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BIOL237

QuestionAnswer
The layer missing from thin skin stratum lucidum
The layer which constantly exfoliates stratum corneum
Its cells contain numerous keratin filaments stratum spinosum
This layer undergoes constant mitosis stratum basale
Its cells contain dense keratin granules stratum granulosum
gap junctions Allows ions to pass between cells. These allow osteocytes to exchange calcium ions.
tight junctions Called the zona occludens because it blocks passage of substances between cells. Their presence is responsible for making a cellular membrane semi-permeable.
desmosome Called macula adherens because they are like spot welds which adhere cells together
keratin filaments fibers which hold cells together laterally
hemidesmosome adheres cells to the basement membrane (attach epithelial cells to the basement membrane)
Which of the following forms the structure of the intervertebral disks? fibrocartilage
Which of the following is NOT one of the basic tissue types into which all other tissues fall: Loose
osteoclasts are stimulated by: parathyroid hormone
The cell derived from osteoprogenitor cells which produces ossification is the: osteoblast
Insufficient _____ is associated with osteoporosis. Vitamin D3
The first location of ossification in long bones is the: diaphysis bone collar
The olfactory nerves pass through the ____ of the _____ on their way to the brain. cribriform plate, ethmoid bone
The _____ are intracapsular ligaments which help to prevent anteroposterior displacement and twisting of the knee. anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
All true diarthrotic joints have a joint capsule composed of: synovial membrane
The type of arthritis which begins with damage to articular cartilage from stress or injury is called: osteoarthritis
The series elastic elements of a muscle are composed of the various connective tissues and proteins including the protein _____. titin
In order to produce an action potential on the sarcolemma, depolarization at the neuromuscular junction must activate: voltage-gated ion channels
Movement in which the thigh is raised toward (lifted forward against) the abdomen (torso) is _____ of the hip. flexion
What is the origin of melanocytes? Neural crest cells (or nervous tissue)
What features of the epidermis function to protect against mutation and tumor production due to exposure to UV radiation? The presence of melanin and apoptosis.(Not the presence of keratohyaline.
What characteristic of melanocytes makes them the most likely to metastasize of all skin cell types? Ability to migrate.
In order to metastasize from the skin a cell must break through the: Basement membrane.
Osteoclasts are similar to monocytes in being phagocytic, but they differ from monocytes in that: They digest the target particles externally, not internally.
Bone remodeling never ceases throughout a person's life, although the breakdown can exceed buildup in bone demineralization disorders. True. When bone breaks down faster than it builds up a person gets disorders such as osteoporosis.
The bone built by osteoblasts is totally mature and doesn't need to be further remodeled. False, it is considered immature and must be further remodeled in order to achieve its maximum strength and functionality.
Which of the following is true about bone maintenance units: They are the areas of bone being remodeled at any given time. About 10 bmus will fit into a total bone area of about a millimeter. Over a time period of about 2 yrs, all bmus in the skeleton will have been remodeled.
The trabeculae in a subject with post-menopausal osteoporosis: Have more frequent active bmus. Have deeper resorption cavities. Have gaps that are not ossified.
The function of ECM (extracellular matrix) is to: Provide a substrate on which the patients own cells can grow. Provide growth factors to stimulate cell growth.
Because ECM is very similar between different species there is little chance of rejection when transplanting porcine ECM into the human body. This is true. Not only is it similar it is very inert to begin with.
Unlike most phagocytic cells, these release their digestive enzymes outside the cell. osteoclasts
These cells are actively secreting the matrix: fibroblasts
The symphysis pubis is composed of: fibrocartilage
The last location within a long bone to harden is the: distal epiphyseal plate
The component responsible for the hardness and rigidity of bone is (What is the name of the chemical substance which is most abundant in inorganic bone matrix?): hydroxyapatite
This hormone stimulates closure (hardening) of the epiphyseal plates and end to growth of the long bones. estrogen
The hormone which is thought to stimulate uptake of calcium into bone tissue in children (While this may work for bone growth in children, it is not present in adults): calcitonin
Post-menopausal osteoporosis is characterized by ___ parathyroid hormone in the blood. Lower than normal
Senile (age-related) osteoporosis is characterized by ___ calcium levels in the blood. Lower than normal
estrogen This is deficient in post-menopausal women. The primary component in hormone replacement therapy used to treat post-menopausal osteoporosis.
testosterone this is used as an anabolic steriod to stimulate growth.
Growth Hormone When abused as a supplement, this can cause Linked to acromegaly and a form of type II diabetes. This hormone has effects which block insulin in the body.
