommend corrective actions to prevent recurrence. |
| What agency prepares the Memorandum of Final Evaluation for on-duty Class A and B formal ground mishap reports? | AFSEC |
| Using statistical charts and graphs in the analysis process is helpful in determining _____ . | mishap areas that should be analyzed further. |
| What investigation tool provides a multidimensional approach to error analysis? | Human factors |
| The cross-feed of human error date using a common human error categorization system that involves human factors taxonomy describes what system? | Human Factors Analysis and Classification |
| Fatigue, complacency, illness, and the physical/technological environment and their effect on individual performance can be described as _____ . | latent failures. |
| A minimum of how many inches must be provided for passageways formed by or between movable obstructions? | 18 |
| In order to prevent a mishap, what item is approved to reach areas above shoulder level? | Step stool |
| Lateral epicondylitis, or tennis elbow, is caused by _____ . | activities that have jerky throwing motions. |
| What elements must be present I order for a fire to start? | Fuel, heat, oxygen, and chemical reaction |
| If during an annual inspection of the CDC you identify and document several fire deficiencies, what should be your next course of action? | Report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action |
| Who must approve the use of portable space heaters? | Base CE |
| What minimum distance must be maintained between a heat-producing appliance and combustibles? | 36 inches |
| What class of fires is extinguished by cutting off oxygen supply? | B |
| How should a grease fire be classified? | Class B |
| What class of fires occurs in combustible metals? | D |
| During an inspection, if you believe that the facility does not have and adequate number of fire extinguishers, you should _____ . | refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel. |
| What action should be taken if a door could be mistaken for an exit? | Post a "NOT AN EXIT" sign |
| When measured at all points of the floor, emergency lighting will illuminate how many foot candles? | 1 |
| When will the emergency action plan need to be reviewed by all employees? | When the plan is changed |
| What is not required in a fire prevention plan? | List of assigned personnel for accountability after evacuation |
| When will the fire prevention plan be reviewed by an employee? | Initial assignment and when updated |
| What action should be taken if a door could be mistaken for an exit? | Post a "NOT AN EXIT" sign |
| When measured at all points of the floor, emergency lighting will illuminate how many foot candles? | 1 |
| When will the emergency action plan need to be reviewed by all employees? | When the plan is changed |
| What is not required in a fire prevention plan? | List of assigned personnel for accountability after evacuation |
| When will the fire prevention plan be reviewed by an employee? | Initial assignment and when updated |
| What is an improper way to store pliers, screwdrivers or wrenches? | Pant or coat pockets |
| When grinding chisels, why should they not be pressed hard against the grinding surface? | The heat produced may draw the temper from the steel |
| What types of plier are for use with heavy wiring? | Side-cutting pliers |
| What is the chief hazard associated with electrically powered tools? | Electrical shock |
| What is the easiest way to protect the operator of an electrically powered hand tool? | Grounding |
| Why should standard electrical hand tools never be used in a flammable atmosphere? | Arc at the brushes |
| On an electric drill, the chuck _____ . | must be securely anchored against the shank of the drill bit. |
| A twist drill bit with four flutes should only be used to _____ . | enlarge cored holes. |
| When using a portable sander, what should be done to protect the motor from overheating? | Apply only light pressure |
| All operators of small air-driven impact tools (air hammers) must _____ . | avoid squeezing the trigger until the tip is on the work surface. |
| To prevent mishaps involving machinery, the best action, which should be pursued first, is to _____ . | engineer hazards out. |
| What is not a purpose of machine guards? | To keep material from being thrown into the machine |
| In-running nip points are a specific danger of what type of motion? | Rotating |
| What hazard is commonly associated with a transverse motion? | The worker may be struck or caught in a pinch by the moving part |
| What guard will not allow a machine to start until the guard is in its proper place? | Interlock |
