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3S071 Vol 2
Self-Test Questions Unit 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| According to Joint Pub 1–02, DOD Dictionary of Military and Associated Terms, mobilization is defined as what? | The act of assembling & organizing national resources to support national objectives in time of war or other emergencies, and as the process by which the Armed Forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency. |
| Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) most often used the term mobilization as it applies to what types of mobilization? | Partial”, “full” or “total.” |
| Describe partial mobilization. | When active armed forces are expanded as the president declared to meet the requirements of war or other national emergencies involving an external threat to national security. |
| List the four mobilization tenets. | (1) Having an objective. (2) Maintaining unity of effort. (3) Being flexible. (4) Ensuring timeliness. |
| What is the goal of total force integration? | To provide the Air Force and the COCOMs the best possible capabilities to meet their requirements by leveraging the combined human resources of the Regular AF, Guard, and Reserve members; AF civilian employees; and AF contractors. |
| Describe mobilization planning. | The development of an overall force mobilization strategy, securing the decisions & legal authorizations to activate, call-up or mobilize forces, the I.D & validation of mobilization requirements. |
| What is covered in the planning process of involuntary activation? | All degrees of volunteerism, call-up, and mobilization in support of OPLANs as well as plans prepared to meet the needs created by crisis situations. |
| What does MPA man-days support? | Short-term needs of the active force when there is a need for temporary non- EAD personnel with unique skills or resources that cannot be economically met in the active force. |
| How are MPA man-days offered? | At the convenience of the government and to allow ARC members to receive authorized medical care or to be medically evaluated for retention. |
| Generally, MPA man-day tours are limited to how long? | 139 days or less, (either within or across an FY), including leave taken and travel days. |
| During contingency operations, what is the benefit of a MPA man-day tour? | All pay and allowances for Airmen are the same regardless of voluntary or involuntary activation. |
| How is leave computed for MPA man-day tours longer than 30 consecutive days? | Members accrue leave of 2.5 days per month. |
| What is the restriction of a MPA man-day tour for members between 18 and 20 years of active service? | They will not be placed on an MPA man-day tour if during that tour they will have between 18 and 20 years of active service towards a regular retirement (active duty retirement). |
| Define deactivation. | The process of terminating activation order, notifying individuals or units, and transferring individuals or units from federal active duty status to their previous reserve status. |
| Define demobilization. | Is the act of transitioning an individual or unit from a wartime posture to a state if peacetime preparedness. |
| Which agency does the deactivation processing for unit assigned Air National Guard and Reserves personnel? | The Guard and Reserve Component MPS. |
| Who has operational control of an individual who has been released to home station with a deactivation date established? | The Air National Guard and the Reserves, unless the individual has applied for retention on active duty or is pending UCMJ action or serving a sentence imposed by court martial authority. |
| Upon payment of a travel voucher, for what reason does the FSO travel pay section provide a legible copy of the voucher and all supporting documentation to military pay? | For entitlement verification and posting. |
| Members with approved hardship cases may be retained on active duty for what period of time? | A time up to but not to exceed the original activation period. |
| What are the four steps the servicing MPS takes when a member submits a hardship package? | (1) Conduct an initial interview. (2) Review the member’s package. (3) Update the personnel data system. (4) Properly distribute forms. |
| When is accountability of the total force exceptionally critical? | During natural disasters or national emergencies. |
| Wherever and whenever possible, personnel accountability procedures should follow what two things? | The chain of command and mirror normal day-to-day reporting procedures |
| What type of system can a commander use to make sure the individual members are aware of accountability requirements? | The recall system. |
| What are all AF installations and units required to have in place to ensure all personnel are accounted for during a natural disaster or emergency? | Recall and evacuation plans. |
| During a national crisis or natural disaster, what will the IPR hand out to their assigned base units? | An overall baseline product provided by HQ AFPC/PRC listing the names, social security numbers, and addresses of Air Force military and civilian personnel who are assigned to, or who live within, the projected area of concern. |
| In regards to family members, what may IPRs not in the impacted area of a national crisis or natural disaster receive? | A baseline listing from the Wing CAT/A1 identifying military members who have family members living in the area of concern (i.e., dependent children living with a former spouse) from their parent MAJCOM |
| What is AFPAAS? | A secure Web-based application that allows Air Force personnel and their families directly affected by a catastrophic event or crisis to request assistance if needed. |
| As the sole source for accountability actions, what does AFPAAS provide Air Force leadership? | Real-time feedback on the status of individuals impacted by a manmade or natural disaster. |
| When does accountability occur for personnel affected by a wide-spread catastrophic event? | When affected personnel report their whereabouts in AFPAAS or the unit CORs do it for them. |
| How are event announcements made? | Through established command and control processes to the major commands and subsequently to subordinate wing command centers and/or posts. |
| In preparation for disaster, what does HQ AFPC/PRC provide? | Baseline data periodically throughout the calendar year on a Web-based link |
| During a crisis emergency, who serves as the primary distribution and collection point for information regarding impacted threatened personnel? | HQ AFPC/PRC. |
| What does HQ AFPC/DPSIA have the authority to do during a crisis emergency? | Add or remove case managers, monitor cases (needs assessments), provide oversight during events, and make sure the family centers are assessing and providing ongoing support. |
| What are A&FRC case managers? | Consultants from across the Air Force who work closely with those affected by a crisis emergency. |