Parathyroid hormone This is suppressed by high calcium in post-menopausal osteoporosis. This is at high levels in senile osteoporosis.
Vitamin D3 This is produced in insufficient amounts in senile osteoporosis. This, together with calcium supplements, is given to treat senile osteoporosis.
Skin is designated as thick if it: Has the stratum lucidum
The intervertebral disks are composed of: fibrocartilage
Microvilli increase area on the _____ surface. apical
The component of connective tissues responsible for maintaining hydration is: proteoglycans
Low _____ and high _____ is a characteristic of senile osteoporosis. Vitamin D3, PTH
Scar tissue is the repair seen in: areolar tissue, tendons and ligaments (but not bone)
Low _____ and high _____ is a characteristic of post-menopausal osteoporosis. PTH, serum calcium
The first step in repair of most tissues and organs is: Production of a hematoma.
Briefly explain why calcium supplements would be given in senile osteoporosis, but not post-menopausal osteoporosis. There are already high levels of serum calcium in post-menopausal osteoporosis, but due to the lack of Vitamin D, calcium absorption is low in senile osteoporosis. So calcium and Vitamin D supplements are given.
Briefly explain the difference in perception and distribution on the body of Merkel Disks vs. Meissner's Corpuscles. Merkel disks are fine discriminative touch receptors concentrated on tips of fingers and around lips. Meissner's corpuscles are non-discriminative/crude touch receptors found not only on fingers, palms, soles, lips, areolae, but generally all over skin.
The ability of a blind person to feel braille markings is due to the _____ _____. (Name of the receptor, plural form) merkel disks (or merkel discs)
The processes of osteocytes travel through small canals known as _____ in order to connect with one another. Use plural form of anatomical term. canaliculi
What component of the bone matrix is most important in providing resistance to stress? organic materials
Collagen fibers which form a continuous connection from the periosteum to the bone are called? Sharpey's fibers
Most bones begin their ossification as: Hyaline cartilage
In both ossification and bone repair, chondroblasts become _____, the cell important in building up new bone. Osteoblasts
In both ossification and bone remodeling, osteoblasts become _____, the cell which maintains bone. Osteocytes
The hormone responsible for calcium homeostasis is: Parathyroid hormone
When is someone most likely to experience problems with the temporo-mandibular joint? TMJ disorder usually occurs in young people and disappears as the bones mature. In older adults it results mostly from teeth grinding and clenching and can be corrected with behavior adaptation or oral appliances.
What is the function of the nasal conchae? Increase the surface area of the nasal lining.
What is the function of the paranasal sinuses? Make the bone lighter.
What is most important in supporting the shoulder while allowing great range in motion? Muscles.
Medial and lateral collateral ligaments are found in: Hinge joints
This movement, in which the head is lifted away from the chest is ____ of the head. extension
What is the smallest unit in a muscle which can shorten? The sarcomere
What is the direct trigger for the exposure of the active sites on actin? Ca+2 released into the sarcoplasm
What happens as a direct result of Ach stimulating receptors on the sarcolemma? Na+ enters the sarcoplasm.
When which ion gates open does the action potential begin? Voltage-gated Na+ channels
Where does the calcium come from which triggers crossbridge formation? The sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following cells produces the myelin sheath in the CNS? Oligodendrocytes
Which of the following cells is important in nerve fiber regeneration? Schwann cells
A structure in the CNS that is analogous with a nerve? Tract
Which tract carries pain, temperature, touch and pressure? Spinothalamic
Which tracts reach the cerebral cortex? Spinothalamic and Fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus
There are how many pair of spinal nerves? 31
The femoral nerve arises from which plexus? Lumbar
The axillary nerve arises from which plexus? Brachial
The sciatic nerve forms which of the following? Tibial and peroneal (fibular)
Which part of the brain is the origin of upper motor neurons? Pre-central gyrus
Which part of the brain would receive stimuli from the spinothalamic tract? Post-central gyrus
Which part of the brain would connect to both auditory areas and Broca’s area? Wernicke’s area
Too much dopamine, or malformation of which part is believed to be a cause of schizophrenia? Pre-frontal lobe
Lack of dopamine secreted into the _____ is the cause of Parkinson’s? Basal Nuclei
Which part facilitates reflexes of a skilled and repetitive nature? Basal nuclei
Which part would contain the reflex center for blinking? Corpora qadrigemina (or Superior Colliculi)
Which part contains the respiratory center? Medulla
