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Which neuro support cell is derived from mesoderm? the rest? microglia, the rest are all from ectoderm
Which cell has a marker of GFAP astrocyte
what do astrocytes do physical support, repair, K+ metabolism, maintain BBB
what do microglia form after tissue damage large ameboid phagocytic cells
HIV infections cause microglia to form multinucleate giant cells
which myelin forming cell myelinates multiple nerves at once oligodendroglia
which myelin forming cell myelinates only one nerve at a time schwann cells
which neuro support cell looks like fried eggs on H/E Stain oligodendroglia
which neuro support cell adds myelin to PNS? CNS? PNS- schwann, CNS- Oligodenroglia
A bundle of nerves is called a? fasicle
what surrounds a fasicle of nerve fibers perineurium
What surrounds multiple nerve fasiclese epineurium
What surrounds individual nerve fibers endoneurium
which nerve layer(endo, peri, epi) needs to be rejoined during limb reattachment peri
which nerve later (endo, peri, epi) acts like an extension of the blood brain barrier peri
which NT is synthesized at the locus ceruleus NE
which NT is sythesized at the Ventral Tegmentum Dopamine
which NT is synthesized at the Substantia Nigra Dopamine
Which NT is synthesized at the Raphe Nucleus serotonin (5-HT)
Which NT is synthesized at the Basal nucleus of Meynert Ach
What 3 things make up the Blood-Brain-Barrier astocyte foot processes, tight junctions btw nonfenestrated capillary endothelial cells, and Basement membrane
what two molecules can cross Blood brain barrier via carries in barrier glucose and amino acids
What is vasogenic edema when destroyed BBB leading to ECF in brain, usually caused by infaract, infection, or neoplasm
where are examples of areas lacking BBB area postrema (vomiting) and neurophypophysis (ADH release)
what is the supraoptic nucleus? Paraventricular nucleus? Where is it found? controls thirst and water balance by making ADH (supra) and reproductive aspects via oxytocin (para), they are located in the hypothalamus
what is the adenohypophysis? what is found there? What controls it? anterior lobe of the pituitary that stores hormonal signals and is controlled by release factors made in the hypothalamus.
What is the neurohypophysis posterior pituitary that stores oxytocin and ADH made in the hypothalamus
Where is hunger controlled in the brain hypothalamus
what part of the hypothalamus controls hunger and satiety hunger-lateral area and satiety is ventromedial area
what happens if the lateral area of the hypothalamus is damaged leads to anorexia and starvation, no hunger
what happens if the ventromedial area of the hypothalamus is damaged leads to obesity and hyperphagia, no satiety
which part of the hypothalamus controls parasympathetics anterior
which part of the hypothalamus controls sympathetics posterior
what is the suprachiasmatic nucleus? where is it found? part of the hypothalamus that controls circadian rhythms
which part of the hypothalamus causes cooling when hot Anterior-Cooling (A/C) (sympathetics)
which part of the hypothalamus causes heat conservation when cold posterior
which part of the brain controls temperature hypothalamus
what is the septal nucleus? controls sexual urges and emotions part of the limbic system
what is a poikilotherm cold blooded animal
What is the Lateral Geniculate nucleus? where is it found part of thalamus that is a relay for vision (optic nerve)
what is the Medial Geniculate Nucleus? Where is it found part of the thalamus that is a relay for auditory information.
What does the VPL control? Where is it located body sensation relay before entering cortex, found in thalamus
What does the VPM control? Where is it located face sensation (CN V) relay before entering cortex, found in thalamus
What does the VA/VL control? Where is it located motor relay from basal ganglia or cerebellum to process motor signals
if you damage the posterior thalamus which is more likely to be lost, motor or sensory function? sensory (VPL/VPM)
if you damage the anterior thalamus which is more likely to be lost, motor or sensory function? motor (VA/VL)
what is the circuit of the limbic system hippocampus-> fornix-> mamillary bodies-> thalamus-> cingulate cortex-> back to hippocampus
what is the purpose of the limbic system Feeding, Fleeing, Fighting, Feeling, Fucking
which type of neurons are used to send input to the cerebellum climbing and mossy fibers
which type of neurons are used to send output from the cerebellum perkinje fibers
What is the driect pathway in the basal ganglia, what is it's overall effect cortex activates, as does Dopamine working at D1 receptors on the striatum(putamen/caudate) which inhibits Globus Pallidus Interna which inhibits thalamus(VA/VL) which activates the cortex. Overall we see the inhibition of GPi which normally inhibits move
How does the indirect pathway in the basal ganglia work? cortex stimulates striatum but dopamine acts to inhibit the stiatum. The striatum normally inhibits Globus pallidus externa which inhibits subthalamic nucleus(STN). The STN normall activates GP interna which inhibits the thalamus. Overall we see that the
Which receptors does dopamine bind in the direct and indirect basal ganglia pathways D1 in direct and D2 in indirect.
