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MSK System

WVSOM: Musculoskeletal System

Question	Answer
In the body, what do myotomes and dermatomes come from	somites
Dorsal mass from the different limb buds become which type of muscles	extensors
Which nerve is needed for a strong grip	median nerve
Which nerve gets most of the flexors in the forearm	median nerve
which nerve gets most of the intrinsic muscles of the hand	ulnar nerve
Nerve to deltiod and teres minor	axillary nerve
nerve to the lateral compartment of the leg	superficial fibular nerve
nerve to anterior compartment of the leg	deep fibular nerve
which nerve gets the hamstring muscles	tibial nerve
Dorsiflexion of the foot and extension of the toes is done via which nerve	deep fibular
Weakness is seen in UPN lesiosn or LMN lesions?	BOTH
What makes up a muscle spindle	sensory receptors made up of muscle fibers encased by CT and nerves
Do muscle spindles increase tone to the muscle being stretched or its antagonist	muscle being stretched
What decreases tone to a muscle being stretched and activates its antagonist	Golgi Tendon organs
Slow twitch muscles carry out which type of metabolism	oxidative metabolism
What are the other names for slow twitch msucles	type 1 or red
Which type of muscle would you use for controlled, precise movements	Type 2 or white
I-bands contain which type of fibers	actin
H-bands contain which type of fibers	myosin
Which band in a sarcomere contains both myosin and actin	A-band
On what structure does a depolarization from a nerve travel across a muscle	transverse tubule
DHPR's receptors are which type	voltage gated
RyR receptors are which type of receptors	Calcium gated (ligand-gated)
What is the purpose of Tn-I in the troponin complex	inhibitory, prevents binding of actin to myosin. Can be released by binding of Ca+ to Tn-C
What encricles the Z-disc of each sarcomere and connects them to the sarcolemma	Desmin
What connects muscle fibers to the ECM and CT	dystrophin
Which is the worst of the two muscular dystrophies, has an early on set and is most deadly	Duchenne
What are sharpeys fibers	connect periosteum to bone (type 1 collagen)
What is a Howship's Lacuna	depression in bone left by osteoclast
PTH has what effect on osteoclast activity and thus Ca+ levels in the body	increase osteoclast and thus increases serum Ca+
Calcitonin has what effect on osteoclast activity and thus what effect on serum Ca+ levels	Lowers activity of osteoclast, thus lowering serum Ca+
Which embryoligical structure do long bones come from	lateral mesoderm
A synovial joint is made of how many layers? Name them. Describe them	2, external and internalExternal - fibrous dense CTInternal - squamous cuboidal cells
What are the five steps in bone repair	Hematoma, Callus, hyaline cartilage, immature bone, mature bone
What do ligaments connect	BONE TO BONE
Positive ANA antibodies, malar/discoid rashm low levels of C3/C4	Systemic Lupus
Small joints, seen more in females, autoimmune rxn, goes away with activity on the morning	Rhuematoid Arthritis
What is the major cytokine we're concerned about with rhuematoid arthritis	TNF-alpha
What is Rhuematoid factor	Antibodies to the Fc region of IgG
Th-17 produce which cytokine? What does it do	IL-17, proinflammatory mediator and recruits nuetrophils
Pannus formation is seen in which disease	Rhuematoid
Which arthritis spontaneously goes into remission	juvenile
Age of onset less than 16, symptoms for 6 wks or longer, HLA associations, fewer/larger joints, maybe asymetric	Juvenile arthritis
HLA-B27 is a DEFINITE dignostic finding in...	Ankylosing Spondylitis
seronegative means what	no rhuematoid factor
Chronic inflammatory disease of SI, vertebrae and entheses	Ankylosing spondylitis
Describe Schobers test and what it is used to diagnose	test to see if theres distance between vertebral levels in spinal flexion. Use in ankylosing spondylitis
Reiters disease is also known as...	Reactive arthritis
What triggers reactive arthritis	GI or urogential infections
Lambert Eaton syndrome is related to which autoimmune disease	Myasthenia Gravis
True or False: HLA-B27 correlation is seen in reactive arthritis	TRUE, not as strong as A.S. though
Crepitus in weight bearing joints, loss of articular cartilage, loss of ROM, and worsens with repeated motion	Osteoarthritis
