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Med surg

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Question
Answer
This can cause infective endocarditis.   Wisdom teeth extraction.  
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The tearm vegetations in someone with infective endocarditis means..   Inflammatory debris of the heart valve.  
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What does infective endocarditis alter the structure of?   The valves.  
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If a client is anxious and breathless what should we as nurses due?   Raise the head of the bed and stay with client.  
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If a lower leg blood clot becomes mobile what symptoms are most likely to occur?   Sudden chest pain and or dyspnea  
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What signs and symptoms are consistant due to tissue ischemia in a client with peripheral arterial disease?   Brown discoloration to the skin on the legs.  
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Which sign is most important to tell the physician because it suggests thrombolitis in a lower extremity?   Calf pain on dorsiflection of the foot.  
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What should a nurse plan to teach someone with thromboangitis obliterans?   Buerger-Allen exercises.  
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What will be heard in the chest of a client with pericarditis?   Friction rub  
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When someone with pericarditis experiances pain what will help the client relieve the pain?   Instruct them to sit up and lean forward.  
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If someone is on a low sodium diet due to aortic stenosis. What should the client avoid?   canned soup  
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What is a ballon valvuloplasty?   A stretching of a narrowed valve  
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What does an asprin a day reduce the potential for?   forming blood clots  
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What is incouraged for a patient with aortic stenosis to prevent the need for the valsalva maneuver?   Encourage foods high in fiber  
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Pulsus paradoxus can be noted in a client with.   Cardiac tamponade  
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What is a commissurotomy?   When a surgeon digitally stretches or incises thickened cardiac valvular leaflets.  
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How do you relieve chest pain in a client with mitral valve prolapse?   Have the client lay flat with legs elevated at 90 degrees for several minutes.  
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Most common cardiomyopathy.   Dialated cardiomyopathy  
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The priority of a nurse to due to someone in the acute phase of rheumatic fever is..   Assess for early signs of endocarditis  
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Inflammation of this cardiac structure can accumulate fluid and can cause acute compression of the heart.   The pericardium.  
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When discharging a client with mitral regurgitation what is the most important symptom for the client to report to the physician?   Symptoms of heart failure  
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When the left ventrical overfills and the pressure backs up in the lungs it creates.   Pulmanary hypertension  
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A valvular disorder that is caused by dammaged by rheumatic heart disease, congenital malformation, and degenerative thickening and calcification is...   Mitral stenosis  
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A noninvasive test that evaluates the heart structure.   Echocardiogram  
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When the heart valve cusps enlarge, become floppy and bulge back into the left atrium this is called.   Mitral Valve prolapse  
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Indications a client may have cardiac disease.   Chest pain on exertion  
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Ultrasound waves that are used in a ecocardiogram are.   Sound waves which are beyond the upper range of audible sound.  
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The desired effect of atropine during a cardiac cath is to..   Treat bradycardia  
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Teaching for heart valve disorder patients might include   Taking antibiotics for a short time before dental procedures.  
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Someone with the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction should be able to tell the nurse that this is when..   arteries are hard and narrowed by fatty deposits  
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What effect does nitroglycerine tablets have?   Dialates blood vessels.  
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What is the cheif complaint during a myocardial infarction?   Chest pain, will be severe.  
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What supports the diagnosis of myocardial infarction.   Nauseated and diaphoretic.  
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What lab test if elevated can determine a myocardial infarction.   Creatine kinase (ck-mb)  
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What occurs with a myocardial infarction?   A portion of the heart muscle dies  
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In someone with coronary artery disease as the supply of oxygen to myocardial cells is reduced, the heart my be protected from damaged by.   The development of collateral circulation  
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What consequences may occur with atherosclerosis?   Can lead to heart attacks.  
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Artherosclerotic process is accelerated by:   Chronic cigarette smoking  
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In atherosclerosis the blood vessels become hard an inelastic. What causes this?   Eating to much saturated fat.  
