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Pathophysiology I

Unit I Exam

Atrophy a wasting or decrease in size of a body organ, tissue, or part owing to disease, injury, or lack of use
Hypertrophy a non-tumorous enlargement of an organ or a tissue as a result of an increas in size rather than the number of constituent cells
Hyperplasia an abnormal increase in the number of cells in an organ or a tissue with consequent enlargement
Metaplasia normal transformation of tissue from one type to another, as in the ossification of cartilage to form bone; transformation of cells from a normal to an abnormal state
Dysplasia abnormal development or growth of tissues, organs, or cells
Neoplasia formation of new tissue; formation of a neoplasm
Anaplasia reversion of cells to an immature or a less differentiated form, as occurs in most malignant tumors
Which cellular adaptation is considered to be the most dangerous? Explain why. Dysplasia is the most dangerous because it is the forerunner of neoplasia.
Define anaplasia. Explain the significance of anaplasia. Failure of cells to differentiate or develop specialized features; term applied to grading malignant tumors
What is the difference between dysplasia and anaplasia? Dysplasia leads to the development of neoplasia. Anaplasia is characteristic of malignant neoplasia.
List seven causes of cellular damage 1. ischemia; 2. physical agents (e.g., excessive temperature, radiation); 3. mechanical damage; 4. chemical toxins or foreign substances; 5. pathogens; 6. abnormal metabolites; 7. nutritional deficits or fluid or electrolyte imbalances
Symptom a subjective indication of disease that can be known with certainty only by the affected person, such as blurry vision or headache
Exacerbation an increase in the severity of disease
Precipitation the triggering of an acute episode of a disease
Incidence the number of new cases of a disease that appear in a population over a given time period
Acute a short-term illness that develops very quickly with marked signs such as high fever or severe pain
Idiopathic a disease that is of uncertain or unknown origin or cause
Mortality the rate of death from a particular disease in a population
Necrosis When a group of cells die; the process of cell death varies with the cause of the damage
Sign an objective indication of disease that can be seen by any trained observer, such as a fever or skin lesion
Exogenous originating from outside the body
Etiology the study of disease; the cause of any specific disease
Lesion an abnormality involving any tissue or organ due to a disease or injury
Chronic often milder condition than an acute disease state; develops more gradually, but persists for a long time and usually causes more permanent tissue damage; often marked by intermittent acute episodes
Endogenous originating from inside the body
Communicable infections that can be spread from one person to another, some of which are notifiable
Precipitating factor a condition that triggers an acute episode of disease; differs from a predisposing factor
Hypoxia reduced oxygen in a tissue
Pathogenesis the development of a diseased or morbid condition
What is the body's first "line of defense"? Mechanical barrier such as intact skin and mucous membrane
Identify the body's second and third "lines of defense." Second: processes of phagocytosis and inflammation; Third: the immune system
Which line of defense is specific? The immune system
What is meant by the term "specific"? It provides protection by stimulating a unique response following exposure to foreign substances
Phagocytosis Process by which neutrophils and macrophages engulf and destroy bacteria, cellular debris, or foreign material.
Identify types of cells that are phagocytic and where these cells are located within the body Neutrophils and monocytes are circulating in the blood and enter the interstitial fluid when inflammation occurs. Macrophages are located (fixed) in tissues such as the alvioli, liver, and spleen.