where in the cortex is the motor section pre central gyrus
where in the cortex is the sensory section post central gyrus
where in the cortex is wernicke's area posterior aspect of the temporal lobe
where in the cortex is the primary auditor cortex internal part of the temporal lobe (sylvian fissure)
where is Broca's area inferior part of frontal lobe, next to temporal lobe
where are the frontal eye fields, what do they partcipate with saccadic eyemovements, located on the superior aspect of the frontal lobe just infront of the motor cortex
what is heschl's gyrus primary auditory cortex
which part of the motor cortex is involved with legs internal aspect
where does the anterior cerebral A. provide blood to central aspect of the cortex(includes sensory and motor for lower limbs)
where does the middle cerebral A. provide blood to external aspect of the cortex (includes sensory and motor for upper body)
where does the posterior cerebral A. provide blood to posterior cortex
Most common site of aneurysm in circle of Willis anterior communicating A.
which cerebral artery supplies wernicke'e and broca's areas Middle Cerebral A.
First branch of the basilar artery AICA (anterior inferior cerebellar A.)
Last branch of the Vertebral A. Posterior inferior cerebellar A. (PICA)
what branches initially come off the middle cerebral A lateral striate
what are the lateral striate branches branches of the MCA which supply internal capsule and basal ganglia structures.
What structure connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle foramen of monroe
What connects the third ventricle with the fourth ventricle cerebral aqueduct
What are the two exits for CSF in the fourth ventricle Foramen of Luschka (Lateral) and Foramen of Magendie(Medial)
where does CSF go when it exits ventricles cistern-> arachnoid granulations-> dural venous sinuses-> venous system
which vein connects anteriorly with the cavernous sinus superior opthalmic v.
which veins/sinus make the confluence of sinuses straight, occipital, superior saggital, transverse
what vessels drains CSF from sinuses to veinous system of body internal juglar vein
how does the internal juglar vein exit the skull jugular foramen
which sinus becomes the straight sinus inferior sagittal sinus
what is a non-communicating hydrocephalus one where there is a block within the ventricles
what is a communicating hydrocephalus one where the block is in the subarachnoid space and the ventricles are free
how spinal nerves are there, what is their break down 31 (8C, 12T, 5L, 5S, 1Cox)
How do the spinal never roots exit the vertebral coloumn (above or below corresponding vertebra) C1->C7 exit above and C8 and down exit below vertebra with same name
where does vertebral disk herniation usually occur between L5 and S1
where does the spinal cord end in adults L1/L2
where does the subarachnoid space extend in adults S2
where is a Lumbar puncture performed in an adult L3/L4 or L4/L5
What is the order of structures pierced during a spinal tap Skin-> superficial fascia-> Supraspinus Ligament-> Interspinous Lig.-> Ligamentum Flavum-> Eidural space-> Dura Mater-> Subdural space-> Arachnoid -> Subarachnoid space-> CSF
where is CSF located in the spinal column subarachnoid space
what does the dorsal columns carry pressure, vibration, touch, proprioception
what are the two subnuclei of the dorsal columns formed in the upper spinal column/brainstem? what do each carry? which is more medial? Fasiciculus cuneatus(upper body/extremities) and Fasiciculus Gracilis(Lower body, and lower extremities), the FG is more medial
where is the spinothalamic tract located on a cross section of spinal cord ventral laterally
what does the spinothalamic tract carry pain and temperature
which spinal tract crosses the spinal cord as soon as it enters the dorsal horn spinothalamic tract (pain and temp)
where is the lateral corticospinal tract located in the cross section of the spinal cord laterally abover the STT
what does the lateral corticospinal tract carry voluntary motor (downwards)
what is carried in the lateral horn sympathetics (T1-L2)
what is the medial lemniscus path that carries the dorsal columns information after the cuneate and gracilus cross over in medulla
where does the dorsal column pathway synapse 1st at cuneate and gracilis nuclei, 2nd at at VPL then it goes to cortex
where does the spinothalamic tract synapse 1st as soon as it enters spinal cord in dorsal horn grey matter, then it travels up spinal cord (contralaterally) 2nd at VPl then goes to cortex
where is the cell body of the primary sensory neurons in the spinothalamic tract dorsal root ganglion
what type of neurons carry information in the spinothalamic tract,(what are the primary neuron fiber types) A-delta and C fibers
where does the lateral corticospinal tract cross over at the pyramids in medulla.
where does the lateral corticospinal tract synapse 1st at anterior horn in spinal cord, 2nd at neuromuscular junction.
