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3S071 Vol 3 UREs
3S071 CDCs
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The military member’s physical address at the time of joining a particular Service is considered their | home of record. |
| You may only have one legal residence at a time, but each time you are transferred to a new location you may change your | Residency |
| For voting purposes, when residing outside the United States (US), the address where you last resided immediately prior to your departure is considered your | Legal State of residence |
| Voting in an election for what type of office may not be used as the sole basis to determine residency for the purposes of imposing state and local taxes? | Federal |
| The Armed Forces may use military authority to | provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states. |
| Who is responsible for providing details on elections and recorded messages from candidates, governors, United Stated Senators and Representatives? | Voting Information Center staff. |
| Which organization has the responsibility to include the voting program as an annual item for review, to evaluate the effectiveness, and ensure compliance with Department of Defense (DOD) regulations and public law? | Air Force Inspector General Office |
| Who has the responsibility to ensure each base Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) completes a Federal Voting Assistance Program (FVAP) designated training workshop or media training course? | Major Command Staff. |
| When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the civilian’s minimum grade is | GS-12 |
| When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the military member’s minimum grade is | O-4 |
| Per every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint in writing one Unit Voting Assistance Counselor (UVAC), at the minimum grade of | E-7 |
| Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per adoptive child, up to | $2,000 |
| Married Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per calendar year, up to | $5,000 |
| Up to how many months after finalization of an adoption, can Service members submit a request for reimbursement of adoption expenses? | 12 |
| In unusual circumstances, it may be appropriate to honor deceased military members other than Air Force personnel (Army, Navy, or Marine Corps). In such instances, the approval authority is the | Air Force Chief of Staff |
| Which organization does not have the authority under the Air Force memorialization program to name streets, buildings, rooms and facilities? | Numbered Air Force |
| All requests under the Air Force memorialization program to name medical facilities must be staffed for approval by the | Air Force Chief of Staff |
| Which objective is not a Casualty Services Program objective? | Assist the family with funeral arrangements |
| Casualty reporting is an important responsibility function of | |
| Who has overall responsibility for the program objectives and for the management and operation of the Air Force Casualty Program? | Chief, Casualty Matters Division |
| Which organization ensures squadron commanders are provided casualty services information and training during the Commander’s Orientation Program? | Major Command |
| Ensuring all casualty services personnel at serviced GSU, and casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members are trained to handle supplemental instructions, messages for reporting casualties, and notification is the responsibility of the | Casualty assistance representative. |
| Once the casualty assistance representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, he or she provides the mortuary services officers and the public affairs (PA) office the member’s | name, age, home of record, race, and awards |
| In the case of a mass casualty, and by the order of the Force Support Squadron commander, who will the casualty assistance representative (CAR) contact? | Casualty team. |
| When a commander determines that a person’s absence is involuntary and there is insufficient evidence to declare the person deceased, the casualty status is known as | Missing (Non-Hostile) |
| What module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is the process in which we collect data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages? | Casualty Report. |
| The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward provides a user-friendly application designed to assist casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports without excessive | manual typing |
| The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward utilizes Microsoft Access for storing casualty information, and is designed to work on all computers as what type of application? | Stand Alone |
| After learning of a casualty, the casualty assistance representative (CAR) must ensure the casualty message is transmitted or delivered to the base telecommunications center as determined by AFPC/DPWCS, within how many hours? | 4 |
| If there is reportable information available on the casualty report that would be of interest to family members or of value to the addresses of the report, do not label any item | TO BE SUPPLEMENTED. |
| Who must obtain conclusive evidence before reporting the death of an individual? | Installation Commander |
| When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived? | Location of the incident |
| Which publication does not apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties? | AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services |
| For ill or injured casualties, what personal information may not be released without permission? | Gross pay and basic allowance for housing |
| For deceased casualties, what personal information may not be released? | Any information on the member's family |
| For Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN) and Missing casualties in peacetime, do not share personal information that pertains to | age and date of birth |