Which part controls most endocrine glands? Hypothalamus
Visual signals would travel to which parts? Pineal Gland, thalamus, superior colliculi of midbrain, occipital lobe
The part of the limbic system which activates fear and other emotional responses: Amygdala
What is the anatomical term for the semimovable joints? Amphiarthroses
Both hinge and pivot joints are: Uniaxial
Biaxial joints and multiaxial joints can perform which of the following movements that uniaxial joints cannot perform. Adduction-abduction and circumduction
What two parts come together to produce the hinge joint at the elbow? Trochlea (on humerus) and semilunar (or trochlear) notch (on ulna)
In addition to the articular capsule, what other structures possess a synovial membrane? Tendon sheaths and bursae
Which type of ligaments is more important for holding bones in their normal position at a joint? Extracapsular
Which of the following is important in preventing tendons from moving out of their normal position? Retinaculum (medial patellar retinaculum in knee, flexor retinaculum in wrist)
The agonist for extension of the head would be the Splenius capitus
The area around the origin of which of the following is inflammed in lateral epicondylitis: Extensor carpi radialis longus
Which of the following is important in preventing water loss from the skin? Sebaceous glands
Which of the following contains the pituitary gland? The sella turcica
What bone is the only bone in the body that doesn't articulate directly with any other bone? the hyoid bone
This hormone, present in both males and females, is important for bone maintenance and remodeling. Estrogen
What is the first major stage of repair in simple fractures? hematoma formation
Where in the body can you find elastic cartilage? Cartilage of the external ear
Canals that lie at right angles to the long axis of the bone and connect the blood and nerve supply of the periosteum to the central canal and medullary cavity are known as: Volkman's canals
The patellar ligament connects the patella to: Tibia (tibial tuberosity)
The most important action of the rectus femoris muscle is on the: Tibia
What is the name of the joint injury when a bone becomes dislocated from its position in the socket of the joint? luxation
Which type of muscle is found in layers of the mucous membranes of the respiratory and digestive systems? Visceral (single unit smooth muscle)
Cardiac muscle cells allow an impulse to pass through the entire network of cells due to: gap junctions
The tissue important in insulation and shock absorption is: Adipose
In order for a process to be self-regulated it would use: Negative feedback
Calcium supplements would not be advised in the early treatment of: Post-menopausal osteoporosis
Which muscles are the agonist and antagonist for head flexion? Sternocleidomastoid, splenius capitus
Rotation of the head would accompany: Sternocleidomastoid working unilaterally
Which muscles are the agonist and antagonist for thigh flexion? Iliopsoas, gluteus maximus
Which muscle is the antagonist of the gluteus maximus Iliopsoas
Which muscles are the agonist and antagonist for shoulder abduction? Deltoid, pectoralis major
What muscle plantar-flexes the foot? Gastrocnemius and fibularis (peroneus) longus
Which muscle fixes the knee in an extended position? Rectus femoris
Which cranial nerve(s) mediate taste? Facial and Glossopharyngeal
Which cranial nerve(s) are part of cardiac control? Vagus and Glossopharyngeal
Which cranial nerve(s) produce salivation? Facial and Glossopharyngeal
Which is not a parasympathetic nerve? Trigeminal
Which is not a parasympathetic function? Forceful contraction of GI sphincters
Copious secretion of sweat in thermoregulation is: Sympathetic
The receptors on eccrine sweat glands are: Cholinergic muscarinic
Vasodilation of blood vessels leading to the skeletal muscles, heart, lungs, and skin is: Sympathetic
All of the previous functions except vasodilation to the skeletal muscles are: Adrenergic beta
Which junction produces a semipermeable membrane? Tight junctions
Which tissue principally lines the respiratory tract? Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
Which tissue(s) are found in the dermis? Areolar ct and Dense irregular ct
Which tissue is found in the epiglottis? Elastic cartilage
Endochondal ossification begins with: Fibrous connective tissue
Which type of osteoporosis has too much PTH: Senile
Which hinge joint is composed of three bones: Knee
Which of the following has intracapsular ligaments: Knee and Hip
The primary abductor of the shoulder: Deltoid
Where is calcium important in muscle contraction: Exocytosis of acetylcholine at NMJ, Trigger for movement of troponin-tropomyosin
Which of these produces the myelin sheath in nerves: Schwann cell
The first order neuron in every reflex pathway is: Unipolar
Which tracts have third order neurons? Spinothalamic and Fasciculus gracilis
Which of the following correctly describes a pathway for anterior thigh pain: Femoral nerve, lumbar plexus, spinothalamic tr.