Identify the events of the "vascular response" that occur during an inflammatory response. Explain why each change occurs, as well as the consequences of each event. Transient vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilatin, hyperemia, and increased capillary permeability in response to a chemical mediator (e.g., histamine, serotonin, etc.) released at the site of injury. This allows for the accumulation in the area of fl
Identify the five cardinal signs of an inflammatory response and the cause of each. 1. redness due to vasodilation in the injured area; 2. warmth due to hyperemia or increased blood flow to the area; 3. swelling or edema due to the shift of protein and fluid into the interstitial space; 4. pain resulting from increased fluid pressure on
Outline the events of the cellular response of an inflammationn in the correct chronological order. 1. chemotaxis; 2. margination; 3. emigration (diapedesis); 4. phagocytosis and subsequent release of lysosomal enzymes
Neutrophils the first cells to emigrate to an injured area; phagocytic microorganisms
Basophils Secrete histamine
Eosinophils Elevated during allergic responses
Macrophages Phagocytic microorganisms
Mast cells Secrete histamine
Monocytes elevated during chronic inflammation; a source of macrophages; phagocytic microorganisms
T lymphocytes Involved in cell-mediated immunity; Involved in antibody production
B lymphocytes Involved in antibody production
List the systemic effects of inflammation identifying the reason that each of these manifestations occurs Fever due to the release of pyrogens by leukocytes and macrophages; malaise, fatigue, headache, and anorexia
Causative agents of acute inflammation Direct damage 9trauma); chemicals; ischemia; cell necrosis or infarction; allergic reactions; physical agents (burns); foreign bodies (splinters or dirt); infection
What is the causative agent of chronic inflammation when the cause persists and is not removed or eradicated
Differentiate the onset of symptoms of acute and chronic inflammation Acute: immediate or delayed (e.g., sunburn)Chronic: delayed
Intensity of symptoms of acute inflammation Severity varies with the situation or cause
Intensity of symptoms of chronic inflammation Varies depending on the cause and pathophysiology and duration
Duration of acute inflammation usually of short duration, but may be prolonged
Duration of chronic inflammation Prolonged duration
Cells involved in acute inflammation Neutrophils and macrophages; lymphocytes if an immune response is involved
Cells involved in chronic inflammation Lymphocytes, macrophages, and fibroblasts
Outcome of acute inflammation Healing, unless it becomes chronic due to persistence of causative agent; regeneration; or resolution
Outcome of chronic inflammation scarring and / or granuloma
Define RICE and explain the rationale for each of these interventions R = rest: allows time for healing, minimizing further pain and irritation to the injured areaI = ice: early application of cold causes vasoconstriction, decreasing pain and edemaC = compression: compression to facilitate blood clotting, prevent or minimiz
Identify nonpharmacologic interventions that could be used to treat inflammation, particularly conditions that are chronic, such as arthritis Heat, physiotherapy, adequate nutrition and hydration, mild to moderate exercise, elastic stockings to reduce fluid accumulation
State five differences between NSAIDs and glucocorticoids or steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs NSAIDs are analgesic and antipyretic. They may cause allergic reactions, slow blood clotting, and cause nausea and / or stomach ulceration.Steroids decrease immune responses and increase the risk of infection, high BP, and edema. They may also cause osteo
Identify differences between NSAIDs and acetaminophen NSAIDs are anti-inflammatory, They may cause allergic reactions and slow blood clotting.Acetaminophen has no anti-inflammatory action. High doses may cause kidney and liver damage.
Resolution Occurs when there is minimal tissue damage, the damage is repaired, and cells recover and resume normal function in a short time.
Regeneration the healing process that occurs in tissues whose cells are capable of mitosis (e.g., epithelial cells of the skin, GI tract). The damaged cells are replaced by the proliferation of nearby undamaged cells.
How could the nature of the tissue / location of the wound influence tissue healing? an inoperable bullet wound to the brain may be inaccessible without further tissue damage and loss of function
How could the nutritional status of the injured individual influence tissue healing? Malnutrition, especially deficiencies in vitamins such as C, E, and K, would impair the blood-clotting capability of the individual, impairing wound closure and repair of damaged tissues
How could the size and shape of the wound influence tissue healing? Large, deep cuts, for example, especially if untreated, or presenting difficult suture closure would facilitate extensive scar formation; e.g., cuts due to broken glass or power tools
How could the drugs that the injured individual is taking influence tissue healing? Anticlotting medications would limit or impair clotting and hence wound closure; e.g., aspirin and other anti-platelet drugs prior to surgery
How could the age of the individual influence tissue healing? Nutritional status is often inadequate in the elderly, and the aging process itself slows down normal healing responses at many levels.
How could the presence of foreign material in the wound influence tissue healing? foreing bodies, if not removed, impair wound closure and promote scarring as well as predispose to infection; e.g., a large splinter
How could the blood supply of the injured tissue influence tissue healing? If the blood supply is limited or cut off from the damaged tissuue, then most of the cellular and blood factors necessary for healing would not reach the affected area; e.g., a thrombus or an embolus.