Name two major predispostions to osteoarthritis	diabetes and obesity
Damage to which cell types cause osteoarthitis	chondrocytes
Polyarthritis and olgioarthritis are used to dezcribe which disease and refer to what	Early symptoms/onset Juvenile ArthritisPoly = 5+ jointsOlgio = 4 joints or less
HLA-DR4 and DR1	Rheumaoid Arthritis
A proliferation of synovium and granulation tissue over the articular cartilage of a joint is called what? Seen in which disease	Pannus, rhuematoid arthritis
Elevated sedimentation rate and hypergammaglobulinemia are seen in which disease	rhuematoid arthritis
Associated with ulcerative colitis and HLA-B27	Enteropathic Arthritis
You have a joint that has a cloudy synovial fluid when aspirated and cultures gonococci producing arthritis	supprative arthritis
Psuedogout is produced by the deposition of what	calcium pyrophosphate crystals
True or False: Ganglion cyst have communication with the joint space	False
A true neoplasm, occurs 80% in the knee, and causes pain, swelling, loss of ROM, and locking	Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis
Where are the two best places in the body for anaerobes to grow. What is the millivoltage in these areas	Dental Plaque (-200) and Colon (-300)
The overgrowth of anaerobes decreases the ability of the body to take care what	peroxide and free radicals
What is the only communicable anaerobe	closdridium (in hospitals)
foul smelling infections with necrotic tissue due to gas formation is typical of which type of infection	anerobes
Which anaerobe is known "below the waist"	Bacteroides fragilis
Gram negative rods, LACK ENDOTOXIN, have collagenase and hyaluronidase, with a capsule	Bacteroides fragilis
Gram negative coccibacilli to short rods, with brick red floresence in a UV light	Prevotella
Which anerobe is known as "above the waist" pathogen and causes brain abcesses and lung irritation	Prevotella
Gram negative rods, long sleder fusiform rods that look like points. Causes trench mouth	Fusobacterium nucleatum
Commonly seen in the head, neck and chest and causes necrotizing gingivitis	Fusbacterium nucleatum
Gram positive branching rods that produce sulfer granules in abcesses and cultures	Actinomyces israelli
What are the two drugs of choice for anerobes	metronidazole (pro-drug) and clindamyacin (50s inhibitor)
Alpha Toxin is produce from which organism. What does it do	Clostridium perfinges - degrades mammillian cell membranes
The lower the redox potential, the more ______ is released from clostridium	toxin
Box-car like rods	clostridium perfinges
Cellulitis and food poisoning	clostridium perfinges
The suppresion of inhibitory nuerotranmitters is caused by which organism	Clostridium tetani (tetanospasim)
Most toxic chemical known to man is made by which organism	clostridium botulism
floppy baby syndrome is caused by which organism	clostridium botulism
Which organism produces a toxin that prevents the release of ACh from Alpha-motor nuerons	Clostridium botulism
what causes the clinical disease of pseudomembranous colitis	Clostridium difficile
What organism produces toxin A? What does it do?	C. difficile. Causes fluid production and tissue damage
Which clostridium species has become resistant to flouroquinolone and being linked to a lot of deaths	C. Difficile
Gas gangrene is caused by	clostridium perfinges
Diabetes mellitus, abdominal surgery and perineal infection are all possibel cuase of which type of necrotizing fascitis	Type 1
What causes type 2 necrotizing fascitis	Group A strep (flesh eating)
Rapid progression, resembling gas gangrene w/o the gas, and due to possible superantigens	Type 2 NF
Which properties of Group A strep give it the ability to cause type 2 NF	beta-hemolytic, lipase enzymes and superantigenic capabilites
Which drug are you using to treat type 2 NF	pennicillin
Leukocytosis with a left shift is diagnostic of ...	NF
Motile gram negative rods, live in fresh water and are oxidase positive	Aeromonas hydrophilia myonecrosis
Non-traumatic gas-gangrene is caused by which organism	clostridium septicum
What is non-traumatic gas gangrene associated with	colon cancer, diverticulitis, and abdominal (GI) surgery