| If a machine guard opens when stock is moved into the danger area and returns to a rest position when the stock is removed, that guard is _____ . | self-adjusting |
| What safety device resembles an interlocked machine guard? | Gate |
| The flow of electricity may be compared to _____ . | water running through a pipe. |
| What unit of measurement is used to measure electrical current? | Amperes |
| How is electrical current measured when you want to describe its effect on the human body? | Milliamperes |
| Resistance is any condition that _____ . | opposes or restricts the flow of electricity. |
| According to the federal regulation 29 CFR 1910, Occupational Safety and Health Standards, voltage is considered to be high at _____ . | 600 volts. |
| What safety principle applies when working on equipment containing capacitors? | Capacitors must be discharged before checks or work is started |
| How much current causes a normally harmless shock to be felt? | 1 milliampere |
| Grounding is used to control _____ . | both dynamic and static electrical charges. |
| An example of a system ground is a _____ . | return wire attached to a ground in the earth. |
| Grounding is effective when _____ . | there are no breaks in the grounding path. |
| It is hard to maintain an effective ground for portable electric equipment because _____ . | the equipment moves a lot. |
| When personnel make repairs to high voltage equipment, it is not a requirement of a safety observer to _____ . | be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures. |
| When electrical parts are exposed, the workspace clearance must have a radius of at least _____ . | three feet |
| Electrical resistance gloves that are in active use must be dielectric tested every _____ . | 6 months |
| What system is a means to isolate hazardous energy and prevent the unexpected start-up of machines and equipment? | Lockout/tagout |
| What must be locked out before the start of inspections, maintenance, or servicing operations? | Energy sources |
| What tag will only be used where an immediate hazard (RAC 1 through 3) exists? | AF Form 979 |
| Who must be contacted before application of LOTO devices? | Personnel in the area |
| When is LOTO not required? | When the power cord is under continuous control of the worker |
| Prior to starting work on the electrical system, who must verify if it has been deenergized or isolated? | The supervisor or designated representative |
| When there are no changes in procedures, processes, or systems associated with the LOTO program, retraining must take place at least every _____ . | 12 months |
| How often must the safety staff evaluate a LOTO program to ensure the requirements of the program are being followed? | Annually |
| When reviewing the unit's semi-annual LOTO self-assessment, who should be identified on the document as conducting the assessment? | An authorized worker or supervisor |
| When conducting a review of the unit's LOTO self-assessment, what would you find on the document? | Identification of equipment and machinery |
| How high will a top rail be mounted to guard a stairwell? | 36 to 44 inches |
| What is the primary concern when operating an aerial device or elevating platform? | Maintaining clearances from hazards |
| What will the occupants wear if guard rails are removed when using self-propelled mobile work platforms above four feet? | Full-body harness |
| Toeboards placed on scaffolds must be at least _____ . | four inches high |
| On a tube and coupler scaffold, runners must be _____ . | interlocked and coupled to each post. |
| A portable or extension ladder used at a building must be placed with the foot of the ladder approx. how far from the building? | One-fourth of the ladder's length |
| How far above a platform or landing must a portable ladder extend? | Three feet |
| Portable ladders must be strong enough to support at least _____ . | 200 pounds |
| Stairs are designed to carry a load five times the normal live load anticipated but no less than how many pounds of moving concentrated load? | 1,000 pounds |
| The angle of rise for fixed industrial stairs will be installed at what angle? | Between 30 to 50 degrees |
| Fall protection must be used during construction operations at a height of at least _____ . | 6 feet |
| What type of fall protection requires a worker to wear a harness an attach themselves to an anchor or lifeline? | Active |
| from the time placed in service, how long is the lifespan of PFAS equipment harnesses made of synthetic fiber? | 5 years |
| The lifeline on a safety harness should permit a person to fall a maximum of _____ . | 6 feet |
| The sides of excavations in loose dirt must be braced and shored of the excavations are more than _____ . | 4 feet deep |