| Which system advertises requirements for special duty assignments, joint and departmental assignments, short-notice overseas (OS) assignments, and all CMSgt assignments? | EQUAL-Plus |
| When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel (RIP) from HQ AFPC, how many calendar days does the outbound assignment technician have to verify the member’s eligibility? | 7 |
| If there is a permanent change of station (PCS) ineligibility condition and there is no indication a waiver or exception has been granted, what action will the military personnel section (MPS) take regarding the assignment selection? | reclama the assignment and not forward RIP |
| Once the unit commander receives the assignment report on individual personnel (RIP) on a member, how many calendar days does he or she have before the RIP is required back to the Military Personnel Section (MPS)? | 14 |
| For short-notice assignments of 90 calendar days or less until the report no later than date (RNLTD), the Career Development element and unit notification periods are reduced to how many calendar days? | 3 |
| After the Assignment Notification report on individual personnel (RIP) is forwarded to the unit commander, the initial relocation briefing is conducted within how many calendar days? | 15 |
| Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment? | 63 |
| If a member’s assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element staff forward to the member’s commander? | Security requirement memorandum. |
| The Career Development element personnelist will provide all members relocating overseas with the opportunity to elect tour options on the AF IMT | 965 |
| Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element publishes permanent change of station (PCS) orders not later than how many days prior to departure? | 60 |
| If a member has a permanent change of station (PCS) to a stateside assignment, he or she can out-process no earlier than how many duty days prior to departure date? | 1 |
| Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they will access Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) secure website and complete the online | Initial Separation Briefing |
| Which is not a reason that warrants an administrative separation? | Progressively downward trend in performance ratings. |
| Which discharge is considered an admirable reflection that the member has satisfactorily completed a commitment to military service? | Honorable |
| When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable military standards, the characterization for discharge is | Under Other Than Honorable Conditions |
| Without retaining for six months, who may directly discharge an officer that is considered a threat to good order and discipline? | Secretary of the Air Force |
| Administrative discharge for cause applies to officers who fail to meet the prescribed standards of performance and conduct, for misconduct, moral or professional dereliction, and when they | pose a threat to national security. |
| What should rarely be the deciding factor in making a recommendation on a tendered resignation as a result of a pending court-martial? | Expense |
| When an officer is retirement eligible and desires to retire in an officer status, how many years of Total Active Federal Commissioned Service (TAFCS) must he or she have? | 10 |
| In order for a military member to obtain a critical personnel reliability program (PRP) position, that member must possess all of these attributes except | is armed and assigned duties to protect and/or guard nuclear weapons. |
| For personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program (PRP) position, they must possess all of these attributes except | has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors. |
| Within how many work days following the review of a permanent decertification, does the reviewing official (RO) notify the individual and certifying official (CO) of the findings and conclusion? | 15 |
| Which commander is responsible for representing the reviewing official (RO) on personnel reliability program (PRP) matters and appointing an installation monitor to assist in PRP duties? | Force support squadron. |
| Making judgment on the reliability factors of each individual identified for personnel reliability program (PRP) duties is the responsibility of the | certifying official |
| Coordinating with the security manager to ensure personnel reliability program (PRP) personnel security investigation (PSI) requests are submitted in a timely and accurate manner, and followed up for adjudication is the responsibility of the | unit PRP monitor |
| If the reviewing official (RO) needs to review the medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program (PRP) to determine disqualifying conditions, he or she works with the | competent medical authority |
| When it becomes necessary to consider an individual for a critical position under the personnel reliability program (PRP) and the required investigation has not yet been completed, the member may receive certification as | interim |
| Traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or decertification of individuals from the personnel reliability program (PRP) do not include | advising supervisors of factors that may have an adverse impact on your performance |
| The promotion cycle begins with Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) database where the eligibility file is | created |
| What action begins with the announcement by AFPC/DPSOE via a Personnel Delivery Memorandum (PSDM) with processing instructions for that upcoming cycle? | Promotion file build. |
| Before the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) testing cycle begins, HQ AFPC flows a request for career development course (CDC) reference material for each promotion eligible Airman to the | Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA). |