The damage that occurs in myalgias is caused by what	immunological response
What are some tell-tale signs of infectous arthritis	ONE JOINT, usually the knee (maybe hip), swollen hot and painful, occurs in joint with previous damage or trauma/surgery
What are the two most common organisms in infectous arthritis	staph aureus and neisseria gonorrhoeae(Staph epi in children and prostetics/replacements)
In which population does osteomyelitits commonly occur	children who are growing
A history of chills, fever, and inflammation over the area of trauma may cue you in to which disease	osteomyelitis
Osteomyelitis is overall caused by trauma which causes a disruption in which strucutures	blood vessels, which lead to hematoma
Long course of antibiotics naficillin or oxacillin given over the course of weeks, parentally, is a course of treatment for which bone disease	osteomyelitis
Most common organism in osteomyelitis	staph aureus
What is the most common form of spinal muscle atrophy	Werdnig-Hoffman disease - usually results in death by age 3 (autosommal on chromosome 5)
Most common muscular dystrophy	Duchenne's
Where does duchennes start and progress to	pelvic girdle to the shoulder girdle
Which gene and protien are effected in Duchennes	Gene: Xp21 Protien: 427kD
Which muscular dystrophies occur in the proximal muscular of the limbs and trunk	Limb girdle muscular dystrophy
Which disease presents with abnormalties in gait progressing to facial muscle problems and ptosis	Myotonic muscle dystrophy
Cataracts, frontal balding, gonadal atrophy, cardiomyopathy, and smooth muscle invovlement may all be seen in which disease	myotonic muscle dystrophy
sustained involuntary contraction of a group of muscles is the cardinal symptom for which disease	myotonic muscle dysrophy
What is the only dystrophy that actually shows pathologic changes in muscles	myotonic muscular dystrophy
autosomal dominant syndrome of dramatic hypermetabolic state (tachycardia, tachypnea, muscle spasms, hyperpyrexia)	Malignant hyperpyrexia
Which muscle disorder can be caused by induction by anethesia	Malignant Hyperpyrexia
Hypotonia and myotonia during excercise or exposure to cold	paramyotonia congenita
myotonia caused by fatigue or stress	Myotonia congenita
Toxic myopathies are most dependant on what	the patients sensitivity
What is the example of paraneoplastic syndrome associated with NMJ disorder (myashtenia gravis)	Lambert Eaton Syndrome (squamous cell carcinoma of the lung)
What are the three subgroups of inflammatory muscle disease	Infectous, non-infectous inflammatory muscles (children; look for rash), systemic inflammatory (muscle WITH other organs)
Four types of skeletal muscle tumors	embryonal, botryoid, alveolar, and pleomorphic
boytroid tumors are morphological variant of which other type of muscle tumor	embryonal
Which muscle tumor type occurs in older generations (45+)	pleomorphic
which skeletal muscle tumor type has the worst prognosis	pleomorphic
Where do Leiomyoma's and leiomyosarcomas most occur	female genital tract
Herringbone pattenrn and dystrophic calcification are seen in which muscle tumors	Leimyomas or sarcomas
Class I mitchondrial myopathies involve what	genes for mitochondiral protiens
Class II mitchondrial Myopathis invovle what	point mutations in mtDNA
Class III mitochondrial myopathis invovle what	deletions of mtDNA
How does Colchinine work	binds to intercellular portien tubulin preventing polymerization (prevents migration of inflammatory cells)
Which gout drug has a really low TI and severe GI problems	Colchicine
Which gout drug is used a preventative measure	colchicine
When are NSAIDS used for gout	in an acute attack
Reduction is LTB4 is accomplished by which drug	colchicine
What are the two commonly used NSAIDS	INdomethacin and phenylbutazone
Major s/e's from indomethacin	CNS and GI
major s/e's from phenylbutazone	hematological
How does allopurinol work	inhibits xanthine oxidase
Which drug can inhibit immunosupressants and produce an intial gout attack when first administered	allopurinol
How does probenecid work	decreases uric acid reabsorbtion in the kidney
Which drug works to protect the kidneys and prevent stones	allopurinol
Name the order in which you use sulfinyrazone, probenecid, and allopurinol	allopurinol > probenecid > sulfinyrazone