Which part of the brain initiates skeletal muscle contraction: Pre-central gyrus
Which type of tissue is important for holding most of the body’s water: Areolar
Which two of these are found in the dermis of the skin and in mucous membranes? Areolar and Dense irregular
Which substance is most important in hydration of connective tissues: Proteoglycans
Which layer of the skin contains the most numerous desmosomes? stratum spinosum
Which junction allows cells to exchange materials directly with one another gap junctions
Which tissue lines most of the gastrointestinal tract? simple columnar
Merkel disks send information through which of the following spinal tracts fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus
Information originating in the vestibule and semicircular canals would ultimately reach the lower motor neurons through which of the following: extrapyramidal
The joint between the atlas and axis is a: pivot joint
Which of the following can exhibit flexion and extension? condyloid joint, hinge joint, and ball-and-socket joint
Primary muscle for flexing the thigh: iliopsoas
Primary muscle for abducting the thigh: tensor fasciae latae and gluteus minimus and medius
Primary muscle for extending the knee: rectus femoris
What type of ion channels are needed to generate an action potential? voltage-gated
Where are chemically-gated channels found? On dendrites and cell body to axon hillock
Where are voltage-gated channels found? From axon hillock to axon terminus
What causes the actin-myosin crossbridges to attach and then swivel? calcium is released into the sarcoplasm
Which type of muscle fiber responds to appropriate training by building myofibrils? white
Which glial cell would be found associated with the choroid plexus? ependymal cells
Which type of neuron is only found in the special senses? bipolar
A muscle contracts, producing a reflex (as part of repetitive and reciprocal movements). The reflex would be _____. It would cause the first muscle to be ___ and its antagonist to be ___ tendon; inhibited, activated
If many EPSPs from different neurons all add together to produce threshold depolarization, the type of summation which is occurring is: spatial
An IPSP occurring at the same time which prevents spatial summation from reaching threshold produces a condition known as: inhibition
The neuron carrying an impulse from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex travels in the: corona radiata
If the information transmitted is from pain in the jaw, it will ultimately reach the: inferior post-central gyrus
The part of the brain malfunctioning in dyslexia is the: Wernicke’s area
Visual stimuli will reach the: visual cortex, pineal gland, superior colliculi, thalamus
The center for the fear response is the: amygdala
Which cranial nerve(s) control muscles of facial expression? Facial
Which cranial nerve(s) control chewing? Trigeminal
Which cranial nerve carries the sense of balance? VIII
Which cranial nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid? spinal accessory
Which sensory mode has receptors which replace themselves over time? Taste and Olfaction
Which part of the eye is most important in bending the light rays? Cornea
Glaucoma is due to excessive pressure in which part of the eye? Aqueous humor
Secretion of apocrine glands in sexual arousal is: Sympathetic
Which of these is the area of sharpest vision? Fovea centralis
Which of these has all of the color receptors? Choroid
Which tissue is found as the stroma of soft organs? Reticular ct
Which tissue forms the symphysis pubis? Fibrocartilage
Endochondal ossification occurs in all the following except the: (wrist, long, cranial, calcaneus) Cranial bones
Which type of osteoporosis has too much blood calcium: Post-menopausal
Which set of movements occurs at a pivot joint: supination-pronation
Which of the following is released into the neuromuscular junction to bind to receptors on the sarcolemma? ACh
What occurs after ACh is released into the neuromuscular junction to bind to receptors on the sarcolemma? Na+ enters the muscle cell causing depolarization
Depolarization must reach the _____ in order to produce an action potential on the sarcolemma. Voltage-gated Na+ channels
The action potential travels next to the: T-tubules
A complex composed of which molecules blocks the active sites of actin, preventing crossbridge formation? tropomyosin-troponin
At what point is ATP taken up from the sarcoplasm? The detachment of the myosin from actin
Which of the following is true about creatine phosphate? It is produced from ATP and creatine during periods of rest and it must be reconverted to ATP during muscle contraction.