| What is a method used to protect workers exposed to excavations and trenches over five feet in depth and at risk to a cave-in? | Sloping and benching |
| In an excavation, trench sides must have additional shoring or bracing if they are undercut more than _____ . | 6 inches |
| When ladders are required in trenches, they should be placed so that workers must travel no more than how many feet in any direction to reach an exit? | 25 |
| Who is responsible to ensure all personnel involved with permit-required confined space program tasks at properly trained and equipped? | Unit Commander |
| What is one of the responsibilities of the installation occupational safety office with confined spaces? | Take the lead of the confined space program team |
| What is one of the responsibilities of the bioenvironmental engineering flight with confined spaces? | Provide training on calibration of monitoring equipment |
| What agency is required to provide a confined space train-the trainer program for entry supervisors? | CSPT |
| What is one of the responsibilities of the unit commander with confined spaces? | Identify confined spaces |
| Prior to classifying a confined space what is the unit required to do with assistance form the CSPT? | Test and evaluate each confined space |
| What is not a potential hazard to be identified prior to classifying a confined space? | Configuration that provides ease of access and is free of obstructions |
| What is not one of the three criteria of a confined space? | Has poor lighting |
| What is a hazard with a confined space with an internal configuration with inwardly converging walls or a floor which slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross section? | Entrant may become trapped |
| At what intervals does the testing, measurement, diagnostic and evaluation lab perform the calibration of atmospheric monitoring equipment for confined spaces? | Per manufacturer's instructions |
| What activity were over half of the victims of fatal confined space mishaps doing according to the conclusions of an OSHA accident review? | Attempting to rescue the entrant |
| What is the preferred plan for rescue when a serious hazard is identified? | Self-rescue |
| Under what conditions is the organizational rescue team required to be on-scene for permit-required confined space? | IDLH |
| What individual must meet the appropriate training requirements? | Entry supervisor |
| What is not an entrant training requirement? | Revoke the entry permit when becoming aware of an unexpected condition |
| Why do entrants need to be knowledgeable of the type of substance known or expected in the confined space? | To recognize symptoms and effects of exposure |
| What is not a training requirement of the confined space attendant? | Summon help and promptly enter to retrieve the victim |
| Prior to entry into the permit required confined space, how will atmospheric monitoring be conducted to the interior of the space? | Drop tests or sample probes |
| If a hazardous atmosphere is identified in a confined space, what action may be takin in attempt to clear the hazard? | Forced air ventilation |
| With IDLH confined space, what can be done to reduce the hazard to a lower classification? | Isolation and ventilation |
| What documentation must be accomplished before workers enter a permit-required confined space? | An entry permit |
| When would an entry permit not be required to be approved by ground safety, bio, and fire prior to entry into a confined space? | Identified on the master entry plan |
| What type of confined spaces has an atmosphere that is not hazardous nor is expected to become hazardous? | Non-permit |
| What is not a description of a non-permit confined space? | Welding operations are permitted |
| Who has the sole responsibility for compliance with Occupational Safety and Health Agency requirements for confined space entry on an installation by an outside organization? | Contractor |
| When you control job hazards by reducing or removing the hazard at the source or isolating the worker form the hazards this describes _____ . | engineering controls. |
| What agency reviews new processes or operations at the earliest feasible stage to prevent or control potential occupational and environmental health hazards to the environment and workers? | Bio |
| How do you identify a specific chemical's health hazard on a container that's used in your work area? | Words, symbols, or pictures on the label |
| The product with specific regulatory guidance that would be included in a HAZCOM training program for newly assigned workers is _____ . | benzene. |
| In the process of color coding safety related items, the criteria listed in OSHA Standard 29 CFR, 1910.144, identifies the color red to mean _____ . | stop. |