How could the presence of infections in the damaged tissue influence tissue healing? Infection requires iits own cure, before healing can occur; removal of the infectious agent, if impaired or delayed, would prolong the healing process, leading to more extensive scarring and, if untreated, perhaps systemic infection. A puncture to the dam
How could the degree of immobilization of the injured tissue influence tissue healing? Broken bones, if not immobilized, do not heal properly
How could pre-existing disease states that exist in the injured individual influence tissue healing? Disease, if chronic and with systemic effects, could impair immune and other normal healing tissue responses. Diabetes, for example, may result in impaired circulation to the damaged area.
Identify potential complications that may occur during and inflammatory process and subsequent healing. Loss of function; contractures and obstructions; adhesions; hypertrophic scar tissue; ulceration
Describe the classification of burns based on body surface area the % of BSA burned, using the "rule of nines" for calculation to determine the extent of injury and fluid replacement needs
Describe the classification of burns based on the depth of tissue damage Partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and part of the dermis; Deep partial-thickness burns involve destruction of the epidermis and part of the dermis;Full-thickness burns result in destruction of all skin layers and often underlying subcutaneous
Explain why full-thickenss burns initially may be painless Nerves in the burned area have been destroyed
Keloid hypertrophic scar formation due to excess collagen deposits leading to hard, often elevated, ridges of scar tissue
Eschar A thick coagulated crust that develops following a full-thickness burn
Stenosis Narrowing of structures
Adhesion Bands of scar tissue joining two surfaces that are normally separate
Ulcer A surface lesion due to breakdown of surface tissue
Exudates Interstitial fluid accumulation in an area of inflammation
Contracture Fixation and deformity of a joint as a result of scar formation and shrinkage.
Inflammation a nonspecific body defense response to any tissue injury, which may be casued by chemical, physical agents, trauma, ets.; it involves neutrophils and macrophages as part of the cellular response and chemical mediators like histamine and prostaglandins wi
Immunity a specific host defense response to "foreing" antigens; it involves specific cellular (T & B lymphocytes) and humoral (antibodies) components and mediators (e.g., complement); and it varies depending on the nature of the antigentic stimulus (immediate and
What is a cell surface antigen and why is it important? a unique protein or glycoprotein configuration that is a distinctive marker for the recognition of a cell by the immune system. They provide the means by which the immune system distinguishes self from nonself. Important because it provides for the detect
What are HLAs? What is the MHC? HLAs = Human Leukocyte Antigens; they are the Major Histocompatibility Complex cell membrane antigens on human leukocytes that determine "self" and serve as the basis for IDing histocompatible cells and tissues for transplantation, including blood transfu
Source and effects of Histamine Mast cells and basophilsVasodilation and increased vascular permeability, contraction of bronchiolar smooth muscle; pruritis
Source and effects of Prostaglandins Group of lipids synthesized in mast cellsVarious effects from causing inflammation, vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and pain
Source and effects of Cytokines (lymphokines, monokines, interleukins, interferon) T-lymphocytes and macrophagesIncrease in plasma proteins, ESR; stimulate activation and proliferation of B and T cells and communication between cells (messengers); induce fever, leukocytosis, and chemotaxis
Source and effects of Leukotrienes Group of lipids derived from mast cells and basophilsContraction of bronchiolar smooth muscle; vasodilation and increased capillary permeability; chemotaxis
Source and effects of Kinins (bradykinin) Activation of plasma protein (kinogen; e.g., bradykinin)Vasodilation, edema, and pain
Source and effects of Complement Group of proteins circulating in the bloodstream; activated by antigen-antibody reactions on cell surfaceRelease of chemical mediators promoting inflammation, chemotaxis, phagocytosis, cell membrane damage (e.g., hemolysis)
Which chemical mediators are responsible for vasodilation? histamine, prostaglandins, kinins, leukotrienes
Which chemical mediators are responsible for increased capillary permeability? histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes
Which chemical mediators are responsible for chemotaxis? cytokines, leukotrienes, complement
