Save
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

AST Cert Exam #6

QuestionAnswer
Which clip is used for scalp hemostasis in cranial procedures? Raney
The local freezing of diseased tissue to facilitate removal without bleeding is: cryosurgery
In severe aortic stenosis, all of the following are indications of valve replacement except: myocardial ischemia; left ventricle hypertrophy; palpitations; angina palpitations
In the event that a child requires emergency surgery, but the parents cannot be located to sign the surgical consent: consent is signed by two consulting physicians
EtO sterilizations destroys microbes by the process of: alkylation - interferes with protein metabolism
What is the most common cause of aortic aneurysm? artherosclerosis
What is used to determine the position of cannulated screws during repair of a femoral neck fracture? guide pins
Prior to being placed in the EtO sterilizer, items must: be completely dry
During general anesthesia induction, which sense is the last to be experienced by the patient? hearing
The purpose of creating an AV fistula is for: hemodialysis
What nerve is at greatest risk during a thyroidectomy? recurrent laryngeal
Which nerve could be compressed against the humerus in the prone position? radial
What is the surgical procedure for reducing testosterone in prostate cancer? orchiectomy
If the broth in the steam sterilization biological indicator is yellow after incubation, what action should be taken? items must be immediately recalled
A specimen that is 5 cm is equal to: 2 inches
Which vessel arises from the right ventricle of the heart? pulmonary artery
Which area is prepped first when performing the skin prep for a skin grafting procedure? donor site
Which has legal significance in the mishandling of a bullet? damaging ballistic markings
Which procedure requires preoperative high-level disinfection of the endoscope? bronchoscopy
What maintains the position of the uterus? broad ligament
What device would the surgeon use to preserve facial motor and sensory functions during a parotidectomy? nerve stimulator
If the surgeon uses a knife blade to incise the oral mucosa, the preferred blade is: #12
The gravity steam sterilization process can be rendered ineffective if the: temperate is below 250 deg. F
A suture used to retract a structure to the side of the operative field is a: traction suture
What must the circulating surgical technologist do when placing the patient in the supine position? confirm ankles are not crossed
What body system aids in the metastatic spread of cancer cells? lymphatic
Which is inserted into the tympanic membrane incision during a myringotomy? PE tube - pressure equalization
Which organelle contains digestive juices? lysosome
During a thyroidectomy, if all parathyroid glands are accidentally removed, what complication will occur? tetany
Which surgical instrument is used to retract the lung? Allison - atraumatic/lung
Which instrument would be used to remove nasal polyps? Krause nasal snare
What anatomical structure is Mersilene tape sutured around during a cerclage? cervix
What does the suffix -ectomy mean? excision
What would the pre-op Dx be for an infant undergoing craniectomy? craniosynostosis
Where is the anterior chamber of the eye located? posterior to the cornea and anterior to the iris
What would contraindicate pre-op setting up of the cell saver machine? patient has cancer
Which medication is contraindicated for patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia? succinylcholine
Which is an incision into the tympanic membrane for the removal of accumulated fluid? myringotomy
What is not a requirement when a patient is placed in the prone position? safety belt is placed below the knees
A tissue specimen being sent to pathology for a frozen section is prepared by placing it into a: container without preservative
The body's first line of defense against infection is: intact skin
What stapling device would be used to create an anastomosis during a low anterior resection? EEA
Packing material would be placed as a dressing after surgery on the: rectum
What is the lining of the thoracic cavity? pleura
What is the proper method for removing the knife blade from the handle when breaking down the Mayo stand? use a heavy hemostat or needle holder
What route of drug administration is parenteral? intravenous
The vascular, fibrous covering of bone is the: periosteum
What type of dressing would usually be used for a laparotomy procedure? pressure
To prevent DVT in the bariatric patient, what pre-op drug is given? heparin
Which space is entered during a thymectomy? mediastinum - between sternum and aorta
Femoral rasps are used for what reason? file the cortical bone
Which is part of the immune system? spleen
What incision is frequently used for pediatric aortic coarctation repair? posterolateral thoracotomy
Type and cross-match for blood is completed: if blood loss with replacement is anticipated
The purpose of the kidney elevator is to: increase the space between the lower rib and iliac crest