Which drugs should you give before starting a course of allopurinol	colchicine and NSAIDS
Which medication stops probenecid from working	aspirin
6-metacaptopurine and azathioprine must be stopped before the start of which drug	allopurinol (blocks their metabolism, causes toxic build up)
which drug to you need to access kidney function before giving	probenecid
Defects in the FGFR3 receptor cause what disorder	achondroplasia
a thin sclera with a blue hue is indicative of what	osteogenesis imperfecta
which bone disorder can lead to deafness	osteogenesis imperfecta
osteogenesis imperfecta is a disorder of what?	collagen type 1
which is the worst form of osteogenesis imprefecta to have	Type 2
A disorder where there is a gradual compression of the marrow cavity	osteopetrosis
A decrease in osteoclast function, also known as marble bone disease or alber-schonberg disease	osteopetrosis
Erlenmeyer shaped flask appearance of bones is seen in which disorder	osteopetrosis
Which is worse the recessive or dominant form of osteopetrosis	recessive (linked to malignancies, where dominant is linked to benign)
Which bone disorder is associated with paramyxovirus	Pagets
Increase of bone reabsorbtion resulting in thickned but weak bones	pagets
What are the three stages of Pagets	Osteolytic, mixed osteolytic, and osteosclerotic
mosaic pattern of lamellar bone	Pagets
Lionlike facies with anemia and high alkaline phosphatase	Pagets
do to the constant remodeling of bone in pagets, you can develop what disease	osteosarcoma
When does Rickets occur	before the closure of the epiphysis
Which bone disorder is a major concern after fracture	osteomyelitis
What is the most common organism in osteomyelitis	staph aureus
Clinical feature os luekemia and fever with erythema and swelling are indicative of which bone disorder	osteolyelitis
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin is linked to which bone disease	osteomyelitis
Parathyroid adenoma and parathyroid hyperplaisa are linked to which bone disease	Osteitis fibrosa cystica
Clubbing and periosteal new bone formation are seen in which bone disorder	hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
Bronchogeneic carcinoma is a paraneoplasmtic syndrome seen in which bone disorder	hypertrophic osteoarthopathy
Which bone tumor is seen with Gardner syndrome	osteoma
osteoid osteoma is defined as growth in which part of a bone	diaphysis
A central radiolucency surrounded by a sclerotic rim is seen in which bone tumors	osteoid osteoma
Osteoblastoma is seen in which bones	vertebrae
Where does osteochondroma orginiate from	epiphyseal growth plates
Multiple enchondromas in the hands and feet are seen in which disease	olliers disease
Increased risk of malignant tranformation, ovarian carcinoma, and brain gliomas is seen in which syndrome	Maffucci
What is the most common primary malignant tumor of the bone	osteosarcoma
Codmans triangle is associated with which disorder	osteosarcoma
Sunburst patterns are seen in which disorder	osteosarcoma
Large firm white-tan masses with necrosis and hemorraghe	osteosarcomma
Which disorder has a "soap bubble appearance" to it	Giant-cell tumor of bone
Look for giant cell tumors in which part of the bone	epiphysis
Mostly found in the diaphysis, this disorder has Homer-wright psuedorosettes on a micro scale	Ewing Sarcoma
Malignant neoplasm of undifferentiated cells arising within the marrow cavity	EWing sarcoma
Reduction of PG's, LT's, COX2, IL1 and TNF is done by which class of drugs	Anti-inflammatory steoirds
Which drug has extremely high antiinflammatory properties but no effect on salt retention	Dexamthasone
True or False: The anti-inflammatory properties of glucocorticoids can be sperated from the other systemic effects	False
MOst common side effect of anti-inflammatory steroids	osteoporosis
Alternate day dosing is done with which class of drugs	anti-inflammatory steroids
Anti-inflammatory steroids increase or decrease a immune system	decrease
Redistribution of fat is seen in which class of drugs	anti-inflammatory steroids
Which type of NSAIDS produce more side effects, selective or non-selective	non-selective
Is Aspirin a non-selective or selective COX inhibtor? Reversible or non-reversible	Non-selective, non-reversible
