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2S051 Vol 1
Self Test
Question | Answer |
---|---|
1. What publication describes the general duties and responsibilities for materiel management | AFI 36-2101. |
2. List the seven general duties and responsibilities of a materiel management specialist as they are outlined in Enlisted Classification | (1) Perform administrative and management functions (2) Inspect and evaluate inventory management activities. (3) Inspect and identify property.(4) Provide support to maintenance activities.(5) Perform technical materiel functions.(6) Issue, ship, and |
1. Which program was created to promote a better understanding of the whole supply system | Wholesale Logistics Program. |
2. What rank is required to qualify for the logistics career broadening program | TSgt or MSgt. |
3. Who handles all enlisted issues for a major command for the 2S career field | MAJCOM functional manager (MFM). |
4. Who chairs the Air Force Supply Chiefs Advisory Board and is key to the education and training path of our enlisted force | Career field manager (CFM). |
1. What is eLog21 | The eLog21 is the Air Force transformation campaign plan to improve logistics to meet both the current and future threat environment. |
2. What is the goal of Integrated Processes | To create unified, enterprise-wide processes that cut across organizations and geographies to deliver the right support, to the right place, at the right time, every time. |
1. Which source of supply is responsible for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system | AFMC. |
2. Which agency has responsibility for providing supply support throughout the DOD | DLA. |
3. What is a GPC | It is the official government credit card for making authorized purchases of supplies, equipment, and nonpersonal services costing up to $2,500.00. |
4. Define local manufacture | Item fabricated by a maintenance activity on base. |
1. How many categories are supplies grouped in | Ten. |
2. What is Class IV’s major classification | Construction. |
1. What is the AFGLSC | The AFGLSC is the central process-driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the Expeditionary Logistics for the Twenty-first Century (eLog21) campaign. |
2. What are the three primary functions of the AFGLSC | SC Planning and Execution, SC Operations, and SC Strategy and Integration. |
3. How many organizations make up the AFGLSC | Three. |
1. List the four supply major processes | Item accounting, file maintenance, reports, and accounting and finance. |
2. Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the item record requested, to include interchangeables and substitutes | Due-out process. |
3. What four types of transactions activate the due-out release process | Receipt, a turn-in, an inclusion of new items in an interchangeable family of items, or an inventory adjustment. |
4. List the 11 major processes in the file maintenance function | (1) Status. (2) Follow-up.(3) Inventory (4) Special level.(5) Equipment in-use. (6) New item record load.(7) Mission change special level. (8) Miscellaneous file maintenance.(9) SNUD. (10) ISG.(11) MRSP and MSK. |
5. What are the five different types of reports | (1) Daily. (2) Monthly.(3) Quarterly (4) As-required.(5) Utility. |
6. What major processes are involved in the A&F process | Requisitioning and status, receipts, issue/turn-in, shipments, billings, and file maintenance. |
1. What is the purpose of AFMAN 23-110 | To establish a uniform system of stock control throughout the Air Force. |
2. How often is the USAF Supply Manual published | Quarterly, in conjunction with the materiel management system software releases in January, April, July,and October. |
3. Which volume and part of AFMAN 23-110 is used most by materiel management personnel | Volume 2, part 2. |
4. What are three ways of navigating through AFMAN 23-110 | Table of contents, hyperlinks, search/find tools. |
5. How are changes in AFMAN 23-110 identified | By the SUMMARY OF CHANGES, dark red text, and a change bar on the left-hand side of the paragraph. |
1. What is an NSN | A 13-character alpha numeric number associated with a specific item. |
2. What two entities make up the National Stock Number | The Federal Supply Class (FSC) and the National Item Identification Number (NIIN). |
1. What are the four major types of computer inquiries | Item record, detail record, part number record, and other records. |
2. What type of inquiry is used when detail records are to be read out for a specific document number | Detail record is used when detail records are to be read out for a specific document number. |
3. What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse | M32. |
4. What type of codes is used on an item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the computer | Record retrieval. |
5. What information is shown on line one of an inquiry output | Your input image. |
6. In what format is the information on an inquiry output displayed | Narrative. |
7. What information is provided from a part number inquiry | The NSN, cage code, and technical order (TO) associated with that particular number. |
8. What record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle data | 5. |
9. What releveling flag is used on an inquiry to obtain requirements computation data for a given stock number | R. |
1.How far back can users query CTH records | One year or more. |
2. What are the three CTH inquiry input formats | (1) Stock number.(2) Transaction serial number.(3) Batch miscellaneous option inquiry. |
3. What is the basic difference between a short and long CTH inquiry output | The short format displays the information either on the terminal screen or as a printed report; the long output format displays the information only as a printed report. |
1. What three elements make up a reject phrase | (1) A reject code.(2) A descriptive phrase.(3) An action flag. |
2. When you receive a reject, what should you do first | Ensure that you put all the data in correctly. |
3. What source do you use to find the corrective action needed to clear a reject | AFMAN 23-110, volume 2, part 2, chapter 7. |
4. Within what time frame should all rejects be processed | One workday unless there are specific reasons that prohibit correction. |
5. What product is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner | D818. |
6. Which option in the reject processor computer program is used to force-delete a reject image | 3. |
7. Who must ensure that controls are established to make sure that forced-deletions of rejects are processed for only valid reasons | Flight chief. |
8. Why should you periodically analyze the type of rejects incurred, timeliness of processing, and the volume and reasons for forced-deletion processing | To determine effectiveness of transaction processing. |
9. What is the difference between a reject and a management notice | Management notices do not stop computer processing. |
1. What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled TRICs | Controlled TRICs require authorization to process, uncontrolled TRICs do not. |
2. Who determines what transactions can be processed within the flights | Flight chiefs. |