When storing information on the hard drive of a computer, what is clicked? save
Which is the proper method for handling disposable suction containers when turning over an OR? wipe down outside of container and place in biohazard bag for disposal
Which can cause lumbosacral strain in the lithotomy position? buttocks extend past table break
A midline xiphoid to pubis incision is commonly made for an: abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy
Which item should the CST confirm is available for a nerve repair? Loupes
How often should biological testing of EtO sterilization be conducted? every load
What is a liquid chemical sterilant often used for sterilizing endoscopes with a cycle time of 30 minutes? peracetic acid
When should the first closing sponge, sharp and instrument count be completed? prior to closure of body cavity
Which skin prep is contraindicated for use around eyes and ears because of potential for corneal abrasions and ototoxicity? chlorhexidine
A short-acting narcotic opioid given IM for pre-op sedation is: meperidine
The leg extensor muscles: rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis and vastus intermedius are collectively called the: quadriceps femoris
What is not a retractor used during a prostatectomy? Harrington
What does the term -scopy mean? viewing
How many minutes should a Frazier suction tip be immediate-use sterilized in a gravity steam sterilizer? 10 minutes
Which pre-op procedures should be completed for the diabetic patient? antiembolic stockings placed on patient
Induced hypothermia is typically associated with which surgical specialty? cardiothoracic
What block involves medication being injected into the subarachnoid space? spinal
Which conditions may require use of a Silastic urethral catheter? latex allergy
A patient receives pre-op instructions to remove nail polish to: prevent pulse oximeter malfunction
How often should the steam sterilizing machine's strainer be cleaned? daily
What is the smallest microorganism that requires a host cell for replication? virus
Which surgeon might provide the operative exposure for the neurosurgeon in a transsphenoidal approach to the sella turcica? otohinolaryngologist - ENT
An intraoperative mutagenic and carcinogenic hazard of laser use is: laser plume
What type of solution is recommended for cleaning the OR floors during room turnover? detergent-disinfection
Which is used to remove resected prostatic tissue during a TURP? Ellik
A patient is instructed to be NPO for 8 hours prior to surgery to prevent: aspiration - vomiting
The essential element of hemoglobin is: iron
A large, bony process found on the femur is a: trochanter
Which incision would be performed for repair of a liver laceration? midline
Just before the surgeon makes the skin incision, what must be performed? time-out
A pulse rate of pregnant patients: increases
Which portion of the stomach is superior to the esophageal sphincter? fundus
A linen pack to be steam sterilized must not weigh more than: 12 lbs
The closing sponge count should be initiated at the: operative field
During what procedure is it imperative that the CST maintain the sterility of the backtable and Mayo stand until the patient is transported out of the OR? tonsillectomy
Which statement concerning peel-packs is correct? when labeling with felt-tip marker write on the plastic side
What two structures are identified and ligated during a cholecystectomy? cystic artery and cystic duct
What is the primary responsibility of the first scrub CST during a cardiac arrest in the OR? protect the sterile field
What does pneumonectomy mean? removal of a lung
How many hours must the steam biological indicator be incubated before recording the results? 24 hours
Which is responsible for causing transmission of spongiform encephalopathy? prion
The thyroid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the: isthmus
A sustained contraction produced by rapid stimuli is called: tetany
What type of heart rate does tachycardia describe? fast
Which would be the least likely complication of suprapubic prostatectomy? acute phlebitis
When is the surgical consent typically signed? before pre-op medications are administered
Which is the order for post-op case management? remove drapes; preserve sterile field until patient leaves OR; remove gown and gloves; don non-sterile gloves to break down backtable
What type of needle is used when suturing the skin? reverse cutting - flat edge
Which ultrasonic device can be used intraoperatively to assess the patency of arterial blood flow? Doppler probe
The area of the brain that controls respiration is the: medulla oblongata
Which factors is used to determine the inflation pressure of a tourniquet? patient's age
Which describes the time from incision to the dressing application? intraoperative
At the end of a procedure, and after the patient has been transported out of the OR, the CST should remove the: gown
What is considered the operative stage of anesthesia? third