Death from aspirin overdose occurs due to what	respiratory failure
Giving bicarb to increase excretion is done for poisoning from which drug	aspirin
Which drug is bad to take in conjunction with warfin or heparin	Aspirin (blood thinner)
What is the aspirin equal that lacks antipyretic effects but has fewer side effects	Difunisal
When woudl you administer N-acetylcysteine	during a aspirin overdose to prevent liver damage
WHich drug is NOT an NSAID and inhibtis COX enzymes mostly in the CNS	Acetominophin
How is acetominphin eliminated	phase 2 reactions
Celebrex and Mobic are the only two ________ left on the market	COX 2 inhibitors
Indomethacin can cause a closure of what childhood disorder	PDA
Methotrexate is the gold standard drug for which disease	Rhuematoid Arthritis
What is methotrexate commonly used in conjuction with	COX2 inhibitor
Which drug do you need to preform constant eye exams when administering	hydrochloroquine
Misoprostol is given along with which drugs for what purposes	NSAIDS for GI protection. It is a PGE analog to protect the lining
How does Leflunomide work	inhibits pyrimidine synthesis
How does etanercept work	artificially synthesized TNF receptors bind up free TNF
How does Infliximad work	artificial antibody to TNF
When do you never want to give TNF inhibitors	when the patient has hear problems
What is an oblique view used to look for in the spine	pars interarticularis
At what level does disk disease mostly occur	L4-L5
Pedicles are a common place of .....	metastisis
a non-communiated fracture has how many segments	2
Salter Harris stage 1	just through the growth plate, nothing else
Salter Harris stage 2	Growth plate and metaphysis
Salter HArris Stage 3 and 4	through epiphysis, depends on fragments
Soft tissue tumors tend to be caused by...	trauma
Most common soft tissue tumor of adulthood	lipoma
A rapidly growing benign condiiton that can resemble a sarcoma, probably from trauma, with vascular channels an anundant mitoses	Nodular fasciitis
Bone that matures peripherally, especially after trauma, is a key feature of	Myositis Ossification
What is the zonation effect	development of bone peripherally in myositis ossification
Common in mothers giving birth, have irregular borders and commonly reoccur when excised	Deep seated fibromas (desmoids)
What is the most common of the RARE tumors in adults	fibrosarcoma
Herringbione pattern	fibrosarcoma
Most common soft tissue sarcoma	Malignant Fibrous Histicytoma
A round bluish to purple over growth appears and pursist for a couple years. Feels hard and nudular, what is it? Can it be cancerous	Dermatofibroma, never turn to cancer
Congential fusion of two or more cervical vertebrae in infants	Klippel Feil Syndrome
Klippel Fell Syndrome has a high association with problems in which area of the body	G-U tract
Clinical Triad of short stature, low hairline, and restriction of neck movement	Klippel-Fell Syndrome
In children less then four, with back pain, you shoudl always order what	an MRI
What are the three types of scoliosis	congenital, idiopathic, and nueromuscular
Whhat are the two types of kyphosis	structural and flexible
Which type of kyphosis is voluntarily correctible	flexible
Which type of kyphosis is normally progressive	structural
A defect in the pars interarticularis	spondyloysis
A forward slip of one vertebrae over another is known as what	spondylolisthesis
Mutations in COL2A1 cause	chondrodysplasia
MOst common type of LETHAL chondrodysplasia	Thanatophoric Dysplasia
Elastic tissue disease effecting fibrilllin 1	Marfan syndrome
Arm span greater than height, long thin limbs, hyperextendible joints, and pectus excavatum or carinatum are clinical signs of...	Marfans syndrome
Marfans patients are most likely to die from complications involving which system	respiratory and cardic
Two common fracures of childhood, NOT indicative of abuse	Toddler(tibia) and clavicle
Which torion is caused by children sitting in the W position	Internal femoral torsion
At what age is there normal adult alignment and gait patterns	7
Which childhood disorder is most seen in the first born	Metatarsus Adductus
This disease has abnormal claf muscles which may atrophy over time. 75% of cases are congeneital	Equinovarus