3. What is the result of any attempt to process a controlled TRIC by an unauthorized user | A 301 reject notice. |
4. What product does the management and systems officer use to monitor unauthorized TRIC processing | D20, part 8. |
1. What documents must support the production scheduling of all reports and listings | Specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110, an approved supplement, or an AF Form 2011. |
2. Within what time period must you return the annotated forecast listings to the production scheduler | By the 15th workday of the same month. |
3. What form is used to submit permanent changes for production forecasting | AF Form 2011 |
4. The personnel in what activity ensure that management reports and listings are complete andaccurate | Computer operations function. |
1. Explain the concept of SMAG | A revolving fund (or working capital fund) that finances inventories of required military materiel and generates income by selling the materiel. |
2. Under what operating principle is the SMAG designed to operate | No-profit and no-loss basis. |
3. How many SMAGs are there within DOD | Five. |
4. How many divisions make up the Air Force SMAG | Six. |
1. How often does the procedures element conduct surveillance visits | At least annually. |
2. As a minimum, what information must be included on all checklists used to conduct a surveillance visit | All discrepancies identified within the past two years. |
3. Why is the review of management products coordinated with the analysis element | To be sure they are not preparing reports on the same problems and training requirements. |
4. What is the purpose of a customer support visit | To determine if customers are receiving quality support; and if not, where support is unsatisfactory. |
1. What section is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring DIREPs | Procedures element or, at the option of the accountable officer, the computer operations section. |
2. List the four DIREP categories | (1) Major impact. (2) Severe problem.(3) Chronic problem (4) Cosmetic error. |
3. What category DIREP is normally corrected immediately | Category I, Major Impact. |
4. What three members are usually required to submit a thoroughly researched and documented DIREP | The user, ADPE materiel management systems monitor, and DIREP monitor. |
1. What purpose does the analysis program serve | To determine the materiel management account’s effectiveness. |
2. What are the three types of analysis | (1) Trend analysis(2) Problem analysis(3) Special studies. |
3. What analysis method is used to satisfy a one-time requirement, or to solve a specific problem | Special studies. |
4. Define the term management indicator. | A performance measure that represents a key result. |
5. After gathering your data, what is the next step in performing an analysis | To identify unfavorable deviations or deficiencies in the materiel management account. |
6. What is one important cause of unfavorable deficiencies that should be identified, when applicable? Who must be notified to get them resolved | Training deficiencies; training element and procedures element. |
1. What does the term degraded operation mean | Describes the procedures used when the materiel management computer is down. |
2. Who is responsible for ensuring that customer support does not end when the computer is down | Each individual. |
3. Which text code is used on issue request when assets are available during degraded operations | TEX 6. |
4. Which text code is used to create memo due-outs during special requisitioning | TEX 7. |
5. When does recovery take place and what does it involve | Once the computer is back online. It involves processing all the degraded operations input documents. |
1. How do you perform a QC check | By comparing the source document with the DCR. |
2. What information on source documents must be compatible with the DCR for QC | Document number, stock number, quantity, unit of issue, and system designator. |
3. What document file code is used to indicate a source document is to be filed? Destroyed? | F. D. |
4. When justified, what method, other than filing, may be used to store source documents | Microfilm. |
1. What are the two forms of the Consolidated Transaction Register | Register form and microfiche. |
2. How long does document control maintain a copy of the D04 on disk | Two years. |
3. What product is used as a historical document showing the status of the materiel management system database after establishing a new materiel management account | The Conversion Audit List (R22). |
4. How long does document control keep the cover letter and 1WC listing in the file | Two years. |
5. How is the shipment loss analysis (M16) filed | By fiscal year. |
6. Within what time frame must the M10 be filed | Within 30 days of the date it was prepared. |
1. What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program | To ensure that an item has been shipped. |
2. When is a shipment-suspense detail created | When shipments and transfers process through the LRS. |
3. What are two purposes of the shipment-suspense detail | To provide a medium for recording transportation data applicable to the shipment and to allow the computer to respond automatically to shipment follow-ups on directed shipments. |
4. Without CMOS, what input is used to update a shipment-suspense detail | TRIC SSC. |
5. How are SSC inputs made to the materiel management system by bases operating with the CMOS interface | By electronic interface with the Traffic Management Flight. |
6. What listing is used to monitor delinquent shipment-suspense details | R40. |
1. What elements are responsible for processing RVP inputs | Document control, repair cycle support, inventory, and customer service. |
2. Reverse-posting transactions involving price and price-change errors are limited to what two conditions | When the amount of the unit price change exceeds $99.99, or when the unit price change variance is 500 percent or greater and the extended cost is more than $99.99. |
3. Once you have determined that RVP action is needed, what is the first step that you normally take | Perform research. |
4. What determines the number of transactions that require reverse-posting | The number of transactions associated with the error and those caused by the error. |
5. What activity assigns freeze code Q and notifies the activity responsible for the initial input on a reverse-post | The activity finding the error. |
6. How is freeze code Q deleted for all TRICs except DOR | Automatically by the RVP program once the RVP transaction has successfully processed. |
7. What is annotated on the output DD Form 1348-1A that is produced as a result of RVP processing | The date and transaction serial numbers reversed. |
8. What transactions may be reverse-posted using automated RVP procedures | Only transactions that have been converted to CTH records. |
9. What information is required to process an automated RVP | TTPC, date, and serial number of the transaction being reverse posted. |
10. What must you do with all prefilled data on the automated RVP screen before input | Review for accuracy. |