In comparing White fibers and Red fibers, which selection would best describe White fibers: Stores glycogen for conversion to glucose, depends on anaerobic metabolism, larger in diameter, used for speed and strength
The first 15 seconds of anaerobic contractions rely on _____ for energy. Phosphagen system
What muscle is most important for fixating the foot during standing? Soleus
The soleus would rely on mostly _____ motor units with predominantly _____ fibers. Large, red
Which muscle fixes the thigh in an extended position? Gluteus maximus
The ligament responsible for preventing anterior movement of the femur against the tibia is: posterior cruciate ligament
desmosomes These help to prevent epidermal cells from pulling apart when the skin is stretched
adherens junctions play a small role in holding cells together
osteomalacia A demineralization disorder of bones occurring in adults with calcium deficiency.
rickets A bone malformation disorder of bones occurring in children with calcium deficiency.
acromegaly A condition related to hypersecretion of growth hormone
Which of the following would be important to fluid movement along a cell surface? Cilia
Optimum amount of sun exposure on skin per day is: 10-15 minutes
What normally prevents carcinoma of keratinocytes in intermediate layers? apoptosis
Cranial bones harden in a process known as: intramembranous ossification
Also known as "soft spots" fontanels
What are the areas of unhardened membrane that remain at birth? fontanels
Unclear sense of deep pressure or illness would be the result of sensation by: pacinian corpuscles (or meissner's corpuscles)
The stratum lucidum layer of epidermis can be found on: palms, soles
Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is found in: internal skin (such as lining of the mouth and the anal opening and the lining of the vagina)
Some exposure of skin to UV is important for what process? Precursor to vitamin D formation
Both types of osteoporosis would benefit from what therapy to stimulate bone remodeling? Weight bearing exercise
Identify a specific joint which contains an articular disk. Temporomandibular joint
The articular disk of TMJ attaches to what muscle? lateral pterygoid
A common injury tears a tendon allowing the humeral head to pull away from articulation in the glenoid fossa. What muscle is affected? What is the name of the injury? Rotator cuff, luxation (separation)
What are the origins of the biceps brachii and what bone is it part of? Scapula and glenoid fossa, coracoid process
An activity requires repeated wrist flexion and produces pain. What is name of problem? Carpal tunnel syndrome
An activity requires repeated wrist extension and produces pain. What is name of problem? Tennis elbow (or lateral epicondylitis)
Medial and lateral collateral ligaments are found in what classification of movable joints? Hinge joints
What are the two types of synovial joints capable of rotation? Ball and socket (in shoulder, hip) and pivot (in head of radius in capitulum)
The Achilles tendon is the insertion for which muscle(s) and on which bone? Calf muscles, heel bone
The nucleus pulposus is the spongy center of: a symphysis
What is the name of the joint injury in which the bone becomes dislocated from its position in the socket of the joint? luxation
The origin of the _____ is inflammed in lateral epicondylitis. Extensor carpi radialis longus
The _____ surrounds each fasciculus of muscle cells. perimysium
The extraoptical and lumbrical muscles would have which of the following in common: none of the above (1. both are important postural muscles 2. both have very large motor units (many cells) 3. both are composed primarily of slow twitch red fibers. 4. both utilize primarily aerobic metabolism)
The latissimus dorsi: adducts the humerus at the shoulder (glenohumeral joint)
Which muscle is a synergist with the latissimus dorsi in its action on the arm? teres major
Slow twitch red fibers have: abundant myoglobin, a rich blood supply, many mitochondria (but not stored glycogen)
White fibers utilize _____ to provide energy for metabolism. the phosphagen system and anerobic glycolysis (but not anerobic metabolism)
In order for an action potential to be produced on the sarcolemma, what type of ion channels must open? Voltage-gated sodium channels
Acetylcholine is the excitatory neurotransmitter at skeletal muscles. Which type of ion gates does it stimulate? Chemically-gated sodium channels
Muscles with mostly fibers of which twitch length will depend on aerobic metabolism for most of their ATP? slow twitch red
Muscles with predominantly ____ fibers are more likely to have very large motor units? slow twitch red
Once it is passing along the sarcolemma, where does the action potential enter the sarcoplasm? T-tubules
Only hinge joints have: collateral ligaments
Can flex, extend, abduct, and adduct. condyloid
The bone which articulates with no other bone hyoid
So-called supination of the foot is actually: nversion
So-called adduction of the foot is actually _____ of the thigh. rotation
Spasm of the _____ is often associated with TMJ disorder. lateral pterygoid
The TMJ is one of only a few joints with an internal: articular disk
When the sternocleidomastoid muscles contract bilaterally, the antagonist is _____. splenius capitus acting bilaterally
The little muscle that is important in opening the jaw: digastric
The type of muscle possessing striations (This muscle type has striations): skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle (but not smooth muscle)
The type of muscle which contains myogenic cells: cardiac muscle and smooth muscle (but not skeletal muscle)
The type of muscle with no striations: smooth muscle
This is inflammation of a synovial membrane located outside the actual joint. bursitis
The _____ holds the head of the radius in place while allowing it to turn. annular ligament
The joint between the atlas and axis is a _____ joint which performs a movement called _____. uniaxial, rotation
A dislocation is defined as: A luxation in which a bone pulls away from its normal position in the joint.