Which chemical mediators are responsible for pain? prostaglandins, kinins
Which chemical mediators are responsible for contraction of bronchiolar walls / bronchospasm? histamine, leukotrienes
Which chemical mediators are responsible for proliferation of leukocytes cytokines
Which chemical mediators are responsible for pruritus? histamine
Which chemical mediators are responsible for fever? TNF, cytokines
What is the roll of macrophages? phagocytosis, foreign antigen recognition
What is the roll of natural killer (NK) cells destroy foreign cells, virus-infected cells, and cancer cells
What is the roll of cytotoxic or killer T cells? destroy antigens and cancer and virus-infected cells
What is the roll of helper T cells (T4 and CD4) activate B and T cells; limit immune cells
What is the roll of memory T cells remember antigen and stimulate immune response upon subsequent exposure (secondary response)
What is the roll of suppressor T cells (T8) limit immune response
What is the roll of B-lymphocytes plasma cells: produce specific antibodiesB memory cells: secondary antibody response
Which types of cells play a role in both inflammation and immunity? monocytes, macrophages, basophils
Which cells participate in both cellular and humoral immunity? helper T cells
List the five classes of antibodies or immunoglobulins IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, IgD
Function of IgG primary and secondary antibody responses; activates complement; includes antibacterial, antivirals, and antitoxins; crosses placenta, creates passive immunity in newborns
Function of IgM primary antibody responses; activates complement; forms natural antibodies; involved in blood ABO incompatibility reactions
Function of IgA found in secretions such as tears and saliva, in mucous membranes, and in colostrums to provide protection for newborns
Function of IgE binds to mast cells in skin and mucous membranes; when linked to allergen, causes release of histamine and other chemicals, resulting in inflammation
Function of IgD attached to B cells; activates B cells
Explain how antibodies exert their effects by binding to the specific antigen that elicited their production, usually on a cell or bacterial surface, resulting in antigen destruction, cell membrane damage (especially in the presence of complement), and, in the case of RBCs, cell lysis. Some antige
What is the time frame between exposure to an antigen and the appearance of immunoglobulins in the serum? Primary response on initial antigen exposure may range from days to weeks.Secondary response is almost immediate.
What is the average length of time required to acquire an effective antibody titer following exposure to an antigen? Primary response is approximately 3 to 4 weeks. Secondary response is quicker with much higher titer within a week or two.
Explain the rationale for "boosters"? To promote a stronger, faster secondary immune response
Explain why individuals may contract infections such as colds, influenza, and sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) repeatedly. There are many strains of a virus or bacteria that cause new strains, then, because the immune response is specific, infection with one strain does not create immunity to subsequent exposures to new, different strains.
Identify measures taken in an attempt to prevent organ rejection after transplantation. A close match of HLAs between donor and host tissues reduces risk of rejection. The common treatment involves immunosuppressive drugs such as cyclosporine, azanthioprine (Imuran), and prednisone
What is meant by the term "opportunistic" and why does this complication occur? Describes microorganisms that are usually harmless in healthy individuals; however, patients taking immunosuppressant drugs have limited body defenses.
What medications are often prescribed prophylactically for an individual taking immunosuppressant drugs? Explain the rationale. preventative antibiotics are usually administered because opportunistic infections are common and can be difficult to treat. They are best prevented.
List the types of medications that might be prescribed in the treatment of allergic conditions. Antihistamine drugs for early signs and symptoms; glucocorticoids for severe or prolonged reactions
State the underlying mechanism responsible for autoimmune disorders When individuals develop antibodies to their own cells or cellular material
What type of medications might be prescribed in the treatment of autoimmune disorders? Explain the rationale for each drug group. Prednisone (glucocorticoid) to reduce the immune response and subsequent inflammation; dydroxychloroquine (antimalarial) may be used to reduce exacerbations
How is systemic lupus erthematosus diagnosed? Diagnosed by the presence of numerous ANAs, especially anti-DNA, as well as other antibodies.