What is a pudendal nerve block used for pregnancy
what landmark is used for pudendal nerve block ischial spine
where is mcburney's point 1/3 of way from superior iliac spine to umbilicus
what landmark is used for lumbar punctures iliac crest
Name the dermatome, posterior aspect of skull "cap" C2
Name the dermatome, high turtle neck shirt area C3
Name the dermatome, low collar shirt area C4
Name the dermatome, nipple T4
Name the dermatome, xiphoid process T7
Name the dermatome, umbilicus T10
Name the dermatome, inguinal ligament L1
Name the dermatome, kneecaps L4
Name the dermatome, Penile zones S2,3,4
Name the dermatome, Anal Zones S2,3,4
Name the spinal root, Biceps C5,C6
Name the spinal root Triceps C7,8
Name the spinal root Knee L3,4
Name the spinal root Achilles S1,2
babinski sign is a sign that suggests upper motor neuron lesion
what is the moro reflex extension of the limbs when startled, seen in infants only
what is the rooting reflex nipple seeking, seen in infants only (and horny males:-) )
what is the palmar reflex grasps objects in palm, seen only in infants
when do infant reflexs usually disappear within 1 year
what does the muscle spindle sense length of muscle fiber
what does the golgi tendon organ sense tension in muscle fibers
what are the nerve fibers that come off of muscle spindles 1A and 2
what are the nerve fibers that come off of the golgi tendon Ib
how does the deep tendon reflex work intrafusal fibers in the muscle sense length of the muscle contract and signal via 1A fibers to the alpha motor neurons in the spinal cord to contract, this creates the reflex.
how do the golgi tendons work sense tension in extrafusal muscle fibers and send signal to spinal cord that inhibits alpha motor neurons and relaxes muscle
what NT do Ia, Ib, and gamma neurons use glutamate
what do the gamma neurons in the muscle spindle do they will contract intrafusal fibers next to the muscle spindle when the muscle is relaxed so that the spindle always stays taut and the body knows the muscle length
which Cranial nerves come out of the brain stem medially 3, 6 and 12
what is the only cranial nerve to exit the brain stem dorsally 4
what is the superior colliculi conjugate vertical gaze center
what is the inferior colliculi connects to medial geniculate nucleus and is used in auditory processing
what is parinuad syndrome lesion in superior colliculi leading to loss of conjugate vertical gaze
what is an example of a tumor that would affect the superior colliculi pinealoma-> parinuad's syndrome
what does the pinal gland do melatonin secretion, needed for circadian rythms
Name the 12 cranial nerves and whether they are motor, sensory or both I-olfactory(S), II-optic(S), III-Oculomotor(M), IV-Trochlear(M), V-Trigeminal(B), VI-Abducens(M), VII-Facial(B), VIII-Auditory(vestibularcochlear)(S), IX- Glossopharyngeal(B), X-Vagus(B), XI-Spinal Accessory(M), XII-Hypoglossal(M)
Name the cranial nerve: Taste from posterior 1/3 of tongue IX
Name the cranial nerve:parotid gland secretion IX
Name the cranial nerve: lateral rectus Abducens
Name the cranial nerve:constrict pupil III
Name the cranial nerve: motor/sensory from GI tract X
Name the cranial nerve:sensation from tonsils, pharynx, and middle ear IX
Name the cranial nerve:sternocleidomastoid XI
Name the cranial nerve:carotid sinus and body IX
Name the cranial nerve:accommodation III
Name the cranial nerve:sensation from face and teeth V
Name the cranial nerve: sensation from eye V
Name the cranial nerve:trapezius XI
Name the cranial nerve:anterior 2/3 of taste VII
Name the cranial nerve:sensation of anterior 2/3 of tongue V
Name the cranial nerve: sensation of posterior 1/3 of tongue IX
Name the cranial nerve: sensation from back of mouth X
Name the cranial nerve: motor to tongue XII
Name the cranial nerve:motor and sensory to pharynx, larynx, and bronchi X
Name the cranial nerve:motor of facial expression muscles VII
Name the cranial nerve:motor to stylopharyngeus muscle and upper pharynx IX
Name the cranial nerve: motor to strap muscles XI
Name the cranial nerve:motor to superior oblique IV
Name the cranial nerve: secretion from lacrimal gland VII
Name the cranial nerve:motor to muscles of mastication V
what muscle is used to closed the eye oblicuaris oculi
Name the cranial nerve: stapedius muscle in ear VII
which cranial nerves emerge from medulla 9, 10, 11, 12
which cranial nerves emerge from pons 5, 6, 7, 8
which cranial nerves emerge from midbrain 3, 4
how does the corneal reflex work feel touch with V and then close lid with VII
how does lacrimation nerve reflex work feel touch with V and then secrete with VII (same as corneal)