Which type of arthritis is caused by an inherited inability to metabolize uric acid? gouty arthritis
The carpal tunnel is a narrowed area enclosing tendons between the carpal bones and the _____. flexor retinaculum
The movement of the foot in which the sole is turned inward is correctly termed: inversion
A separation (e.g. shoulder separation) is defined as: A tearing of the fibrous tissue in a syndesmosis or synovial capsule.
Which type of arthritis is caused by damage to the articular cartilage from injury or excessive use? osteoarthritis
All hinge joints have _____ ligaments, which are not found in other joint types collateral
What is the name of the structure which holds the head of the radius in place while allowing it to rotate. Two words. annular ligament
The head of the radius is held in place by the _____ ligament annular
Pick correct: Hip joint needs more bony support due to weight placed on it, restricting motion. Shoulder joint needs more muscle, less bony support due to motion range, reducing strength. Almost all support is by rotator cuff muscles, not bone, ligaments All are correct
Correct? Short refract. period of muscle: Causes all/none where cells contract to max before relax; Causes muscle to end contract. to produce fast twitch speed; Allow cell contract to build/produce quantal sum; Allows stim. at high frq. producing tetanus. The short refractory period of a muscle cell allows it to be stimulated at a high frequency to produce tetanus.
Interphalangeal joint example Hinge joint; diarthrotic joint
radius-humerus example Pivot joint
intertarsal joints example Gliding joint
talus-tibia example Condyloid joint
shoulder joint example Ball-and-socket
suture joint example synarthrotic joint
intervertebral disk example amphiarthrotic joint
intercarpal joint example diarthrotic joint
The receptive region of a multipolar neuron would include: the dendrites, the cell body, and the axon hillock
Fibers in the corticospinal tract are known as: Upper motor neurons
Fibers which cross in the pyramids (and are called the "pyramidal fibers") are concerned with: Motor control on the opposite side of the body from their origin.
Which of the following tracts has first order, second order, and third order neurons? Fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis and spinothalamic tract
Multipolar neurons function as: spinal and cranial nerve motor neurons; spinal and cranial interneurons
The criterion for an area being the neuron receptive region is: possessing chemically-gated ion channels
An epidural injection of anesthetic would be administered: outside the dura mater
Threshold depolarization will result in an action potential when it occurs at: voltage-gated ion channels only
When an action potential spreads from one node of Ranvier to the next it is called _______ and it travels _________ than other forms of transmission. saltatory conduction, faster
Repeated use of a particular neural pathway, such as in a rote task, will result in a temporary facilitation of the pathway called: post-tetanic potentiation
Neurons grow at about the rate of: An inch per month
The autonomic nervous system differs from the somatic nervous system in which of the following ways: The autonomic system has a ganglion in each motor pathway from the CNS, the somatic nervous system does not.The autonomic system has two motor neurons, the somatic has only one, in each reflex arc.
The fibers which control the heart in the absence of stress come from the _____ portion of the CNS as part of the _____ division of the autonomic nervous system. cranial, parasympathetic
Most blood vessels are innervated only by the _____ division sympathetic
Most glands are _____ by the sympathetic nervous system. inhibited
Sympathetic stimulation of the eccrine sweat glands is through _____ fibers. cholinergic, muscarinic
As a result of an autonomic ganglion located _____ the _____ is alble to produce mass activation. in a lateral chain or plexus, sympathetic division
The fibers which control the heart at all times in the absence of stress are: cholinergic, muscarinic
Receptors which mediate excitation of the heart in response to stress are: adrenergic, beta
The autonomic function of the glossopharyngeal nerve is: sensory from baroreceptors in carotid sinus, motor to salivary glands
The receptors which produce pupilary dilation are: adrenergic, alpha
The brain center which controls much of the endocrine and sympathetic systems is the: hypothalamus
The upper motor neurons originate in the: pre-central gyrus
Pain stimuli terminate in the: post-central gyrus
The centers which control the heart, respiratory muscle contraction, and vascular smooth muscle are located in the: medulla oblongata
The primary auditory area is located in the _____ lobe. temporal
The _____ surrounds the intermediate mass. third ventricle
Functions such as emotional motor responses and short term memory both reside in the: limbic system
Broca's area is located alongside the: Lower portion of the pre-central gyrus.
The brain center which mediates functions which are part voluntary and part involuntary is: pons
Which of the following secretes pheromones? apocrine sweat glands
As soon as Ca++ ions enter the axon: Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis.