What are Lupus erythematous (LE) cells? Mature neutrophils containing nuclear material found in the circulating blood; a positive sign of SLE
SLE effect on skin butterfly rash
SLE effect on joints polyarthritis
SLE effect on heart carditis and pericarditis
SLE effect on blood vessels Reynaud's phenomenon
SLE effect on blood anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
SLE effect on kidneys glomerulonephritis, with marked proteinurea and progressive damage
SLE effect on lungs pleurisy
SLE effect on CNS psychosis, depression, mood changes, seizures
Outline therapeutic interventions used in the treatment of lupus erythematosus usually treated by a rheumatologist with predinisone, NSAIDs, and hydroxychloroquine for exacerbations
List common causes of primary immunodeficiency hypogammaglobulinemia, thymic aplasia, DiGeorge's syndrome, CIDS, inherited deficits in any one or more of the components
List common causes of secondary immunodeficiency kidney disease, Hodgkin's Disease, AIDS, radiation, immunosuppressive drugs, immunosuppression, malnutrition
Identify the general effects of immunodeficiency Predisposition to opportunistic infections and an increased risk of cancer
Identify the types of medication that are often prescribed for the immunodeficient individual or immunocompromised host, and explain the rationale for each drug group. Prophylactic antimicrobials to reduce incidence of opportunistic infections; gamma globulin replacement therapy
What is the causative agent responsible for HIV and AIDS? Describe its properties Human immunodeficiency virus is the causative agent for AIDS. I is a "slow-acting" retrovirus containing two strands of RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase. ts envelope is characterized by spokes of glycoprotein. The virus is inactivated by many disi
List the routes of transmission of HIV Must enter the bloodstream of the recipient through transmission of body fluids such as blood, semen, and vaginal secretions. Transmission most often occur through unprotected sexual intercourse with an HIV-positive partner, intravenous injection with con
Identify individuals who are at high risk for contracting HIV. At the highest risk are IV drug users, people with multiple sexual partners, and the unborn fetuses of HIV-positive mothers
What is the usual incubation period for HIV? State the possible range. Infected individuals usually become HIV positive within 2 to 10 weeks, but the "window" may be as long as 6 months. full-blown AIDS may not occur for many years. After an initial infection, mild "flue-like" symptoms appear in 3 to 6 weeks, followed by an
How is a diagnosis of HIV infection confirmed? What is meant by the "window period"? A blood tes is performed for HIV antibodies. A positive test is followed by the Western blot test. The "window period" refers to the time from infections to the presence of HIV antibodies. This may be anywhere from 2 weeks to 6 months depending on the mod
What is the average length of time between infection with HIV and development of full-blown AIDS? average of 6 - 7 years
How is a diagnosis of AIDS confirmed? AIDS is diagnosed by a major decrease in the CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count and a change in the CD4+ to CD8+ ratio in the presence of opportunistic infection or certain cancers.
Which cells are targeted by HIV? Indentify the consequences of this. Helper T4 lymphocytes are the major target and, when destroyed, eliminate the immune surveillance and detection function of these cells, thereby interfering with their critical function in the initiation of both humoral and cellular immunity.
Identify possible manifestations of the initial phase of HIV infection Mild, self-limited nonspecific "flu-like" symptoms; low fever, fatigue, joint pain, and sore throat.
Advanced HIV general effects lymphadenopathy, fatigue and weakness, headache, and arthralgia
Advanced HIV opportunistic infections Pneumocystis carinii in the lungs, causing severe pneumonia; herpes simplex, causing cold sore; and Candida, a fungus infection of the mouth and esophagus
Advanced HIV GI manifestations including parasitic infections; chronic severe diarrhea, vomiting, and ulcers; necrotizing periodontal disease weight loss, malnutrition and wasting
Advanced HIV oral manifestations cold sores (herpes simplex) and Candida
Advanced HIV respiratory manifestations Pneumocystis carinii causing pneumonia
Advanced HIV nervous system manifestations HIV encephalopathy (AIDS dementia), aggravated by lymphomas, causing confusion, progressive cognitive impairment, memory loss, loss of coordination and balance, and depression; seizures.