how does jar jerk reflex work feel it with V3 and then move it with V3
how does the pupillary reflex work see light with II and then constrict with III (parasympathetics)
which nerve does the gag reflex IX
what arteries are referred to as the "arteries of cerebral hemorrhage" because they often clog or rupture in stroke lenticulostriate (branch off MCA)
which cranial nerve arises btw the PCA and SCA III
which cranial nerves are found in nucleus solitarius VII, IX, X- visceral sensory information (taste, baroreceptors, gut distention)
which cranial nereves are found in the nucleus ambiguus IX, X, XI - motor innervation of the pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagues(swallowing and speech)
What is found in the dorsal motor nucleus parasympathetics to the heart, lungs, and upper GI
If someone loses the nucleus solitarius what would you expect loss of taste
what would you expect if someone lost the nucleus ambiguus trouble swallowing and non gag reflex
where does the olfactory nerve enter the skull cribiform plate
where does the optic nerve enter the skull optic canal
what leaves and enters the superior orbital fissure CNIII, IV, V1, and VI
what leaves via the foramen rotundum V2
what leaves via the foramen ovale V3
what leaves via the foramen spinosum Middle Meningeal A.
what leaves via the internal auditory meatus VII and VIII
what leaves via the jugular foramen IX, X, XI, and jugular vein
what leaves via the hypoglossal canal XII
what leaves via the foramen magnum XI and brain stem
where is the hypoglossal canal next to the foramen magnum
where is the jugular foramen next to the internal auditory meatus
where is the foramen rotundum near the optic canal and super. orbital fissure
which is bigger, foramen ovale or spinosum ovale
what vessels traverse the cavernous sinus III, IV, V1, V2, VI and internal carotid A and pituitary. which Cranial nerve is found next to the carotid A in the cavernous sinus (by itself in the middle)
what is cavernous sinus syndrome mass effect in sinus that leads to ophthalmopleagia, opthalmic and maxillary sensory loss (loss of II, IV, VI, and V1, V2)
what cranial nerve is injured if the pt can't say "Kuh-Kuh-Kuh", why? X, palate elevation
what cranial nerve is injured if the pt can't say "La-la-la", why? XII, tests tongue
what cranial nerve is injured if the pt can't say "Mi-Mi-Mi", why? VII, tests lips
what are the muscles of mastication masseter, temporalis, medial and lateral pterygoid
which muscles of mastication close the jaw 3 M's Masseter, TeMporalis and Medial pterygoid
which muscles of mastication open the jaw lateral pterygoid
what is the only nerve that ends in "glossus" that isn't innervated by the hypoglossal? palatoglossus, CN X
all the muscles with "palat" in name except one? is innervated by? all innervated by CN X, except tensor veli palatini which is CN V
what do C and alpha delta fibers do? pain and temperature (free nerve endings)
what do meissner's corpuscles do fine touch- finger tip receptors
where are meissner's corpuscles found hairless skin(glabrous)
what are pacinian corpuscles vibration sensors
where are pacinian corpuscles found deep skin layers, ligaments and joints
what are merkel's disks, where are they found fine touch (pressure) andnear hair follicles in skin
what is conductive hearing loss when the mechanics of the ear cannot transmit sound wave (normal 8th nerve)
what is sensorineural hearing loss when the 8th nerve can't relay info to cortex (normal inner ear)
which type of hearing loss results in a negative rinne test conductive
what is the rinne test when you test whether air or bone conduction is better using the mastoid process
what is the weber test when you test to see if sound localizes to one ear or another
what type of hearing loss has sound localized to the normal ear during weber test? localized to bad ear? normal-sensorineural, bad- conductive
which frequency are lost first (high or low) in elderly hearing loss first high then low
what is the primary component of perilymph Na+
what is the primary component of endolymph K+
where is endolymph made stria vascularis
what do the saccule and utricle detect linear acceeleration
what do the semi circular canals detect angular acceleration
what type of fluid is found within the structures of the inner ear endolymph
what type of fluid surrounds the outside of the structures in the inner ear perilymph
what are the otolithic organs utricle and saccule (measure linear acceleration)
how do the semicircular canals work endolymph inside moves and pushes the hair cells(kinocilium and sterocilia) which are part of the ampulla.