In order for myosin heads to detach from actin and reset, _____ must be available. ATP
The type(s) of muscle which have myogenic cells: cardiac and smooth muscle
Cerebrospinal fluid is a filtrate from the capillaries of the: choroid plexus
The _____ separates the mainly motor from the mainly sensory portions of the cerebrum. central sulcus
The brain region involved when insufficient dopamine production produces Parkinson's disease: substantia nigra
The _____ is derived from the canal within the primitive neural tube. ventricles of brain; spinal canal
Reflexes such as blinking and pupilary reflex is centered in the: superior colliculi of corpora quadrigemina
A muscle spindle receptor responds to: stretch and extension of the muscle.
The criterion for an area being the neuron conductive region is: possessing voltage-gated ion channels; being able to propagate an action potential
If several inputs to a reflex pathway each produce simultaneous sub-threshold depolarizations, it could result in _____ at the receptive region of the receiving neuron. spatial summation
In myelinated peripheral nerve fibers the voltage gates are located only at the Nodes of Ranvier. True
Opening of the chemically-gated K+ channels would produce: hyperpolarization and IPSP
If one input to a reflex releases a depolarizing neurotransmitter with a high frequency it could result in _____ at the receptive region of the receiving neuron. temporal summation
musculocutaneous controls the biceps brachii (sensory from the skin on anterior upper arm)
axillary sensory from the skin of the shoulder (innervates the deltoid)
radial controls extensor muscles of the wrist (would transmit pain from the thumb)
ulnar controls flexor muscles of the wrist (controls extensor muscles of the wrist)
median nerve contains fibers from both the lateral and medial cords
Fibers leading to the corticospinal tract are known as: Upper motor neurons
Merkel disks would send information through this tract. Fasciculus gacilis and cuneatus (considered as a single tract)
When a stretch reflex is initiated it produces: Muscle contraction in the initiating muscle and reciprocal inhibition.
Impulses from this tract terminate on the same side of the brain as their origin (i.e. they do not cross). Spinocerebellar tract
The medial lemniscus carries signals from the ___ to the ___. medulla to the thalamus
Impulses from this tract have a third order neuron. Fasciculus gacilis and cuneatus (considered as a single tract); Spinothalamic tract
The sense of _____ has receptors which are bipolar neurons. smell
A tract with the name tectospinal would be: descending & motor
The second order neuron from which of the following travels in the medial lemniscus to the cortex: Fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis
The rarest neuron type, found only in the special senses of olfaction, vision, and hearing is the: bipolar neuron
The medial lemniscus contains the _____ in the pathway it is part of. second order neuron
A unipolar neuron has: No dendrites and one axon attached to the cell body.
Fibers which cross in the pyramids and are called the "pyramidal fibers" are concerned with: Motor control on the opposite side of the body from their origin.
Impulses from this tract travel through the corona radiata. Fasciculus gacilis and cuneatus (considered as a single tract); Spinothalamic tract
Given: the stimulus is pain in the upper anterior arm in the region of the biceps brachii. What nerve and plexus would the sensory pathway use? musculocutaneous, brachial
Plantarflexion would send impulses through which plexus and nerve. sacral, tibial
Given: the stimulus is pain in the little finger. What type of reflex would that produce? withdrawal
Given: the stimulus is pain in the little finger. What nerve and plexus would the sensory pathway use? ulnar, brachial
Given: the stimulus is pain in the dorsum (top) of the foot. What nerve and plexus would the sensory pathway use? peroneal (fibular), sacral
Given:An individual running up stairs, repeatedly flexing then extending the thigh. The stimulus is thigh flexion, the muscle in which the reflex is initiated is the gluteus maximus. What type of reflex would be produced and what is the receptor? stretch; muscle spindle
Abduction of the shoulder would send impulses through which plexus and nerve. axillary, brachial
Extension of the knee would send impulses through which plexus and nerve. lumbar, femoral
A blood clot developing under the outer layer of the meninges is known as a [x] hematoma subdural
What sense would be affected in damage to the lemniscal pathway of the brain? One or two words is sufficient. proprioception; muscle sense; discriminative touch; fine touch; touch; proprioceptive; conscious proprioception; conscious proprioceptive
This is the name of a somatic region of the body which is innervated by a particular spinal nerve. dermatome
Identify the specific cells damaged by the autoimmune disorder known as multiple sclerosis. One word only oligodendrocyte(s)
Exactly what is missing in the receptive region which prevents an action potential from being generated there. Three or four words voltage gated ion channel (or voltage regulated)