| The system used to select and classify individuals and assess their skills and knowledge in various areas is called | Air Force Military Personnel Testing System (AFMPTS). |
| For promotions to SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt, Airmen compete and test under the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) in their | Control Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC). |
| Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name | MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country |
| Who issues written instructions to officer selection boards to announce competitive categories, promotion zones, eligibility, and selection criteria? | Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF). |
| The fundamental purpose of an officer promotion is to select officers through a process that is | fair and competitive. |
| Which element or function identifies all assigned officers and verifies their eligibility status for promotion? | Career Development element. |
| The Career Development element staff issues written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of this information except | name and rank of the board president. |
| Which organization implements the approved promotion program through a fair and impartial process to ensure the officer corps has confidence in the integrity of the selection process? | Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). |
| Which document contains personnel assigned, position numbers, duty Air Force specialty codes (DAFSC), authorized grades, functional account codes, personnel accounting symbols, and required security clearance levels? | Unit personnel management roster (UPMR). |
| Which document is used to outline the Military Personnel Section (MPS) requirements to ensure personnel are assigned a valid position number, and to facilitate timely and accurate input of current data after a member’s arrival? | Initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet. |
| A product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train, and promote to in the execution of its wartime and peacetime mission describes the | unit manpower document (UMD). |
| The percentage between the numbers assigned with the numbers authorized on the unit manpower document (UMD) will give you the manning | strength. |
| Duty status reporting is event oriented and serves as a personnel function of | accounting. |
| Regarding contingency, exercise, or deployment duty status reporting, which is not a deployment availability code (DAV) category? | Personal. |
| When there is a need to initiate routine duty status change requests into the Case Management System (CMS), what system will your commander utilize? | Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM). |
| An initial Air Force specialty code (AFSC) classification is given to a military member upon their completion of | technical training. |
| Designating the primary Air Force specialty code (PAFSC) for each officer and enlisted Airman is the responsibility of the | Military Personnel Section (MPS). |
| When determining the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that an individual is most qualified to perform in; one that reflects their skill level, experience, complexity, education and training, equipment, and interests is called their | primary. |
| When awarding an enlisted Air Force specialty code (AFSC), which factor is not a criteria for eligibility? | Special duty submission. |
| Changes to the control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) other than initial, retraining, normal skill-level upgrade, and special duty identifier (SDI) actions are reviewed for propriety by both the gaining and losing | Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) assignment managers. |
| Who has the authority to authorize the use of personnel outside their control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) up to 130 days in a 12-month period? | Force Management Operations element. |
| The base monitor is responsible to conduct unit unfavorable information file (UIF) training | annually. |
| How many duty days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions of a UIF and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his or her final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF? | 3 |
| When performing system updates, it is crucial to ensure the correct code is applied for the correct incident, duration, and for the correct person. Which code would you use in MilPDS to reflect a member on a control roster? | 2 |
| Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a member has an Article 15 with suspended punishment? | 3 |
| Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a member has an unfavorable information file (UIF) only? | 1 |
| What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions? | G |
| What assignment availability codes (AAC) are associated with adverse actions? | 12 and 16. |
| Which type(s) of court-martial only tries enlisted service members? | summary court-martial (SCM) only. |
| The total force development program will produce a total force and guide development through levels of leadership. Which is not considered a level of leadership? | Functional. |
| If you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force professional military education (PME) and formal training, what system would you use? | Oracle training administration (OTA). |
| Oracle Training Administration (OTA) is used for all of these formal training requirements except | establishing |
| The policy on TLNs is focused on the formal training office being located in FSS under the Force Development flight. If the formal training office is located outside FSDE who is responsible for the requirements outlined in this process? | The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE. |
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