Bone which is pulled away from non-mature bone by a strong tendon is refered to as which disease in children	Sever disease
What is caused by loss of blood flow to the hip socket or femoral head	Transient Synovitis
Microfractures in the insertion of the pattelar tendon are diagnostic of which disease	Osgood Schlatter
This disorder usually presents late in childhood and has a positive McMurray test	Discoid LAteral meniscus
Avascular necrosis of bone under articular cartilage	Osteochondrosis dessicans
Idipathic avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis	LCPD (Leg-clave-perthes disease)
What is the most common his disorder in adolescents	Slipped Capital Femroal Epiphysis
Which classification system is used for open fractures	Gustilo
Colle's fracture	fracture of distal radius with dorsal angulation
Fracture of the base of 5th metatarsal	Jones Fracture
Fx of 5th metacarpal with vulgar angulation	boxer fracture
"Come Rub My Tree Of Love"	Capitulum (2), Radial Head (4), Medial (6)Epicondlye(8), Trochlea(10), Olecranon(12)
True or False: A "Babygram" is an appropraite way to look for fractures in a child suspected of being abused	FALSE
Most common fracutre location in a bone	diaphysis
Child abuse acccounts for what percentage of femoral fracutres	60-80%
Epiphysiseal and Metaphysiseal fractures are indicative of what in a child	abuse
Second most common fracture after long bones	skull
Do skull fractures occur more in cases of abuse or accident	abuse
How is osteoporosis defined by the WHO	bone density less than 2.5 std dev from normal
methylmethacrylate has been advocated to help in which situation	helping internal fixation in bone repair
How many views and which ones are used in a hip fracture	A-P view and cross table lateral (internal rotation to help with fx pattern)
What is the problem with Technetium bone scanning	takes 2-3 days to become positive
Operative delay of 24-48 hours causes an increase in what for hip fractures	one year mortality rates
How should displaced fractures be treated	operativley
When do displaced hip fractures not need surgery	in the dimented or non-ambulatory
In what situation do you have a subtrocanteric fx	Typically higher energy injuries seen in younger patients
What levels do compression fx's usually occur	T8-L2
What type of fx's are treated non-operativly and symptomatically	spinal compression fractures
Most common cause of compartment syndrome	fracture (proportional to degree)
2nd most common cause of compartment syndrome	blunt trauma
What is the absolute pressure diagnostic of compartment syndrome	30mmHg
At what time do you reach irreversible damage in compartment syndrome	8hrs
What is the most important clinical sign of possible compartment syndrome	pain (out of proportion to the injury)
When compartment syndrom is suspected, which compartments need to be measured	ALL OF THEM
What are the compartments of the lower leg	Anterior, LAteral, posterior, deep posterior
At what level should a limb with compartment syndrome be elevated	level of the heart
What is the minimum distance that should be between two cuts in lower leg compartment syndrome	8cm
What nerve do you need to be concious of when you make an incision over the lateral compartment of the leg	superficial fibular
What structures do you need to be careful of when making an incision in the poseterior compartment	saphneous nerve and vein
What is the most common cause of litigation	compartment syndrome
What are the four muscles of the rotator cuff	teres minor, supraspinatus, subscapularis, and infraspinatus
Innervation of teres minor	axillary nerve
Innervation of supscapularis	upper subscapular nerve
innervation of infraspinatous and supraspiantous	suprascapular nerve
Higher recurrance rates of shoulder dislocation in patients under what age	20
A squared off appearance is diagnostic of what type of injury	dislocation
Which x-rays are needed in order to diagnose dislocation	AP, lateral and axillary
What fracture may be associated with a shoulder dislocation	greater tuberosity
What type of injury is associated with electrical shock or siezure	posterior shoudler dislocation
"Bankart” lesion refers to ...	avulsion of anterior-inferior labrum off glenoid rim. May be associated with glenoid rim fracture (“bony bankart”)