Advanced HIV malignancies Kaposi’s sarcoma and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Identify medications that are used in the treatment of an individual with HIV and AIDS drugs such as AZT, protease inhibitors; viral integrase inhibitors such as saquinavir and ritonavir; reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine and lamivudine; various drug combinations known as “cocktails”; fungal, and antituberculosis drugs; ot
What is the prognosis for an individual infected with HIV? Prognosis is much improved due to earlier detection and newer drug and nutritional therapies. Without treatment, death occurs within several years of diagnosis.
Explain the difference between an inflammation and an infection Inflammation is a normal body response. It is the second line of defense caused by anything that results in tissue damage. Infection is caused by pathogenic microorganisms.
Identify the three major groups of bacteria, including examples of each bacilli: Clostridium tetanicocci: Staphylococcus aureusspirals: Treponema pallidum
Describe the basic structure of a bacterium An outer rigid cell wall, a cell membrane, a DNA strand, and cytoplasm. In addition, some species contain an external capsule or slime layer, specialized structures such as flagellae, and pili or fimbriae.
What is the difference between exotoxins and endotoxins? Exotoxins are produced / secreted by gram-positive bacteria. Endotoxins are components of the cell wall of gram-negative organisms.
What is an endospore or bacterial spore? Describe the process of spore formation. Identify bacteria that produce spores. Endospores are latent forms of some bacterial species with an outer coat that is resistant to heat and other environmental conditions. The process of spore formation is illustrated in Figure 4-4, p. 82. Examples of spore-producing bacteria include tetanus
Describe the process of binary fission A simple division in half, forming two daughter cells identical to the parent bacterium.
Compare and contrast bacterial cells and human cells with regard to the presence of a cell wall Bacteria: presentHuman: not present
Compare and contrast bacterial cells and human cells with regard to the presence of a cell membrane Bacteria: present - selectively permeable; site of metabolic processesHuman: present - selectively permeable
Compare and contrast bacterial cells and human cells with regard to the presence of a capsule or slime coat Bacteria: present in someHuman: not present
Compare and contrast bacterial cells and human cells with regard to the presence of a flagella Bacteria: present in someHuman: sperm only
Compare and contrast bacterial cells and human cells with regard to the presence of a pili or fimbriae Bacteria: present in someHuman: not present
Compare and contrast bacterial cells and human cells with regard to the presence of cilia Bacteria: not presentHuman: present in some
Compare and contrast bacterial cells and human cells with regard to the presence of membrane-bound organelles (mitochondria, lysosomes, ER) Bacteria: not presentHuman: present
Compare and contrast bacterial cells and human cells with regard to the presence of ribosomes Bacteria: presentHuman: present - larger
Compare and contrast bacterial cells and human cells with regard to the presence of a nucleus Bacteria: not presentHuman: present
Compare and contrast bacterial cells and human cells with regard to the number of chromosomes Bacteria: single; circularHuman: 46; paired (except sex cells)
Compare and contrast bacterial cells and human cells with regard to the method of reproduction Bacteria: binary fissionHuman: mitosis
Why are viruses said to be "obligate intracellular parasites"? They require a living host cell for replication
Describe the structure of a viral particle or virion Consists of a protein coat or capsid and a DNA or RNA nucleic acid core
Outline the process of viral replication Virus attaches to the host cell and penetrates. It uncoats and takes over the host cell DNA. The host cell synthesizes viral components. The components assemble and are released by host cell lysis.
Describe the structure of a fungus Classified as eukaryotic. Consist of cells or chains of cells and may have long filaments called hyphae that intertwine to form a mass called the mycelium, which is large enough to be visible.
List pathological conditions caused by chlamydiae pelvic inflammatory disease; eye infections in newborn of infected mothers
List pathological conditions caused by rickettsiae typhus; Rocky Mountain spotted fever
List pathological conditions caused by mycoplasmas pneumonia
List pathological conditions caused by protozoa Trichomonas vaginalis; malaria; amebic dysentery
What is a helminth? A worm
Normal or resident flora Microorganisms that normally inhabit various areas of the body such as the skin and GI tract
Areas of the body that lack resident flora and therefore should be sterile Lungs, bladder, stomach
Virulence The degree of pathogenicity of a microbe or pathogen. It can be enhanced by production of exotoxins or endotoxins, destructive enzymes, spore formation, and presence of bacterial capsule
Pathogenicity The capacity of a microbe to cause disease. Immunodeficiency or immunodepression can result in opportunistic infections; relocation of normal flora to another body site can also result in their production of disease.