| What color is designated for piping with material that is inherently hazardous? | Yellow |
| An objective of the AF HMMP is to _____ . | comply with applicable HAZMAT regulations. |
| What base agency leads the HMMP team? | CE |
| What role does HAZMART play in the IHMP? | Issues government-owned HAZMAT |
| What is the standardized resource provided for you to track HAZMAT purchases? | EESOH-MIS |
| What base agency is not included as part of the PSMP team? | Aerospace Medicine |
| At least every 12 months, the PSMP team reports their inspections discrepancies to the _____ . | ESOH council |
| What base agency conducts the assessment to determine if a chemical that is identified by a user is hazardous and should be included in process safety management? | PSMP team |
| An aboveground fuel storage tank should be located at least how many feet away from a building? | 50 |
| The type of fuel storage tank wit an internal secondary containment structure and can be located next to buildings is called _____ . | vaulted (self-diking). |
| What type of fuel storage tanks are used to store gasoline at base service stations? | Underground |
| What factor is not considered when determining the size of a secondary containment barrier built around a fuel storage facility? | Location of the storage tank |
| Where security fences are not provided, how many feet from the diked areas of underground fuel storage tanks must danger signs be posted? | 50 |
| During a fuel operation how many minutes must a worker wait after receiving fuel to manually gauge or measure a fuel tank? | 30 |
| Who is responsible for the internal inspection of a fuel laboratory? | All assigned personnel |
| During an internal inspection of a fuels laboratory, under dry conditions, electrode resistance to ground should not exceed how many measure of electrical resistances(ohm)? | 25 |
| What action best illustrates the PPE hazard control method of substitution? | Replacing one solvent with a less toxic one |
| Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation illustrates the PPE hazard control method of _____ . | isolation. |
| What characteristic is not true when describing the supplied-air respirator (SAR)? | Can be used in an IDLH atmosphere |
| What type and class of safety helmet is intended to reduce the danger of exposure to low-voltage electrical conductors? | Type II; Class G |
| What type and class of safety helmet reduces the danger of exposure to high voltage electrical conductors? | Type I; Class E |
| Over an eight-hour period, if you were working in a machine shop, your workplace would be designated as a hazardous noise environment when the noise in the shop equals or exceeds how many decibels? | 85 |
| Rubber insulating gloves are maintained in an authorized storage area and they must be dielectric tested every _____ . | 12 months |
| When necessary how many inches must a portable water stream rise from an eyewash unit to both eyes simultaneously to prevent injury? | 6 and 12 |
| To provide workers with the minimum eye protection, self-contained eyewash units must provide a continuous flow of portable water for a minimum of how many minutes? | 15 |
| Emergency showers and eyewash units must be in accessible locations so they can be reached by workers within how many seconds and feet? | 10 seconds and 100 feet |
| How often must the supervisor or worker inspect permanently-installed eyewash units to verify proper operation? | Monthly |
| To reduce the chance of any mishaps and to eliminate hazards, the minimum allowable width for aisles in a storage warehouse layout must be _____ . | 2 feet wider than the widest vehicle used. |
| What is the most widely used and taught method of lifting materials? | Kinetic |
| What lifting technique is a correct principle of manual material handling when using the kinetic lifting method? | Crouch close to the load to pick it up |
| What type of powered truck is designed to transport heavy and bulky items a long distance and is more maneuverable in 6-10 foot warehouse aisles? | Straddle-lift truck |
| What is the maximum speed limit for MHE in a warehouse? | 5 mph |
| What AF Form is used to document periodic inspections of all powered industrial trucks? | AF Form 1800 |
| The most common cause of a sling mishap is _____. | human error. |
| What type of crane has a trolley and is rigidly supported on two or more legs running on fixed rails? | Gantry |
| The minimum clearance requirement that must be maintained laterally between a crane and any obstruction is _____ . | 2 inches. |
| A safety technician spot inspection of a facility is different than a formal inspection of the facility because it _____ . | examines areas at random points in time. |