how does the utricle or saccule work endolymph moves and presses kinocilium/sterocilia located in the macula.
what is the cochlea part of inner ear where sound gets processed
how does the cochlea work sound waves enter the cochlea via the inner ear bones, this deflects hair cells on the organ of corti which transmit message to 8th nerve
the hair cells in the ear that are short and stiff produce which type of frequencies high
the hair cells in the ear that are long and flexible produce which type of frequencies low
what is connected to the lens to make it move ciliary process
what are the layers of the back of the eye sclera->choroid-> retina-> vitreous humor
where is aqueous humor drained in the anterior chamber by the canal of schlemm
what vessel is located directly above the optic nerve opthalmic A.
what happens to the eye with 3rd nerve damage eye is down and out
what happens to the eye with 4th nerve damage eye is downward and diplopia
what happens to the eye with 6th nerve damage eye is deviated medially
which muscle is innervated by the 6th nerve lateral rectus
which muscle is innervated by the 4th nerve superior oblique
how does the pupillary light reflex work light enters eye-> Optic nerve goes to pretectum (near aquiduct)-> goes to Edinger-Westphal nucleus on both the left and right-> activates the third nerve-> that sends parasympathetics to the ciliary ganglia-> activates pupillary constrictor muscle.
Shine light in patients left eye, and you see no constriction in either eye, what is wrong optic nerve on left is damaged (could be neurosphyillus)
Shine light in patients left eye, only see constriction in right pupil, what is wrong 3rd nerve on left is damaged
shine light in patient's left eye, only see constriction in left pupil, what is wrong 3rd nerve damage on the right
what is Marcus Gunn phenomenon afferent pupillary defect (optic nerve damage)
knock out the optic nerve on the right before the chiasm, what does the patient lose vision on the right (right anopia)
what causes right anopia damage to the right optic nerve before the chiasm
damage at the optic chiasm causes what type of vision problem bitemporal hemianopsia, loss of peripheral visual fields in both eyes
damage to the optic nerve on the right after the chiasm results in what type of visual loss left homonymous hemianopia loss of vision on left side of each eye
patient loses vision on the left side of each eye, where is the damage optic nerve just after the chiasm
what are the two branches made after the optic nerve synapses at the LGN, which lobe of the brain do each travel through meyer's loop(temporal lobe) and dorsal optic radiation(parietal lobe)
the optic tract is severed at the right parietal lobe, what is the resulting vision loss left lower quadrant anopia (both eyes)
patient loses vision in the left lower quandrant of each eye, where is the damage parietal lobe of right brain
the optic tract is severed at the right temporal lobe, what is the resulting vision loss left upper quadrant anopsia(both eyes) (pie in the sky)
pt loses vision in the upper left quadrant of each eye, where is the damage right temporal lobe
patient loses vision in the center of their eyes, what causes this, what is this called central scotoma caused by macular degeration
patient loses vision on the left side of each eye with central sparing, where is the damage occipital lobe of right side.
does a blind person have pupillary light reaction yes
does a blind person have neaer synkinesis no
how does the lens round up ciliary muscle constricts which relaxes the ciliary process and allows the lens to take natural relaxed shape
what is MLF syndrome when you look one direction and the opposite eye doesn't follow and you get nystagmus in moving eye. This is caused by damage to the Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus (ex. looking right activates the VI nerve to constrict the lacteral rectus on the right, VI
patient is asked to look to their right, upon doing so they have nystagmus in their right eye and no movement of their left eye. What is this syndrome called? What is damaged? and what is a common cause? called MLF syndrome, damage to the Medial longitudinal fasciculus on the left, commonly due to multiple sclerosis
What chemical is elevated suggesting a Neural tube defect alpha-fetoprotein
Alpha feto-protein is elevated in a fetus, what does this suggest Neural tube defect
what is spinal bifida occulta failure of lamina to close but no herniation
what is a meningocele when meninges herniate through the spinal canal defect
what is a meningomyelocele when spinal cord and meninges herniate through spinal canal defect.
which type of neural tube defect is a/w a tuft of hair spina bifida occulta
what is the least severe type of NTD spina bifida occulta
what is the most severe type of NTD meningomyelocele
what is arnold-chiari malformation when cerebullum and caudal brain stem herniate through foramen magnum causing hydrocephalus.