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes pneumocystis carinii pneumonia? Fungus
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes candidiasis? fungus
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes syphilis? Bacteria
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes trichomoniasis? Protozoa
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes tuberculosis? bacteria
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes pneumonia? bacteria; viruses; fungi; mycoplasma
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes tetanus? bacteria
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? rickettsia
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes tinea pedis? fungus
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes herpes simplex? virus
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes influenza? virus
Bacteria, Virus, Fungus, Rickettsia, Chlamydia, ProtozoaWhich causes botulism? bacteria
What is meant by the "infection cycle"? Identify its components and ways in which the cycle can be broken. The sequence or chain of events that lead to infection and disease by a pathogen. (a) locating and removing the reservoir or sources of infection(b) blocking the exit from the source; providing or cleaning barriers(c) maintaining immunizations(d) treating
What is meant by the term "culture and sensitivity"? To take a tissue culture of a specimen that is placed in a medium containing various antimicrobials to determine the nature and drug sensitivity or the microbe
How do manifestations of an infection differ from those of an inflammation? Microbes are present at the source of infection. With infection due to bacteria, purulent exudate and tissue necrosis usually develop at the site. Lymphadenopathy, high temp, and leukocytosis are often present. Inflammation results in a serous exudate and
Antibacterial spectrum The range of bacteria for with the drug is effective:narrow: either gram positive or negativebroad: both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
Bacterial resistance Bacteria that develop or adapt in order to lose their sensitivity to a drug such as altering their metabolism to block the drug's effects, producing enzymes that inactivate the drug, altering their cell membranes
Bactericidal Drugs that destroy microorganisms
Bacteriostatic Drugs that reduce the rate of bacterial reproduction
Why has it been difficult to develop antiviral drugs? Because viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, a drug that destroys viruses would also destroy the host cell.
What is probably the most serious adverse effect associated with antibacterial drugs Allergic reaction - anaphylaxis
Superinfection A secondary infection by pathogens that results from disruption or reduction of the normal resident flora by antimicrobial drugs
What is the difference between a superinfection and an opportunistic infection? A superinfection occurs only during treatment with antimicrobial agents. An opportunistic infection occurs in an individual with decreased immunity. Both are usually caused by fungi that are part of the normal resident flora.
When is it appropriate for a physician to prescribe a narrow spectrum antibacterial drug? When the identity of the bacterium is known; after culture and sensitivity have been completed
How can a bacteriostatic drug help one eliminate the infecting microorganism? the drug prevents replication of the bacteria, thereby keeping the number of bacteria constant - the body's own defensive cells will destroy the organism.
When would the prescription of a bacteriostatic drug not be advisable? If the individual was immunosuppressed (e.g., organ transplant recipient) or immunodeficient (e.g., someone with AIDS)
Explain how the misuse or overuse of antibacterial agents could lead to the development of bacterial resistance. Bacteria adapt and / or mutate to develop various means of losing drug sensitivity; excessive or unnecessary use of drugs provides a stimulus for such adaptation.
If antibacterial drugs are not effective in the treatment of viral infections, why are they often prescribed for individuals with chronic viral infections such as hep B, hep C, or HIV? Because they may reduce the risk of secondary bacterial infection
Identify guidelines that an individual should follow to maximize the effects of antibacterial medications. Drugs should be taken according to the prescription. Drug should be taken until the prescription is completely used. Follow instructions regarding food or fluid intake. provide a good medical history including known drug allergies.
Apoptosis A form of cell death in which a programmed sequence of events leads to the elimination of cells without releasing harmful substances into the surrounding area.