The ____ is the location of production of blood cells: red marrow
A lumbar vertebra ossifies from pre-existing model of: hyaline cartilage
hair root plexus A nerve responsible for the sense of light touch on the skin
sebaceous gland Important for retaining moisture in the skin
sudoriferous gland comes in two types
meissner's corpuscles widely distributed on the skin for non-discriminating touch
piloarrector muscles part of the skin's thermoregulatory functions
The most aggressive skin cancer is: malignant melanoma
Channels called connexons are the primary structural component in: gap junctions
A process which controls a parameter within a narrow range will utilize: Negative feedback
True parenchymal repair occurs in ___ tissue. epithelial
Give ONE specific area of the body where thick skin is found. Be specific. One word only. palm; sole; bottom of foot
An unclear sense of deep pressure or illness would be the result of sensation by the ___ ___ (Name of the receptor; plural form) pacinian corpuscles
The latissimus dorsi and teres major act antagonistically to the: deltoid
Fast twitch red (intermediate) fibers have: stored myoglobin, a rich blood supply, many mitochondria, and stored glycogen
Slow twitch red fibers primarily utilize ____ to provide energy for metabolism. aerobic metabolism
As long as the ___ has ended, the sarcolemma can respond normally to another stimulus. Relative Refractory Period
Can rotate (can only rotate): pivot
Only the ___ can supinate. hand
In the process of supination and pronation, the head of the radius rotates around the: capitulum
patellar retinaculum keeps the patella from sliding laterally
collateral ligament keeps the tibia from abducting
patellar ligament inserts on the tibial tuberosity
extensor tendon the insertion of the rectus femoris muscle
tibia-fibula example synarthrotic joint
costal cartilage example amphiarthrotic joint
Which of the following is considered an intracapsular ligament of the hip joint? ligamentum teres
Starting in anatomical position, the hand is rotated so that the palm is down (or to the back). This movement is called: pronation
The action of the rectus femoris muscle is to move what bone and process. Answer in the format "femur head". Two words. tibia(l) tuberosity; tuberosity tibia
The rotator cuff muscles are: the primary support for stabilizing the shoulder joint by holding the head of the humerus in its normal position in the glenoid fossa.
The shoulder joint: is almost entirely supported by the muscles of the rotator cuff and not by bone or ligaments; needs more muscular and less bony support due to its range of motion, but this reduces its strength.
The hip joint: needs more bony support due to the weight placed on it, but as a result this restricts its range of motion
The criterion for an area being the neuron trigger region is: having both chemically-gated and voltage-gated ion channels
Impulses from this tract cross over in the medulla Fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus (considered as a single tract)
A bipolar neuron has: One dendrite and one axon attached to the cell body.
Adduction of the thigh would send impulses through which plexus and nerve. lumbar, obturator
Given: the stimulus is pain in the thumb. What nerve and plexus would the sensory pathway use? radial, brachial
Visceral pain that is misinterpreted as coming from a somatic region is known as ___ pain. referred
The end of the spinal cord is anchored to the sacrum via the [x]. filum terminale
An anesthetic administered in the lumbar region of the spinal cord, often for childbirth, is called a(n) [x] anesthetic. epidural
Which glial cell is damaged in multiple sclerosis? oligodendrocytes
Which of these is missing in a 2-neuron reflex? sensory
If the information transmitted is from pain in the lower jaw, it will ultimately reach the: inferior post-central gyrus
Secretion of eccrine glands in thermoregulation is: Sympathetic
The most important hormone in calcium homeostasis in adults is: PTH
Which two of these are found in the dermis of the skin and in mucous membranes? areolar and dense irregular
Which of the following can exhibit flexion and extension? condyloid, hinge, and ball-and-socket joints
Histamine is neurotransmitter involved in pathway of signals from inner ear to brain. Histamine blockers reduce conflicting signals passing to brain. Dramamine inhibits muscular stomach action that produces nausea + vomiting. What receptors inhibited? Cholinergic muscarinic
Another drug called scopolamine has also been used for the same purpose. It has also been found to inhibit copious sweating. What specific receptors would be inhibited at the sweat glands? Cholinergic muscarinic
If the information transmitted is from pain in the big toe, it will ultimately reach the: superior pre-central gyrus
Which receptor allows you to feel the ridges on the edge of a coin: Ruffini organs
The long axons of neurons depend upon which type of energy production? anerobic glycolysis
The receptive region has which type of channels? chemically-gated
Created by: sweetinnocence93
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