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The difference between angina and a myocardial infarction is in angina..   The heart muscle does not die.  
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When a clients myocardium is ischemic there is a manifestation of   chest pain  
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With CAD laboratory test will show.   Elevated cholesterol.  
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What lab results will show a client has been compliant with their low fat diet?   LDL level is reduced.  
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What is recomended to healthy adults to help develop collateral circulation?   Performing regular aerobic exercise.  
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In a treadmill stress test the technician will stop the test if the client?   Exhibits a serious arrhythmia.  
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The type of cholesterol that is most benificial is?   HDL  
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What is it called when a ballon tiped catheter is inserted into a diseased coronary artery?   Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty or (PTCA)  
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After a coronary arteriography, what is a sigh that there is a clot w/in the artery at the vascular access site?   Distal leg pulses are absent.  
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After a MI a nurse should look for complications such as..   Arrhythmias and heart failure.  
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A patient askes about a stress test procedure the nurse would inform her that?   A blood pressure cuff and electrocardiogram leads are used during the test.  
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Why is a client with a MI prescribed a diuretic?   To regulate fluid balance.  
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A clent is admitted into the ER due to chest pain and nausea that started several hrs ago. The nurse notes the tropin levels are high, but LDH and CK-MB are normal. What is a possible explanation?   The patient may have had a MI, but it is too early to see changes in all the labs.  
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What intervention is appropriate to add to a client with a MI to avoid developing venous thrombosis.   Apply antiembolism stockings and remove q8h for 20 min.  
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Term used to reflect the unknown etiology of Raynaud's disease is?   Idiopathic  
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Skin colors observed in areas affected by Raynauds disease are?   Cyonotic to flushed  
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Education for Raynauds would include?   Measures to avoid cold exposure.  
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What should you discourage in a female client with vericose veins?   Knee high nylon stockings.  
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A indication someone might hav a aneurysm in the descending aorta is?   A pulsating abdominal mass.  
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The tissue responsible for initiating a normal heart beat is?   SA node.  
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What is the meaning of the term dysrhythmia?   Heart rhythm or rate, or both  
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What is sinus bradycardia?   The heart rate is less than 60 and regular.  
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A clients heart rate is 54 beats a min, in who is this considered to be acceptable?   A 20yr old who jogs 5 miles a day. Young athletic people may normally have a pulse below 60.  
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In a client with sinus tachycardia, the clients heart rate is reg and beating at a rate of.   between 100-150 bpm  
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During an atrial fibrillation the atria?   Quiver rapidly.  
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Someone in ventrical fibrillation needs?   Immediate defibrillation.  
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When talking to a client their monitor displays flatline the first thing we should do is?   Assess the client and check the leads.  
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Occasional PVCs are?   Virtually harmless.  
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What is concerning in a client being monitored by cardiac telemetry.   A monitor showing atrial fibrillation with a rate of 90.  
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A client experiencing frequent PVCs needs to be?   Evaluated by a physician.  
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A physical assessment a nurse will detect in someone experiancing ventricular fibrillation is?   No palpable peripheral pulses.  
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A patient collapses and becomes unresponsive then starts to shake. After yelling for help a nurse should?   Open the patients airway.  
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When rescue breathing is being performed effectively you will see?   The client's chest will rise and fall.  
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The correct placement of your hands during cardiac compressions is?   Over the lower half of the sternum about 1 1/2 inches above the tip of the xiphoid process.  
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Where will a permanent pacemaker be placed?   Below the right or left clavical.  
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What is not needed for a client returning from a cardiac cath?   Temp every 15 min x3  
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Someone with a permanent pacemaker should?   maintain atleast 6 in between digital cell and pacemaker.  
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Personnel should be aware a client has a pacemaker when?   A client is scheduled for a MRI  
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Betty is schedualed for a hysterectomy. She will be NPO at midnight to reduce the risk for?   vomiting and aspiration.  