what is holoprosencephaly failure of the proencephalon(forebrain) to separate into two halves which often causes cyclopia(one eye). It is a/w patau's and Fetal ETOH syndome
baby has elevated AFP and polyhdramnios what is a likely diagnosis anencephaly or NTD
what are the parts of the developing brain telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, myelencephalon
what makes up the proencephalon telencephalona dn diencephalon
what makes up the rhombencephalon(hindbrain) met and myel encephalons
what part of the developing brain makes the cerebal hemispheres telencephalon
what part of the developing brain makes the thalamus diencephalon
what part of the developing brain makes the midbrain mesencephalon
what part of the developing brain makes the pons metencephalon
what part of the developing brain makes the cerebellum metencephalon
what part of the developing brain makes the medulla myelencephalon
what part of the developing brain makes the lateral ventricles telencephalon
what part of the developing brain makes the 3rd ventricle diencephalon
what part of the developing brain makes the aqueduct mesencephalon
what part of the developing brain makes the 4th ventricle metencephalon
is it a sign of Upper or lower motor neuron damage, atrophy lower
is it a sign of Upper or lower motor neuron damage, fasciculation lower
is it a sign of Upper or lower motor neuron damage, increased reflexes upper
is it a sign of Upper or lower motor neuron damage, increased muscle tone upper
is it a sign of Upper or lower motor neuron damage, decreased muscle tone lower
is it a sign of Upper or lower motor neuron damage, babinski sign upper
is it a sign of Upper or lower motor neuron damage, spastic paralysis upper
what type spinal cord damage is seen in arnold-chiari malformation syringomyelia
this dz presents with both upper and lower motor neuron deficits ALS
this dz presents with only lower motor neuron deficits from destruction of the anterior horns poliomyelitis (or Werdnig-Hoffman dz)
where does polio affect the spinal cord anterior horns-> lower motor neuron deficit
what is werdnig-hoffman dz damage of anterior horns of spinal cord causing lower motor neuron damage (tongue fasiculations, hyptotonia of muscles, flaccid paralysis) babies sit in frog leg position
what part of the spinal cord does MS affect mostly white matter but it is asymmetrical and random demyelination
patient presents with loss of pain, temperature, and motor of both sides of their body but still have fine touch, vibration and pressure, what caused this occulsion of the anterior spinal artery destroying everything except the dorsal columns
patient has loss of fine touch, vibrations, and pressure bilaterally. They have normal pain/temp, and motor, what caused this loss of dorsal columns,occlusion of posterior spinal artery
degeneration of the dorsal columns and dorsal roots tabes dorsalis (teriary syphilis)
patient complains of feeling no pain or temperature bilaterally, usually in upper extremities syringomyelia from cyst in the central canal destroying the spinothalamic tract as it crosses spinal cord
loss of proprioception and ataxic gait, hyperreflexia demyelination of dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tract and spinocerebellar tract due to either B12 neuropathy or Friedreich ataxia
what does B12 neuropathy cause demyelination of dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tract and spinocerebellar tract (impaired vibration, propioception, and ataxia)
what is the brown-sequard lesion hemisection of the spinal cord, you would see loss of pain and temperature contralaterally, loss of motor and pripioception ipsilaterally
patient presents with loss of pain and temperature contralaterally, loss of motor and pripioception ipsilaterally, what is wrong hemisection of spinal cord(brown-sequard lesion)
Signs of horner syndrome ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis
what is a common cause of horner's pancoast tumor, brown sequard above T1
Name the brain lesion area, motor aphasia with comprehension broca's (no talking)
Name the brain lesion area, sensory aphasia with poor comprehension wernicke's (talk but make no sense)
Name the brain lesion area,conduction aphasia arcuate fasiculus (area connecting wernicke's and broca's)
what is conduction aphasia inability to repeat or name objects but have fluent speech and intact comprehension (damage to arcuate fasiculus-area connecting wernicke's and broca's)
Name the brain lesion area,kluver-Bucy syndrome amygdala
what is kluver-bucy syndrome hyperorality, hypersexuality, disinhibited behavior, inability to recognize faces and images (damage to limbic system)
Name the brain lesion area, personality changes frontal lobe
Name the brain lesion area, reemergence of primitive reflexes frontal lobe
Name the brain lesion area,spatial neglect syndrome right parietal lobe
what is spatial neglect syndrome (agnosia of the contralateral side of the world)
Name the brain lesion area, reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness (coma) reticular activating system
Name the brain lesion area,wernicke-korsakoff mammillary bodies
Name the brain lesion area, tremor at rest, chorea, athetosis basal ganglia
Name the brain lesion area, intention tremor, limb ataxia cerebellum hemisphere
T or F, damage of the left cerebellum produces deficits on the right side of the body F, it is ipsilateral
Name the brain lesion area,truncal ataxia and dysarthria cerebellar vermis
Name the brain lesion area,contralateral hemiballismus subthalamic nucleus
Name the brain lesion area,anterograde amnesia hippocampus
which direction would the eyes move if there is a lesion at the Frontal eye fields toward the lesion
which direction would the eyes move if there is a lesion at the Paramedian pontine reticular formation away from the lesion
where is the vermis of the cerebellum located relatively centrally
what is athetosis slow, writhing movements, especially of fingers.
