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SB82 Stomach
SB82 Stomach - loosely taken from Fiser's ABSITE review
Question | Answer |
---|---|
What is the normal stomach transit time? | 3-4 hours |
Peristalsis occurs only in what portion of the stomach? ________ | Distal |
What arteries supply blood to the lesser curvature of the stomach? | Right and left gastrics |
What arteries supply blood to the greater curvature of the stomach? | Right and left gastroepiploics, short gastrics |
What artery supplies blood to the pylorus? _____________ | Gatroduodenal artery |
Where does the fundus end? | At a horizontal line through the GE junction |
What substance is secreted by the cardia glands? ___________ | Mucus |
At what pH are oxyntic cells activated best? | 2.5 |
What is the first enzyme active in proteolysis? ___________ | Pepsinogen |
What cell type secretes the first enzymes active in proteolysis? ______________ | Chief cells |
What enzyme is activated by histamine to initiate acid release? _____________ | Adenylate cyclase |
What enzyme is activated by acetylcholine and gastrin to initiate acid release? __________ | Phospholipase |
What substances inhibit parietal cells? | Somatostatin, PGE-1, secretin, CCK |
What substance binds vitamin B12 and allows its resorption in the terminal ileum? ________ | Intrinsic factor |
Why is an antrectomy helpful to resolve gastric ulcers? | It removes the portion of the stomach that contains G cells, which release gastrin (normally causes increased acid release) |
Gastrin release is stimulated by what two substances? | Amino acids, acetylcholine |
The antrum contains cells that release what two main GI hormones? | Gastrin from G cells, somatostatin from D cells |
What are the main causes of rapid gastric emptying? | Previous surgery, ZES, ulcers |
These large collections of fiber within the stomach are more prevalent in diabetics with poor gastric emptying ___________ | phytobezoars |
Vascular malformation in the stomach ______________ | Dieulafoy’s ulcer |
A stomach disorder characterized by mucous cell hyperplasia and increased rugal folds _________ | Menetrier’s disease |
Gastric volvulus is associated with what type of hernia? ___________ | Type II (paraesophageal) |
Where is the stomach tear located in Mallory Weiss tear? | Near the lesser curvature |
Where does the nerve of Latarjet terminate? | Terminates as the “crow’s foot” near the incisura angularis |
What is the difference between a truncal vagotomy and a highly-selective vagotomy? | Truncal vagotomy divides the vagal trunks at the level of the esophagus (decreased emptying of solids), and a HSV divides the nerves of Latarjet but preserve the “crow’s foot” (normal emptying of solids) |
What procedure can you perform to improve emptying of solids after any vagotomy? _________ | Pyloroplasty |
What is the most common problem following vagotomy? _____________ | Diarrhea (30-50%) |
What is the pathophysiology of diarrhea after vagotomy? | Sustained MMCs force bile acids into the colon |
What is the most important factor of continued or recurrent bleeding with upper GI bleed? | Presence of bleeding at the time of EGD |
What is the most frequent type of peptic ulcer? ____________ | Duodenal |
What is the most common location of duodenal ulcers? ____________ | First part of the duodenum |
Anterior duodenal ulcers ______________ (perforate / bleed) | Perforate |
Posterior duodenal ulcers ______________ (perforate / bleed) | Bleed |
Symptoms of duodenal ulcer | Epigastric pain radiating to the back that abates with eating but returns 30 minutes later |
A patient appears to have complicated ulcer disease difficult to control with medication. What disease process do you suspect? _________ | Gastrinoma |
What is the best surgery to prevent recurrence of a duodenal ulcer refractory to medical management? | Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy with Billroth I or II |
Surgical management of bleeding duodenal ulcer | 1st duodenostomy with GDA ligation |
Eighty percent of patients with perforated duodenal ulcer will have this finding ___________ | Perforation |
What can cause pain in the pericolic gutters after duodenal ulcer perforation? | Dependency of gastric drainage |
Intractability of duodenal ulcers is defined as what? | No relief after 3 months of PPI therapy, or recurrence of ulcer within one year after medical therapy |
Diagnostic test for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome ___________ | Secretin stimulation test results in HIGH gastrin level (usually gastrin is suppressed by secretin) |
Enucleation can be performed for ZES pancreatic tumors of what size? | < 2 cm |
What are the 4 types of gastric ulcers? | Type I – lesser curvature; Type II – lesser curvature and duodenum; Type III – prepyloric; Type IV – lesser curvature along the cardia; Type V – Ulcer associated with NSAIDs |
Type A blood is associated with what type of gastric ulcer? | Type I (lesser curvature) |
Stress gastritis occurs within what time frame? | 3-10 days after stressful event |
What is the initial treatment for stress gastritis? ____________ | PPI |
Refractory bleeding from stress gastritis may be controlled through __________ | Selective angiography with vasopressin injection |
Location of Type A chronic gastritis ________ | Fundus |
Type A chronic gastritis is associated with what diseases? | Pernicious anemia and autoimmune diseases |
Location of Type B chronic gastritis ___________ | Antrum |
Type B chronic gastritis is associated with what disease? ____________ | H. pylori infection |
What portion of the stomach has 40% of gastric cancers? __________ | Antrum |
A patient has adenomatous stomach polyps. What is his risk of gastric cancer? ___________ | 10-20% |
Drop metastases from stomach cancer to the ovaries ____________ | Krukenberg tumor |
What margins do you need for gastric cancer resection? __________ | 5 cm |
Most common benign gastric neoplasm _________ | GIST tumor |
Indications for surgical resection of GIST tumor | > 5 cm or > 5-10 mitoses per high-powered field |
Margins for GIST tumor resection | 1 cm |
Chemotherapy for GIST tumors __________ | Gleevec |
What is the mechanism of action of the chemotherapeutic agent used in GIST tumor treatment? | Tyrosine kinase inhibitor |
How do gastric leiomyosarcomas spread? __________ | Hematogenously |
What is the most commonly involved organ in extranodal lymphoma? ____________ | Stomach |
MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoma) usually resolves after what intervention? ____________ | H. pylori eradication |
Roux-en-Y gastric bypasses may result in these six complications | Marginal ulcers, leak, necrosis, B12 deficiency, iron-deficiency anemia, gallstones |
What is the most common cause of failure after gastric bypass? | High carbohydrate snacking |
What percentage of patients develop marginal ulcers after gastric bypass? | 10% |
Treatment for stenosis of anastomosis following gastric bypass ___________ | Serial dilation |
What is the pathphysiology of dumping syndrome? | Rapid transit of carbohydrates into the small bowel, causing fluid shifts and sudden release of insulin |
A patient complains of postprandial epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting. EGD with biopsy shows gastritis and evidence of bile reflux. What is the likely diagnosis? | Alkaline reflux gastritis |
What is the initial treatment of alkaline reflux gastritis? | PPI, cholestyramine, metoclopramide |
Surgical treatment for refractory alkaline reflux gastritis | Conversion ot Billrot I or II to Roux-en-Y |
Roux limbs should be what length to reduce the risk of roux stasis? | > 40 cm |
Delayed gastric emptying after vagotomy __________ | Chronic gastric atony |
Treatment for delayed gastric emptying after vagotomy | Near-total gastrectomy with Roux-en-Y |
Treatment for duodenal stump blowout | Duodenostomy with drains |
Treatment for efferent loop obstruction __________ | Balloon dilation |