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Why is a Foley catheter inserted before surgery?   If the bladder is empty there is less chance of it being injured due to the surgery.  
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Why is nail polish removed before surgery?   So that the oxygen saturation can be checked accuratly.  
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Mrs. P refused her post op sleeping medication at bedtime. At 2 in the morning she was found crying in her room. The most helpfull approach would be?   "You seem upset Mrs P"  
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This is not true concerning surgical "Prep".   It steralizes the skin for surgery.  
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After surgery a patient is put in what position?   So vomit and secretions are not aspirated into the tracheobronchial passages.  
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When someone is moved from the OR to the post anesthesia unit when does the nurse remove the oral airway?   When the patients gag reflex returns.  
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When you do not change the position of the client and remind them to deep breath and cough they are at risk for pneumonia. What type is this?   Hypostatic  
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Ambulation after surgery helps?   Get over problems that contribute to abdominal distension.  
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Why is a post op patient at risk for pnemonia?   Failure to expand lungs sufficiently, non productive cough and lying in one position.  
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Post up pnemonia can be prevented by?   Assisting patient to turn frequently, encouraging cough and deep breathing and early ambulation.  
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What will the nurse do when the patient is in post anesthesia recovery?   Turn the patient,assess the blood pressure and pulse and check their temp every 15 min.  
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Vomiting and nausea post op is often caused by?   anesthesia  
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The most important thing to do to a patient following surgery is?   Assure patency of airway.  
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An indication of an internal hemmorrhage can be?   Restlessness  
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An accumulation of gas after surgery is caused by?   Lack of peristalsis.  
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How do you tell a patient's peristalsis has returned after surgery?   Bowel sounds.  
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What are symptoms of a paralytic ileus during the post op period?   Abdominal distention and pain, vomiting and absence of bowel sounds.  
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How can abdominal distention be relieved post op?   Ambulation.  
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Lots of protine in the diet post op helps?   Promote healing.  
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What do nurses due when a post op patient complains of pain?   Assess and determine the level of pain.  
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What is it important to due when assessing a surgical dressing after surgery.   Report any signs of excessive drainage or bright red blood.  
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Between the 7th and 10th day post op what is most likely to occur?   Wound dehiscence and evisceration.  
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If wound disruption has occured or is suspected the client is placed in?   Complete rest in a position that creates the least strain on the incision.  
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A inappropriate action to due to a client recovering from general anesthesia would be?   Maintaining a supine position.  
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When a physician orders a patient controlled analgesia the nurse will let the patient know.   Pain releif should occur shortly after pushing the button.  
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A charge nurse draws up medication for the student nurse. What is the most appropriate action.   Refuse to give the injection.  
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When an endotracheal tube is used to administer general anesthesia the patient often comlains of?   A sore throat.  
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An oropharyngeal airway helps?   Maintain a patent airway.  
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What is done first when treating a patient for shock?   A intravenous line.  
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During the compensatory shock phase, low blood volume stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete:   Antidiuretic hormone  
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What will the nurse due if a post op patient has a crystalloid IV fluid running?   Assess the amount remaining and fate of flow, assess needle site for infiltrationn and note whether the patient is to continure recieving the fluids.  
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Why do we assess the capilary refill?   To assess the arterial blood flow in an extremity.  
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When assessing for neurogenic shock the most prominant feature of this type of distributive shock is?   Peripheral vasodialation and hypotension.  
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Some of the first signs of shock are:   Tachycardia hypotension anxiety or restlessness  
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A person is considered to be pre-hypertensive when systolic blood pressure is equal or above 120mm Hg and Distolic is equal to or higher than?   80 mm Hg  
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The cause of essential hypertension is?   unknown  
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What is the most important lifestyle change for someone with hypertension?   Eliminate smoking cigarettes.  