what is hemiballismus sudden failing of 1 arm.
what is a neurofibrillary plaque phosphorylated tau protein
which type of amyloid plaque builds with alzheimer's alpha/Beta amyloid
which patient population is at high risk of developing alzheimer's at a very early age Down Syndrome
which genes are a/w alzheimer's APOE E4 (late onset/familial) and presilin-1 and 2(early onset/familial)
what is the 1st and 2nd most common cause of dementia in the elderly 1-alzheimers 2-multi-infarct dementia
what is seen on CT/MRI to diagnose alzheimer's widening of sulci and ventricles with atrophy gyri(cortex)
what is Pick's dz frontotemporal lobe atrophy from pick's bodies leading to parkinsonian aspects, aphasia and dementia
pt presents with aphasia, dementia and parkinsonian movements Pick's Dz
what is a pick's body intracellular aggregated tau proteins
what is lewy body dementia parkinsonism with dementia and hallucinations. Caused by alpha-synuclein defect
pt presents with parkinson like movements, dementia and hallucinations, what is wrong Lewy-body dementia, alpha-synuclein defect
pt presents with rapidly progressive dementia (weeks to months) and myoclonus Creutzfelt-Jakob dz
Associated with lewy bodies, and depigmentation of substantia nigra pars compact Parkinson's
caused by a defect in superoxide dismutase 1 ALS
floppy baby presents with tongue fasiculations, what does it have and what is the problem werdnig-Hoffman, degeneration of anterior horn
Pt presents with sore throat, fever, nausea followed by a period of muscle weakness, atrophy and hyporeflexia, what would their CSF fluid look like (glucose, protein, WBCs) glucose normal, protein slightly high, and increased WBCs. This is due to poliovirus
Who has a higher risk of developing MS, a woman born in Connecticut or the same woman born in Texas? Connecticut (higher prevalance, the further from the equator)
Pt presents with scanning speech, intention tremor, incontinence, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and nystagmus, what's wrong Multiple Sclerosis
Pt presents with slow movement of one eye while the other experiences nystagmus whent old to look to the right, he also has short clipped speech and tremor of the muscles that worsen upon movement, diagnosis multiple scelerosis
autoimmune ddz a/w increased IgG in the CSF multiple sclerosis
this demyelinating dz is a/w the JC virus and AIDS pts progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
what is progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy demyelinating dz often seen in AIDS pts due to the JC virus
which lysosomal storage dz is a/w demyelination metachromatic leukodystrophy
metachromatic leukodystrophy is what? lysosomal storage dz, with a def. of arylsulfatase A leading to demyelination
what is guillain-Barre syndrome? what causes it? a demyelinating dz of the peripheral nerves and motor fibers ventral roots usually due to molecular mimicry from infection, stress or inoculations where autoantibodies attack periperhal myelin
Common outcome of guillain-Barre? Treatment? given respiratory support and plasmapheresis/IV Ig until pt recovers, most recover competely
this neurological dz presents with an elevated CSF protein but normal cell count(albuminocytologic dissociation) guillain-Barre
what are the two types of seizures? what's the difference? partial(involves 1 part of the brain) and generalized(diffuse involvement of the brain)
what are the two types of partial seizures? what's the difference? simple (consciousness intact)and complex (impaired consciousness)
most common form of adult seizure complex partial
T or F, partial seizures can never become generalized F, they can
A kid comes in and is just staring off into space, what type of seizure should be suspected absence (petit mal)
pt comes in with seizures, first the patient falls to the floor with clenched fists and jaw, loses his bladder control and then has a series of jerky movements afterward, what type of seizure is this grand mal (tonic-clonic)
what is meant by myoclonic seizure quick repetitive jerks
what is meant by tonic seizure stiffening
what is meant by atonic seizure falls to the floor, commonly mistaken for fainting
what is epilepsy diorder characterized by multiple(recurrent) seizures
what is the number one causes of a epidural hematoma rupture of the middle meningeal artery, often due to fracture of the temporal bone
patient comes in with head trauma, CT shows a "biconvex disk" near fracture, what is wrong epidural hematoma
what is a subdural hematoma venous bleeding with a delayed onset of symptoms
which type of hematoma in the head has a CT showing hemorrhage that crosses suture lines subdural hematoma
what is a subarachnoid hemorrhage rupture of an aneurysm, usually berry
patient presents with "the worst headache of the their life" and a yellow or bloody spinal tap aubarachnoid hemorrhage
which type of hemorrhage in the skull appears crescent shaped subdural
what is a parenchymal hematoma one caused by HTN or DM, or tumor
where is the most common location of a berry aneurysm bifurcation of the anterior communicating A.