| What hazard is a common problem associated with vehicles being maintained in an enclosed shop area? | Carbon monoxide gas |
| To ensure safety of equipment and personnel in a vehicle maintenance shop, what device is used when inflating tires? | Tire cage |
| The only practical method to eliminate a physical and health hazard during a vehicle maintenance shop painting operation is by _____ . | substitution. |
| The most appropriate eye protection device for pressurized spray painting in a vehicle maintenance shop is a _____ . | full face shield. |
| What type of PPE is not required when working in a battery shop handling electrolyte? | Chemical non-resistant gloves |
| What type of PPE is required when cleaning batteries or servicing fluid? | Eye protection |
| What is the maximum percentage of allowable lower explosive limit for gas-air mixture in a battery shop? | 25 |
| Cuts, eye injuries, and broken bones are CE general operations hazards and may result from improper use of shop _____ . | tools. |
| The use of propane or gasoline powered equipment produces breathing hazards, created by a substance called _____ . | carbon monoxide. |
| If compressed air is used to clean a surface, the downstream pressure of compressed air must remain below _____ . | 30 psi |
| What explosive gas is commonly found in water treatment plants more frequently than any other hazardous gas? | Hydrogen sulfide |
| When working on electronic equipment such as circuit breakers, at least two qualified technicians or one qualified technician and one safety observer are required to work together when exposed to which energized high voltage? | 600 volts |
| When assigned as a safety observer while working around high voltage, an electronic technician cannot be assigned any other duties unless the person is _____ . | a climbing instructor. |
| Emergency safety equipment that is required to be accessible to electronic technicians working around high voltage areas must include rope that is a 1/2-inch of natural fiber and at least how many feet long? | 15 |
| What safety device must be installed on high voltage equipment to discharge capacitors in case of an automatic discharge failure? | Grounding sticks |
| What is not a minimum PPE requirement for a technician performing a welding job? | Glasses |
| Acetylene must not be used around gas welding equipment at pressures exceeding how many psi? | 15 |
| IAW NFPA spray booth walls must _____ . | be covered in non-protective paper. |
| What agency determines the use of respiratory protection when spray painting? | Bio |
| What is not a safety related component of pressurized equipment used in painting operations? | Relief gauge |
| What base agencies perform a pre- and post-season inspection of the outdoor fields? | Safety, CE, and public health |
| Who is the approval authority for allowing alcohol sales and/or consumption during an on-base event? | Installation Commander |
| What is the minimum ratio of lifeguards to swimmers that must be on duty at the base pool? | 1 to 50 |
| What agency is authorized to approve the base pool opening dependent on recommendations from authorized inspectors? | FSS |
| Water depths must be marked on a pool deck at least every how many feet? | 10 |
| If there were 150 swimmers in the pool at one time, how many on-duty lifeguards would be required? | Three |
| What material is not permitted for use for new or renovated outdoor playgrounds? | Pea gravel |
| What type of safety protection is mandatory when playing racquetball? | Eye protection only |
| In a CDC, children from 6 weeks to 24 months require a minimum of how many usable square feet in the activity room? | 50 |
| As of 1 Jan 2015, what surface material is not permitted on new or renovated child youth program playgrounds? | Pea gravel and loose fill materials |
| Only if a certain container is designed and marked specifically for that purpose, _____ . | you may put smoking materials or cigarette butts in it. |
| What is the first step when inspecting a flight-line fire extinguisher? | Ensure the handle is properly pinned and sealed |
| Who can temporarily approve the use of portable electrical equipment that is not intrinsically safe, in a Class I Division I location? | Fire chief |
| Due to frequent use of maintenance stands and platforms, as well as the need to walk on aircraft wings, _____ . | potential for falls is great. |
| How far above the floor of aircraft hangars must the design of the generator be to allow sparking contacts and other possible ignition sources? | 18 inches |
| When a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside a hangar, what is the minimum distance that must be maintained between the pumping unit and the aircraft? | 25 feet |