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What lab tests are used to check for renal complications related to hypertension?   BUN and creatinine  
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What sign and symptom is connected to hypertension?   Spontaneous nosebleeds  
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What do you observe with a client with sudden acute hypertension?   A flushed face  
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To accuratly diagnose hypertension the best place to check the blood pressure is?   Have the patient check their blood pressure in their own environment.  
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A sign that atherosclerosis is a contributing cause of hypertension is?   Their cholesterol is elevated  
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The first measures used to treat hypertensive clients.   dietary modifications weight reduction and increasing exercise  
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Too small of a blood preassure will cause?   High blood pressure reading  
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The action of the calcium channel blocker dilitazem (Cardizem) for hypertension is?   It dialates arterioles and arteries  
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If there is hemorrage and significant blood loss in a patient the nurse should?   Place the patient supine  
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Secondary hypertension is due too?   A known cause.  
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Accelerated hypertension causes?   hemorrhages and exudates in the eye  
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What body chemical elevates blood pressure?   Catechomamines  
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Hypertensive disease can cause damage too?   The heart, brain, and kidneys.  
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What are you most likely too observe in a clients inner eye with elevated blood pressure?   Papilledema  
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A sign of renal failure in a client with hypertension is when?   Less than 30 mL of urine per hour is excreated  
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A beverage someone with hypertension can have is?   Orange juice  
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Hypertension is a chronic condition that requires?   Lifelong attention  
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A hypertensive client needs additional teaching when they state?   "I will take an extra dose when I feel tense"  
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In planing the care of a client w/ accelerated hypertension it is appropriate to do what?   Measuring VS every 15 min.  
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The term conjestive in heart failure means when the heart fails as a pump...   an accumulation of blood and fluids in organs and tissues.  
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When the left side of the heart fails the client will have symptoms affecting...   The lungs and breathing  
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People with heart failure usually have a history of..   chronic hypertension  
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What reason should a nurse demonstrate competence in front of somone going in for cardiac surgery?   To relieve anxiety in a client.  
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What is a inotropic action?   Heart strength  
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Right sided heart failure enlarges?   The liver  
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In heart failure an echocardiography is done too...   Show the size of the heart chambers.  
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What findings should be reported to the doctor before giving dig?   An apical heart rate of 55 bpm  
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A person with right sided heart failure usually has?   Chronic lung disease.  
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A sign related to cor pulmonale is?   Dyspnea when sitting  
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The abdomen in someone with right-sided heart failure is usually?   Distended  
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A possible outcome when giving CHF paitents O2 is?   The heart rate will be reduced to the normal range.  
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In someone taking digoxin we should offer the client food high in?   Pottassium  
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Somone developing left sided heart failure will usually half to?   Sleep in a reclining chair.  
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When a heart has to pump against elevated pressure in the pulmanary vascular system patients tend to develop?   Right ventricular hypertrophy  
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A daily assessment in a client with heart failure is?   Weight  
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In someone experiancing paroxysmal dyspnea we will use?   Several pillows to support head and thorax.  
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Why is a client with pulmonary edema given morphine sulfate?   To vasodialate the vascular bed.  
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Complications of coronary artery bypass   dysrhythmias stroke renal failure decline in mental function  
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A mitral valve commissurotomy is   The repair of adhesions on the cusps of the valve.  
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A patient experiancing wheezing, restlessness, moist lung sounds, and coughing up pink frothy sputum is showing signs of...   Pulmanary edema  
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Somone with CHF taking digitalis and Lasix should include what in their diet?   potatoes, milk, and orange juice  
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A BNP level is?   A hormone that indicates the severity of heart failure.  