Humeral Head impression fracture is caused how	posterior impaction fracure of back of humerus
What motion can an anterior dislocated shoudler NOT carry out	external rotation
Most common nerve injury in a anterior dislocation	axillary dislocation
What are two criteria for shoulder surgery	young patients with high demand or recurrent instability
Which teo test are used in diagnosing impingement syndrome	Hawkins and Neers
Subacromial bursectomy, Acromioplasty and Coracoacromial ligament release are all surgical treatments for which disorder	impingement syndrome
Which muscle are you testing with the "empty-can test"	supraspinatous
Placing you hand (palm side down) just off of your back is testing which muscle	subscapularis
Which muscle in the rotator cuff is used for internal rotation	subscapularis
Idiopathic global limitation of humeroscapular motion resulting from contracture and loss of compliance of the glenohumeral joint capsule	Frozen shoudler syndrome
What are the most common implicated predispostions to frozen shoudler syndrome	diabetes and thyroid disorder (hypothyroidism)
What should always be included in a examination of frozen shoulder syndrome	shoulder and cervical spine
What are the 4 stages of frozen shoulder syndrome	Stage 1 (no name), freezing, frozen, thawing
Manipulation under anethesia is an effective treatment for which syndrome	frozen shoudler
Patients with diabetes have a lowered response to which treatment for forzen shoudler	manipulation under anesthesia
True or False: Surgery can be used to accelerate the nartural course of frozen shoudler syndrome	True
McMurray Test is used to test what? How is it done	Medial Meniscus. Felx Knee to 80-90 degrees and rotate internal-external. Positive is a click or pop
What is the Gold standard in menisci surgical tx	arthoscopy
What are the two speacil test for collateral ligaments	Valgus (push in) and Varus (push out)
Injuries to which ligaments are treated with a hinged brace and non-impact excercise	collateral ligaments
Forced hyperextension of the knee can cause damage to which ligament	ACL
Lateral Pivot shift test is used in injury to which ligament	ACL
For ACL and PCL injuries, at which grade do you have to do surgery	Grade 2 that doesn't heal well or a grade 3
Most common cause of constant knee pain	Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome
In what knee syndrome do you have to MAKE SURE you treat the underlying cause	Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome
What is the third line of tx for osteoarthritis	Arthroplasty - patient will let you know when they want it
First injured in lateral sprain with dorsiflexed ankle	calcaneofibular ligament
First injured in lateral sprain with plantarflexed ankle	ATF
Talar tilt is used to ascess which ligament	CFL
True or False: In a AP view of the ankle you want to see overlap of the Tibia and Fibia	TRUE!
Shenton’s Line of the ankle and The dime test, are used to assess what	fibular length
Forced eversion of the ankle causes damage to which ligament	deltoid
Which three x-rays are needed to assess the ankle mortise	AP, lateral and Oblique
Unstable medial ankle sprains are defined by what	talar subluxation
Definition of a Weber A fracture	fibular fracture BELOW (distal to the mortise)BEST ONE
Definition of a Weber B fracture	fibular fracture at the level of mortise
Definition of a Weber C fracture	fibular fracture ABOVE (proximal) to mortiseWORST ONE
When do you not operate on a fibular fracture	when it is NOT displaced, stable, and the syndesmosis is not disrupted
Where does rupture mostly take place on an achilles tendon	Avascular zone: 2-6cm proximal to insertion
What it Thompsons test used to diagnose	Achilles rupture
When is surgical repair indicated for Achilles ruptures	when the patient is young and active
When is surgery NOT inicated for an achilles	Weaker tendonHigher risk re-rupture Slower return to sportNo surgical morbidityLower cost
Describe Short Leg cast strategey for achilles reuptures	SLC is applied w/ ankle in plantarflexionCast is brought out of equinus over 8-10 weeksWalking is allowed (in the cast) at 4-6 weeks
What nerve is important to avoid in an achilles repair	sural nerve

Created by: lowryc

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