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DU PA Neph Pharm

Duke PA Nephrology Pharmacology

QuestionAnswer
the hallmark of increased anion gap acidosis is that the metabolic acidosis (low HCO3-) is associated with ___ so that the anion gap increases normal serum Cl-
Normolchloremic metabolic acidosis generally results from addition to the blood of nonchloride acids such as lactate, acetoacetate, beta-hydroxy-butyrate, and exogenous toxins
___ is formed from pyruvate in anearobic glycolysis lactate
the liver and kidneys metabolize most of the ___ in the body lactate
in lactic acidosis, lactate levels are at least ___ mEq/L but commonly ___mEq/L 4-5, 10-30
Type A lactic acidosis (the most common type) results from poor tissue perfusion, cardiogenic, septic, or hemorrhagic shock, and carbon monoxide or cyanide poisoning
Type B lactic acidosis may be due to metabolic causes such as diabetes, ketoacidosis, liver disease, renal failure, infection, leukemia, or lymphoma
____ is characterized by hyperglycemia and metabolic acidosis diabetic ketoacidosis
a common disorder of chronically malnourishe patients who consume large quantities of alcohol daily alcoholic ketoacidosis
accompanying ____ which inhibits pyruvate carboxylase, further enhances lactic acid production in many cases of alcoholic ketoacidosis thiamine deficiency
examples of toxins that can increase the anion gap by increasing enogenous acid production methanol, ethylene glycol, and salicylates
the hallmark for this disorder is that the low HCO3- of metabolic acidosis is associated with hyperchloremia so that the anion gap remains normal normal anion gap acidosis
massive diarrhea or pancreatic drainage can result in ___ HCO3- loss and normal anion gap acidosis
hyperchloremic acidosis with a normal anion gap and normal GFR, and the absence of diarrhea defines Renal Tubular Acidosis
rapid dilution of plasma volume by ___ may cause a mild hyperchloremic acidosis 0.9% NaCl
administration of large amounts of ___ may have deleterious effects, including hypernatremia, and hyperosmolality HCO3-
in alcoholic ketoacidosis ___ should be given to avoid the development of Wernicke encephalopathy thiamine with glucose
in ___ alkali therapy must be started unless blood pH has already been alkalinized by respiratory alkalosis salicylate intoxication
in methanol intoxication ___ has been used as a competitive substrate for alcohol dehydrogenase, which metabolizes methanol to formaldehyde ethanol
treatment of Renal Tubule Acidosis is mainly treated by administration of alkali
two primary causes of CKD are DM and HTN
main cause of death in ESRD (dialysis) patients is cardiovascular
symptoms of uremia seen when function is reduced to <__% 10
Na and water retention leads to weight gain, HTN, edema
Bone disease that occurs when your kidneys fail to maintain the proper levels of calcium and phosphorus in your blood osteodystrophy
phophorus excretion decreases as GFR falls below __ mL/min 25
increase in serum phosphorus leads to a ____ which stimulates PTH release decrease in serum calcium
PTH release leads to Mobilization of calcium from bone, Enhances absorption of calcium from the small intestine, Suppression of calcium loss in urine
goal phosphorus __ mg/dL 2.5-5.5
target PTH __pg/ml 150-300
effective phosphate binder calcium acetate
667 mg tablet contains 167 mg of elemental Ca calcium acetate
GFR is used to stage renal disease
Creatinine clearance is used to adjust dosage for renal patients
(140-age)/Scr=nCrCl (female x 0.85) formula for estimating creatinine clearance (modified Cockrolft-Gault equation)
diuretic used for stage 1-3 (GFR>30 mls/min) thiazides
diuretic used for stage 4-5 (GFR<30 mls/min) loop
diuretic used if volume and edema is not resolved with monotherapy loop + thiazide
diuretic to be used cautiously or not at all in renal patients K-sparing (spironolactone)
treatment is usually not necessary for mild acidosis
K balance is usually maintained until GFR < 10
Acidosis shifts K out of cells
with hyperkalemia and EKG changes give IV calcium chloride or gluconate (1 gram CaCl over 1-3 min)
Calcium ___ K does not lower
___ is a K binder sodium polystryene (SPS)
redistributes K back into cells insulin
if patient is ___ do not give glucose with insulin hyperglycemic
___ excretion decreases as GFR falls below 25 ml/min phosphorous
hyperphosphatemia can cause vitamin D deficiency
increase in serum phosphorous leads to a decrease in serum calcium
goal phosphorous __ mg/dl 2.5-5.5
Non-absorbed cationic polymer used for treatment of high phosphorus Sevelamer (RenagelĀ®)
Non-Aluminum and non-calcium based binder used for treatment of high phosphorus Lanthanum Carbonate (FosrenolĀ®)
Used when PO4 is extremely high, Only consider for short term use (1-4 weeks) Aluminum Hydroxide/Carbonate
When Ca supplements are not effective in correcting serum Ca and PTH, use Vitamin D
Inhibits PTH release and promotes GI absorption of Ca and phosphorus Vitamin D
Use only if measured 25-hydroxyvitamin D level is < 30 ng/ml and PTH above target Ergocalciferol
Begins to develop when GFR drops below 30 ml/min anemia
primary cause of anemia in CKD Decrease erythropoietin synthesis by the failing kidney
supplement __ for all dialysis patients b/c __ is remove by dialysis foic acid, folate
renal vitamins nephrocaps
in iron deficiency anemia with CKD the goal ferritin is >=__ ng/ml 100
intravenous iron iron dextran, ferric gluconate, iron sucros
lowest risk of IV iron hypersensitiviy reaction iron sucrose
greatest risk of IV iron hypersensitivity reaction iron dextran
drugs that induce ARF (hemodynamicaly mediated) NSAID, ACEI, ARB
drugs that induce ATN Contrast, Aminoglycosides, Amphotericin B
drugs that induce interstitial nephritis methicillin, NSAIDs
___ is used to dose drugs for renal patients creatinine clearance
Most renally eliminated drugs do not need dosage adjustment if a patients CrCl is > __ mls/min 70
most common pathogen responsible for UTI's E. coli
treatment for acute uncomplicated cystitis TMP-SMX
Created by: bwyche
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