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A serous membrane covering the lungs?   Parietal pleura  
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What part of the bronchi is a foreign object most likely to lodge in a choking incident?   Right bronchus  
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Lung inflation is dependent on?   Negative pressure  
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What should be reported immediatly after a bronchoscopy and biopsy?   Laryngeal stridor  
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Wheezes in the lower lung feilds is a sign of?   Narrowed airways  
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Normal values for an arterial blood gas PaO2 in an adult is?   80-100 mm Hg  
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A tracheal deviation to the unaffected side of someone suffering from a pneumothorax is from?   Dangerously high preassure inside the thoracic cavity  
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A possible dangerouse complication associated w/ a bronchoscopy is?   laryngeal edema  
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A client that has undergone sinus surgey you should assess for?   visual acuity  
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You should document what in a client with laryngitis that has complete loss of voice?   aphonia  
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Nursing interventions for epistaxis?   Applying external preassure Packing the nares Applying an ice pack  
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A nurse should assess clear drainage in a nasal fracture for?   Glucose  
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Following surgery for a nasal fracture a nurse should assess?   Airway petency  
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If diagnosed early a person with laryngeal cancer they would expect what kind of surgery?   Partialy laryngectomy  
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How long should a client with a tracheotomy be suctioned?   No longer than 10 seconds at a time.  
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To prevent atelectasis in a patient that is intubated the nurse should?   Turn the patient every 2 hrs  
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Collapse of a lung due to air entering the pleural space is a?   Pneumothorax  
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When respirations gradually increase and decrease in a reg pattern with periods of apnea is called?   CHEYNE-STOKES RESPIRATIONS  
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Nasal polyps   Tend to be in people allergic to asprin are usually benign  
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Chest radiographs are used to identify   Pneumonia atelectasis Pneumothorax  
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When ausculatating someone with a lung abscess what will you hear over that area.   Lung sounds will be absent  
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A nursing diagnoses in someone with an O2 sat of 80% that has viral pneumonia is?   Impaired gas exchange  
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Sign of sleep apnea?   loud snoring  
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People with Cystic fibrosis do this treatment several times a day?   Perform postural drainage  
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Assessments for a client with a water seal chest drainage system.   Inspect skin around dressing for sub Q emphysema. Check the clients resp. status, heart rate, and neurological status. Make sure water seal drainage system is intact.  
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One of the treatments for someone with bronchiectasis is?   Postural drainage  
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The primary cause of emphysema is?   Smoking  
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The best nursing intervention for someone suffering from an acute asthma attack is?   Provide oxygen per mask  
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Severe,progressive, and prolonged acute asthma attacks are called?   Status asthmaticus  
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Air escaping from the chest into the sub Q tissue is called?   Subcutaneous emphysema  
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The most appropriate nursing intervention for cardiac irregularities during suctioning of a endotracheal tube would be?   Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the patient  
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A sign of lung cancer?   hemoptysis  
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Flail chest could occurin someone with   Fractured ribs  
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Someone with a total laryngectomy due to cancer will have a?   Permanant tracheostomy  
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Difficulty breathing and hemoptysis in a post surgical client may indicate?   Pulmanary embolus  
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The cause of pulmanary edema is caused by fluid in the?   Alveoli  
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If someone is breathing 40 times a min a nursing diagnosis is?   Ineffective breathing pattern  
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Pleural effusion is:   Pus and fluid between the parietal and visceral pleurae  
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The route of transmission of tuberculosis is?   Airborne  
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The signs of a pneumothorax in someone that has sustained a blunt injury to the chest.   Shortness of breath  
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Which test results will confirm Tuberculosis?   A sputum culture  
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When treating severe epistaxis a nurse can make available what?   Topical epinephrine  
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Preventing deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary emboli in someone on strict bed rest would be?   Active range of motion excercises  
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Most common cause of acute bronchitis   A virus  
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Someone with acute bronchitis should?   expectorate rather than swallow sputum  
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To loosen bronchial secretions in someone with bronchitis the nurse may recomend?   Humidification of room air  
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While performing postural drainage to help loosen secretions a nurse can do?   Gental percussion over the segment being drained.  