| When may a safety guard enter a tank cell in an attempt to rescue someone? | When additional help is present and the safety guard is equipped with the prescribed respiratory equipment |
| Over-the-wing fueling is _____ . | most commonly used method to add fuel in a particular tank. |
| A service cart must be at least how many feet away from a fueling operation? | 75 |
| What stand has a permanently mounted 10-foot base, and can be hydraulically lifted to a height from 13 to 20 feet? | B-2 |
| In order to have a good overall view of the aircraft towing operation, supervisors of the towing team usually assume the position near the aircraft's _____ . | nose (nose-walker) |
| Mishaps occur when _____ . | wing and tail walkers do not fully understand their responsibilities when towing. |
| The maximum speed in mph that any aircraft may be towed is _____ . | 5 mph |
| Unless they are taxiing on an established taxiway, how close can an aircraft be taxied to an active runway? | 100 feet |
| Generally people and vehicles should not pass closer than how many feet to the rear of an aircraft with its engines running? | 200 |
| Personnel must be tested within how many days of being assigned to duties requiring their knowledge of marshalling signals? | 30 |
| Who initiates all signals regarding the operation of aircraft systems? | Pilot |
| Who has the responsibility for policing up the area after the aircraft has taxied? | Ground controller |
| After turning, the aircraft must be marshalled forward in a straight line at least how many feet to relieve the loads on the MLG? | 5 |
| Except in unusual cases on the flight-line, do not _____ . | operate general-purpose vehicles at speeds greater than 15 mph. |
| What is not a procedure for aircraft engine runs? | A pilot qualified on the aircraft must be present at all times |
| Crew and maintenance personnel must wear ear defenders or other approved noise-suppression devices in noise hazard areas as determined by _____ . | BE |
| Maintenance personnel and non-pilot aircrew personnel with proper authorization are trained on starting, run-up, and testing engines IAW AFI _____ . | 21-101 |
| If the aircraft is returning to combat in a short period of time, the aircraft is refueled, rearmed and serviced while the engines are running during a _____ . | combat turnaround accomplished by CSO. |
| How soon prior to the start of the CSO must the CSS ensure the fire department is notified? | 15 minutes |
| The weapons load crew chief for armament systems maintenance and loading of assigned aircraft _____ . | supervises the loading and unloading of only one aircraft at a time. |
| Weapons load personnel can be certified on how many types of aircraft? | Two |
| During an aircraft loading of vehicles, vehicle drivers must follow the instructions of the individual designated by whom as a spotter? | The loadmaster or load team chief |
| What AFI requires AF Weather organizations to deliver accurate, consistent, relevant and timely environmental information to national and joint operations? | AFI 15-128 |
| What agency operates at installations, in contingencies, or tailored special operations to produce, disseminate, and amend forecast weather watches, warnings, and advisories for locations with documented requirements? | Weather Squadron |
| What notification is used to effectively warn personnel of an impending thunderstorm 30 minutes prior to the storm being within 5nm of a location? | Lightning watch |
| How many people must be present when conducting live-fire operations? | Two |
| Which of the following actions is a preferred way to reduce lead exposure on the firing range? | Do not eat or drink on the range |
| What is not a responsibility of the armorer? | Issue the weapon muzzle first with bolt forward |
| Due to safety requirements and duties within multi-DOD components and foreign national involvement, _____ . | the possibility of a language, cultural, or military service policy difference may exist. |
| Which document should be studied to determine deployment configurations and mission support requirements? | Operation plan (OPLAN) |
| Who should be kept informed of all safety discrepancies, injuries and reportable mishaps? | Mission Commander |
| As certain contingency operations may require acceptance of unavoidable risks to reach primary mission objectives, at what level will risk decisions be made? | At the appropriate level |
| What is not considered a type of PPE when operating an off-road vehicle? | Short-sleeved shirt |
| What are the primary concerns during the early stages of bare base construction? | Preparation of the airfield, water treatment, and beddown. |
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KenedieCox
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