what are charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms aneurysms a/w HTN that affect small vessels
what is stuge weber syndrome congenital disorder with port-wine stain and ipsilateral leptomeningeal angioma.
what is tuberous sclerosis hamartomas in the CNS, skin, and other organs
what is von-Hippel Lindau dz covernous hemangiomas in the skin, mucosea, and other organs, a/w renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastomas in retina, brain stem and cerebellum
T or F, most of adult primary brain tumors are infratentorial F, supratentorial
T or F, most of the children primary brain tumors are infratentorial T
Most common primary tumor of adult brain glioblastoma multiforme (grade IV astrocytoma)
what is the prognosis of a glioblastoma multiforme poor (< 1 year)
patient has brain mass that shows "pseudopalisading" pleomorphic tumor cells which border central areas of necrosis and hemorrhage glioblastoma multiforme
what is the second most common primary brain tumor in adults meningioma
what do meningioma's develop from arachnoid cells
brain tumor in adult with spindle cells aranged in a whorl pattern and psammoma bodies meningioma
3rd most common adult brain tumor schwannoma
this brain tumor is often localized to the frontal lobes oligodendroglioma
this brain tumor presents with chicken wire capillary patterns and a fried egg cell apparence oligodendroglioma
this tumor is derived from rathke's pouch craniopharyngioma
what is the most common childhood supratentorial tumor of the brain craniopharyngioma
well circumscribed, brain tumor in a child that has eosinophilic corkscrew shaped fibers pilocytic astrocytoma (low-grade)
highly malignant child brain tumor foudn in the cerebellum medulloblastoma
this tumor is found in the 4th ventricle frequently ependymoma
brain tumor a/w von-Hippel-Lindau hemangioblastoma (found in cerebellum)
which brain tumor can lead to secondary polycythemia hemangioblastoma (produces EPO)
this brain tumor is a/w foamy cells and high vascularity hemangioblastomas
this brain tumor commonly has perivascular pseudorosettes and rod shaped basal ciliary bodies (blepharoplasts) ependymoma
this brain tumor is highly radiosensitive in children medulloblastoma
what is chiari I low lying cerebellum obstructs CSF flow and compresses medulla, tonsils descend through foramen magnum
what is chiari II cerebellar vermis and medulla desecnd through foramen magnum
what is chiari II cerebellar vermis and medulla desecnd through foramen magnum, this is fatal
what is Dandy Walker syndrome malformation of the posterior fossa that results in a large fossa, absent cerebellum and a cyst in its place
which way does the tongue deviate in a XII nerve lesion toward side of lesion
which way does the jaw deviate in a CN V lesion toward the lesion
which way does the patient fall with a unilateral lesion of the cerebellum toward the side of lesion
which way does the uvula deviate with a CN X lesion away from the lesion
which way is there weakness turning the head with a XI lesion while turning away from lesion
which shoulder droops in a CN XI lesion on side of lesion
patient presents with paraylsis of the lower face only upper motor nerve lesion of the VIIth nerve
patient presents with ipsilateral paralysis of the whole face where is the lesion lower motor neuron lesion of CN VII (Bell's Palsy)
what dz are a/w bell's palsy lyme, AIDS, Sarcoidosis, Tumors, Diabetes
what is the falx cerebi dividing tissue down the middle of the brain
patient presents with dilated pupil and ptosis on one side, homonymous hemianopia on the opposite eye and paraylsis on side of dilated pupil and duret hemorrhages uncal herniation (destroys lateral corticospinal tract and third nerve and compresses PCA)
Created by: honered1