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Adequate oxygenation in someone with pneumonia may be accomplished by?   Placing the client in a semi-Fowlers position  
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A nurse encourages deep breathing in a patient with pleurisy by?   Assisting the client to splint the chest wall  
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A client is observed for what following a thoracentesis?   Respiratory distress  
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When assessing a Mantoux skin test the site has no induration and a 1mm area of ecchymosis, the results would be?   Negative  
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The effectiveness of coughing and deep breathing can be determined by?   Auscultation of the lungs  
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You can encourage coughing and deep breathing by?   An Incentive spirometer  
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Primary teaching of someone with TB is?   Adhearing to the prescribed medical regimen  
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Shortness of breath while performing small tasks is called?   exertional dyspnea  
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The O2 flow rate for a client with emphysema   No more than 2-3 L/min  
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The nurse would insure what on a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage sys?   The connection is taped between the chest tube and drainage system, the dressing is maintained at the insertion site.  
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The purpose of a water seal drainage system is to?   Prevent air from re-entering the chest  
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The nurse should imediatly do what if a chest drainage bottle becomes disconected from the tubing?   Reconnect and document the occurance  
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What pathological condition do you hear stridor during respiration?   An airway obstruction  
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Most characteristic finding in pulmanary edema?   pink frothy sputum  
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Early signs of hypoxemia?   Restlessness Yawning Tachycardia  
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What is the outcome expected for a client experiancing an acute asthma attack?   The client will maintain an open airway with adequate gas exchange  
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When turning a client with a chest tube connected to a pleur-evac should?   Keep pleura-vac below the level of the wound.  
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Collection of pus in the pleural cavity?   Empyema  
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Red blood cells   Erythrocytes  
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When macrophages ingest bacteria and foreign substances.   Phagocytosis  
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After a bone marrow aspiration on a patient with leukemia as nurses what should we do as nurses?   Apply preassure at the site to stop the bleeding.  
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A test to distinguish pernicious animia and folic acid deficiency?   Schilling Test  
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Condition that makes a patient bleed easy?   Thrombocytopenia  
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In order for a child to be born with sickle cell what needs to happen?   The mother and father must both carry the defective gene.  
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When injecting iron by z track what angle does she insert the needle?   90 degrees  
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When a patient has activity intolerance due to animia, what should the nurse do?   Space interventions and encourage rest periods.  
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What causes joints to ache in someone with polycythemia vera?   Uric acid  
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Acute lymphocytic leukemia affects what age group?   Younger than 5  
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Common cause of agranulocytosis.   Toxicity from drugs.  
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Safe foods for a client with aplastic anemia.   Cooked oatmeal with milk  
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What should someone with hemophillia avoid?   Contact sports  
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Cause of lymphangitis?   Streptococcus  
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Cause of mononucleosis?   Epstein-barr virus  
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If a patient has a lymph node biopsy and it states they have Hodgking lymphoma the report will also have?   Reed-sternberg cells  
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A client is admitted with aplatic anemia. What is the best room to put them in?   A private isolation room with a negative airflow.  
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A symptom of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.   Diffuse lymph node enlargement  
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What is the primary role of platelets?   Play a roll in homeostasis  
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Even though someone has a elevated white blood cells we would still observe for infection because?   Many of the wbc's will be immature  
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The best plase to observe pallor in a dark skinned person is?   Mucous membranes  
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What should be done if a client refuses a blood transfusion due to religion?   Notify the physician of the clients refusal  
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Depression of bone marrow is a side effect of chemotherapy. We would look for signs of infection and anemia. We would also look for?   Bleeding  
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What intervention would be done for a client in a sickle cell crisis?   Pain assessment every 4 hours  
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Proper route and site for parenteral iron?   Intramuscular, z-track, gluteus  
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S&S of chronic lymphocytic leukemia   Anemia, weakness, fatigue, epistaxis, splenomegaly, lymph node enlargement  
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