Which adaptive change is considered to be the most dangerous? Dysplasia
Anaplasia failure of cells to develop specialized features
Give 2 examples of hyperplasia development of a callus on a laborer's hands; enlargement of the prostate gland with age
What change will occur in response to prolonged hypoxia? Atrophy
What disorder would cause liquefactive necrosis? Stroke
Name 3 tissues that enlarge by hypertrophy after birth. Skeletal muscle, urinary bladder, brain
Which cells secrete histamine? Basophils, Mast cells
Which cells are phagocytic? neutrophils, Monocytes, Macrophages
Name 2 effects of NSAIDs that are not effects of acetaminophen Anti-inflammatory, platelet inhibition
Diapedesis Movement of leukocytes into the interstitial spaces
What type of exudate is found inside a blister? Serous
Adhesions Bands of scar tissue between two normally separate surfaces
Name a tissue where you would expect healing to be slow to occur cartilage
Which cells are the first to migrate into the interstitial spaces after an injury? neutrophils
What type of cell becomes a macrophage once it migrates into the tissue? monocyte
What type of cell is prevalent in allergic responses? eosinophil
What is the term for a hypertrophic scar? keloid
What cells are prevalent in chronic inflammations? Fibroblasts, macrophages, lymphocytes
What is the 2nd event in the vascular response of inflammation? Vasodilation
What would be elevated during an acute inflammation involving a large area? neutrophils, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, body temperature, c-reative protein level
What type of burn involves destruction of all of the epidermis and part of the dermis? Deep partial thickness
How do NSAIDs decrease inflammation? They decrease production of prostaglandins
Inflammation The body's local response to tissue injury
Which cells are involved in the production of antibodies? helper T cells, B lymphocytes
Which cells are the antigen-capturing cells? macrophages
Which cells process and present antigen? macrophages
Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergic responses? IgE
Which immunoglobulin is found in body secretions such as saliva? IgA
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for passive immunity? IgG
Which cell regulates the activity of all the other immune cells? T-helper (CD4)
Which chemical mediators stimulate the proliferation of B and T cells? Cytokines
What does seroconversion mean in relation to HIV and AIDS? HIV antibodies have been identified in the blood
What is true of the period between seroconversion but before the development of AIDS? The individual is contagious and capable of spreading the virus, a pregnant woman may pass the virus to her unborn child
What organism commonly causes severe respiratory problems and often death in patients with AIDS? Pneumocystis carinii
What is the etiology of SLE? It is an autoimmune disorder
What is the criterion for changing the diagnosis from HIV-positive to one of AIDS? When the helper T (CD4) cell count falls below a certain level
How could passive immunity be acquired? An injection of antivenom following a snakebite; an injection of hep B immunoglobulin
What is the mechanism by which bacteria reproduce? Spore formation
Name two structures found in human cells but not in bacterial cells cell membrane, nucleus
Name 3 structures found in bacterial cells but not in human cells cell wall, capsule, fimbriae
What type of orgainsms may produce spores? bacteria, fungi
Superinfection An infection caused by an alteration of normal body flora during treatment with an antibiotic
Name the causative agent(s) of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia fungi
Name the causative agent(s) of candidiasis fungi
Name the causative agent(s) of gonorrhea bacteria
Name the causative agent(s) of trichomoniasis protozoa
Name the causative agent(s) of tuberculosis bacteria
Name the causative agent(s) of pneumonia bacteria, viruses, fungi, chlamydia
Name the causative agent(s) of tetanus bacteria
Name the causative agent(s) of malaria protozoa
Name the causative agent(s) of athlete's foot fungi
Name the causative agent(s) of herpes zoster viruses
Name the causative agent(s) of influenza viruses
Name the causative agent(s) of botulism bacteria
How could a diagnosis of malignancy be positively confirmed? biopsy
Is measles an oncogen? no
What is often a dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy? bone marrow suppression
What kind of tumor is an osteosarcoma malignant tumor of bone
Transformation conversion of normal cell to cancerous cell
What conditions may predispose an individual to neoplasia? Immunosuppression, prolonged hormone replacement therapy, chromosomal abnormalities, exposure to radiation, dysplastic tissue changes
True or false? Benign tumors are usually encapsulated? True
Created by: changa