| What is the commander’s first initiative during a crisis emergency? | To make sure personnel complete accountability actions using AFPAAS when directed |
| The IPR makes which appointments in AFPAAS? | The GCC, NAF when appropriate, UCC CORs. |
| In regards to national crises or national disasters, what must individuals maintain? | Realistic and actionable evacuation plans. |
| What support matters are the PDF and IPR responsible to provide to the MPS? | (1) DAV information. (2) Deployed personnel accountability. (3) Duty status reporting for contingency, exercise, and deployments. |
| What are the four day-to-day readiness responsibilities of the IPR? | 1) Planning, 2) DCAPES systems, 3) accountability, and 4) deployment processing. |
| Who does the IPR work closely with to ensure the base’s installation deployment plan covers all aspects of processing and accounting for moving forces? | The IDO. |
| Within personnel readiness, what is the most important responsibility of the PDF? | Force accountability accuracy and its reporting. |
| What does the PCC provide the home station commander and the supporting MAJCOMs in support of plans requiring mass movement of forces? | A concise picture of force capabilities remaining at their home station to support other operations or missions. |
| Within the reception processing plan, the IPR element coordinates with the IDO to ensure what? | The reception processing plan contains adequate measures to in-process and account for all inbound forces. |
| Who does the jurisdiction of the PCC fall under? | The MPS commander or equivalent. |
| During an exercise, inspection, or a disaster, the IPR serve as what? | The PCC or PRC reporting directly to the battle staff. |
| What is PERSCO’s primary mission? | Total force accountability. |
| How do PERSCO teams deploy? | With minimum notice to operate as thinly manned, independent entities, or to augment the IPR in providing around-the-clock crucial force accountability and deployed personnel services. |
| What is personnel accountability? | The activity necessary to maintain accurate strength data on personnel resources that are currently at the deployed site as well as the personnel that are projected inbound and outbound from the deployed site. |
| What does the DRMD list? | The manpower and UTC requirements for sourcing and tasking for a TDY, contingency, or exercise deployment. |
| What does the ERMD identify? | The number and types of requirements projected to the deployed location. |
| List the five elements of total force accountability that must be tracked. | (1) Strength accountability. (2) Unit accountability (3) Replacement accountability. (4) Transient accountability. (5) Tasked wing accountability. |
| How is total force accountability done? | With GCCS-AF systems using DCAPES. |
| What is personnel reporting? | The activity necessary to provide personnel data to commanders and other decision makers. |
| What is preparation of movement? | The interchanging and recording of information between the individual, other agencies, and the personnel function necessary to ensure timely and accurate movement and reception of personnel resources. |
| Define shortfall. | The lack of forces, equipment, personnel, material, or capability reflected as the difference between the resources identified as a requirement for planning that would adversely affect the command’s ability to accomplish the mission. |
| What is the single most important item in the pre-planning phase of contingency operations? | Training. |
| What is the FSS commander’s responsibilities regarding training all PT members? | Developing a training plan, ensuring all task certifications on PERSCO training items are completed before AEF on-call window, and ensuring the training plan includes task certification for all GCCS-AF system identified operators before on-call window. |
| What does HQ USAF/A1PR have overall responsibility for during contingency operations? | Air Force personnel readiness and accountability programs and directives. |
| As reach back enablers, what does HQ AFPC/DPW plan and deliver during contingency operations? | Versatile Air and Space power to the right place at the right time to support COMAFFOR’s mission needs. |
| Who serves as the OPR for deployment availability codes and duty status reporting programs? | HQ AFPC/DPWR. |
| What is J–1 responsible for during contingency operations? | Synchronizing the efforts of service components to optimize personnel support to the joint force commander. |
| Without considering additional responsibilities, what is the wing commander responsible for during contingency operations? | Organizing, training, and equipping personnel UTCs to support AEF deployment requirements and making sure funds for personnel UTC training and equipment purchases are budgeted annually. |
| What does the MPS commander ensure the MPS provides during contingency, wartime, exercise, and emergency operations? | Prompt support to deployed commanders and base personnel. |
| What does the FSS UDM serve as during contingency operations? | The focal point for scheduling and documenting all initial and recurring ancillary deployment training and classified courier training for PT members. |
| To what locations can PTs be deployed? | Any place from which Air Force operations are being conducted, ranging from a main operating base to a bare base operation. |
| Who must continuously monitor and review PT requirements in specific contingency situations? | The component command personnel planner. |
| During the planning phase of a contingency operation, what are PT members required to do? | Pre-deployment actions to fulfill the deployment mission. |
| PT members are trained to what level during field operations? | “Go/No-Go” level. |
| How often should in-house training sessions be conducted and documented to ensure all team members receive training on all required areas within 12 months of initial assignment? | At least monthly |
| When does the Execution Planning Phase of a contingency operation begin? | When a real-world situation develops requiring AF personnel and resources to respond. |
| Upon receipt of a warning order, what should be reviewed, if available? | The current OPLAN/CONPLAN. |
| How often does the PT chief ensure the equipment custodian completes an inventory of supplies and equipment? | Annually. |
| How often does the PT chief brief the PERSCO responsibilities to all home station commanders with a deployment mission? | Annually. |
| Describe redeployment planning. | Redeployment planning is when the theater planning staff gathers to plan for the operation. |
| What happens when the PT departs the deployed location? | Centralized accountability for that location ceases and is transferred to the deployed unit commander who, in turn, reports to another PT identified by the component command. |
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