When performing the surgical scrub, the hands and arms are considered: surgically clean
Which is an obstetric complication resulting from overstimulation of the clotting process? disseminated intravascular coagulation
What does the term "symbiosis" mean? relationship between unlike species of organisms
Which statement is true concerning cleaning OR walls between procedures? clean areas of wall splashed with blood or debris
Which anatomical structure is removed during a total hip arthroplasty? femoral head
What controls the arrow on your monitor? mouse
Wound dressings should be opened: after last count is completed
A stent may be placed to identify the ureter during what procedure? right colectomy
A rapid-onset muscle relaxant used for intubation is: Anectine - succinylcholine
A general consent form authorizes: routine medical treatment
Which must be completed pre-op if a patient underwent a barium study the day of surgery? enema
Which suture is contraindicated in the presence of infection? silk
When the CST is breaking down the backtable, instruments with ratchets should be: placed in a basin with enzymatic solution in open position for transport to decontamination
The cup-like extensions of the renal pelvis that collect urine from the pyramids are: calyces
What is a type of one-layer dressing? steri-strips
Braided nonabsorbable sutures should not be used in infected wounds because suture crevices: can harbor bacteria that travel length of suture
What post-op complication can result from excess or prolonged plantar flexion? foot drop
What immediate post-op complication most often occurs with pediatric patients? airway difficulty
Another name for corneal transplant procedure is: keratoplasty
Fertilization normally occurs in the: fallopian tube
The inner layer of an artery is the: intima
Which laser can be used on light and dark tissues? CO2 - water; no effect on color
What implant is used for individuals with sensorineural deafness? cochlear implant
Splenectomy places the patient at an increased risk for: infection
In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of surgical gut is: increased
Dark blood in the sterile field could indicate? hypoxia
Which instrument will the surgeon use to free the entrapped orbital fat during repair of an orbital floor fracture? Freer
A urinary tract infection, following a cystoscopy, is an example of what type of infection? Healthcare-associated infection
Which is a type of meniscal tear? bucket handle
Which surgical procedure may require a suprapubic catheter to drain the urinary bladder? prostatectomy
Which microorganism is least likely to be associated with wound infections? Treponema pallidum - syphilis
Liquid agents used to reduce microorganisms on the patient's skin are: antiseptics
Which closed wound drainage device requires being connected to a bulb evacuator? Jackson-Pratt
What term refers to items remaining sterile indefinitely until the wrapping is compromised? event-related sterility
Which vein would be harvested during a CABG? saphenous
When incubated, the EtO biological indicator can be read after: 24 hours
The structure that facilitates the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetus and mother is the: placenta
When helping to turn over an OR between patients, the CST should: use a clean mop head
Vitrectomy is the removal of the: gel from the eye
When using EtO sterilization, the recommended aeration time for an aerator set at 140 deg. F is: 8 hours
Where should the biological indicator test be placed on the steam sterilizer cart? bottom, front - coldest part
Which vessel empties into the right atrium? SVC
Knife blades should be loaded onto the handle with: needle holder
Which vitamins is essential for the clotting process? vitamin K
From where do most intracranial aneurysms arise? Circle of Willis
Which type of equipment would require pre-op draping by the CST? C-arm
What dietary substance enhances the production of collagen? protein
The normal range of intra-op pressure for the insufflator during a laparoscopy is: 12-15 mm Hg
Where should the EtO biological indicator be placed in the load? center
What is the proper way to remove a patient from the lithotomy position? lower legs together slowly in unison
What procedure should the first scrub CST set up for when a female patient is undergoing a repair for a cystocele and rectocele? anterior and posterior colporrhaphy
Which vein drains into the small intestine? hepatic portal
What specialized retractor is used during a rotator cuff repair? Bankart
The concave notch of the kidney through which the ureter exits is the: hilum
The large artery found posterior to the knee is the: popliteal
Proper placement of the Foley catheter is confirmed prior to balloon inflation by what? urine flowing out of catheter
Which portion of the small intestine joints to the large intestine? ileum
Which tank would be brought into the OR if a CST is preparing an oscillating saw? compressed nitrogen
Created by: kenderle7
Popular Surgery sets

 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards