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Billing UB-04

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Question
Answer
2- Which payer action can be appealed   A ( Claim denial)  
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3- Which payer action calls for corrected and resubmitted claim?   B ( Claim rejection)  
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4- Physician must submit electronic 837P claims for Medicare Part B unless:   B They have less than 10 full-time or equivalent employees and never send any kind of electronic health care transaction  
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5- How many unlabeled form locators does the UB-04 have?   D (11)  
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6-Which of the following is not an advantage of EDI claim transmittal?   D ( More expensive because requires higher level of personnel to process claims  
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7-Which of the following is not a common reason for a claim not to pass the clean claim requirements?   C ( Incorrect provider address)  
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8- THe data element E8888 on the UB-04 is an example of which type of format?   D ( Alphanumeric)  
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9- The second digit in the type of bill code represents the   A ( Type of facility)  
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10- The third digit in the type of bill code represent the   C ( Type of service)  
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11- The fourth digit in the type of bill code represents the   B ( Bill frequency)  
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12- To correctly report the date of service in FL6, the MMDDYY format is required. Which of the following is an example of a correct entry?   B ( 01022006)  
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13- Number assigned to a patient that is used for multiple episodes of care at the facility   C (Medical record number)  
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14- A type of bill code has how many digits   C ( Four)  
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15- The number 1 as the second digit in the TOB code represents what place of service   A ( Hospital)  
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16- The number 1 as the third digit in the TOB code represent what type of service   D ( Inpatient (including Medicare Part A)  
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17- The number 3 as the third digit in the TOB code represent what type of service   B ( Outpatient)  
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18- Which of the following is not a basic category of patient dischare status   A ( Nonroutine discharge)  
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19- If a patient's date of birth is March 8, 1951, is should be entered in FL10 as   C ( 03081951)  
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20- In which type of admission is the patient admitted to the first available suitable accommodation   B ( Urgent)  
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21- which type of admission indicates the patient's condition is sever, life threatening or potentially disabling   C ( Emergency)  
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22- In which type of admission is the healh of the patient not in jeopardy   A ( Elective)  
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23- Which of the following types of information is not part of the patient information section on the UB-04 claim form?   C (Patients medical record number)  
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24- If an admission date is June 4, 2010, is should be entered in the FL 12 as   B ( 060410)  
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25- In FL 8, which is the correct format for entering a patient's name that is hyphenated, such as Sanchez-Jones   C ( Sanchez-Jones)  
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26- In FL 8, which is the correct format for entering a patient's name that has an apostrophe, such as O'Connor?   B ( OConnor)  
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27- In FL: 8. which is the correct format for entering a patient's name that has a prefix, such as Van Buren?   A ( VanBuren)  
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28- If the cold in FL14 (Type of Admission or Visit) is 4 (newborn) what Point of Origin for Admission of Visit code would be entered if the newborn was born outside of the hospital submitting the claim   C (6)  
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29- FL 15 (Point of Orgin for Admission or Visit) has two coding structures, each with it own set of codes. What type of admission has its own set of codes?   D (Newborn)  
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30-Conditon code 01 (military service related) is an example of which group of condition codes?   A (insurance)  
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31- Condition code 36 (General Care Patient in a Special Unit) is an example of which group of condition codes   B ( Patient Condition codes)  
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32- Conditin code E0 ( Change in Patien Discharge Status) is an example of which group of condition codes   D ( Claim change reason code)  
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33- Condition code 18 (Maiden Name Retained ) is an exapmple of which group of condition codes   B ( Patient condition codes)  
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34- Condition code 22 (patient on multiple drug regimen) is an example of which group of condition codes   B ( Patient condition codes)  
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35- Condition code D2 (Changes in Revenue Code?HCPCS/HIPPS Rate Code) is an example of which group of conditions codes   D ( Claim change reason codes)  
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36- Conditons code 39 (Private Room Medically Necessary) is an example of which group of condition codes   C ( Room Codes)  
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37- Condition code 31 ((patient is a student - full time day) is an example of which group of condition codes.   B ( Patient condition codes)  
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38- Whien either condition code 20 (Beneficiary requested billing) or 21 ( billing for denial notice) is reported, the services are known by the provider to be non-covered or exluded by medicare and the patient should have been issued a(n)   B ( ABN) (Advanced beneficiary Notice)  
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39- On a claim form, the date on which an accident occureed is reported using   C ( Occurrence code)  
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40- On a claim form, the period of skeilled nursing care that occurs druing aninpatient acute hospital stay is reported using   B ( Occurrence code span)  
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41- Occurrence code 02 (no-fault insurance involved) is an expample of which type of occurrence code   A ( An accident-related code)  
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42- Occurence code 40 ( scheduled date of admission) is an example of which type of Occurence code   D ( A service related code)  
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43- Occurence code 16 ( date of lat threapy ) is an example of which type of Occurence code   D ( A service related code)  
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44- A payment requested from medicare before a primary payer's payment is received, when medicare is the secondary payer and the provider believes that the primary payer will not pay within 120 days is call a   A ( Conditional payment)  
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45- when an Occurence code is reported on a claim, what must also be reported   C ( Date)  
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46- Occurence code 11 (Onset of Symptoms/Illness) is ofter used with which of the following codes   D ( Date treatment Started for Physical Therapy)  
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47 _ Medicare coinsurance amount in the first calendar year is billing period is a description of   B ( Value code)  
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48- Working Aged Beneficiary/Spouse with an EGHP is a description of a   D ( MSP value code)  
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49- Value code A1 (Deductible Payer A) is used to report the amount to be applied by the provider to the patient's deductible for the indicated   B ( payer)  
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50- Which of the following is an MSP value code   D ( 47 Any liability insurance)  
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51- For hospitals, the total number of covered days reported with value code 80 (Covered Days) will not exceed   A (150)  
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52- Value code 50 (Physical Therapy Visits) indicates   C ( The number of PT visits provided from the onset of tx through the billing period)  
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53- If an accident occurred at 3:45 in the morning, how would this time be entered for value code 45 (Accident hour)   C (03.00)  
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54 - In addition to value code 45 (Accident Hor), what other type of code must be entered to report the date of accident   B ( Occurrence code)  
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55- When value code 02 (Hospital Has Noemiprivate rooms) is used, what amount is entered   A (0.00)  
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56- The most commonly used revenue code for room charges is   C ( 012X, Room and Board-Semiprivate(two-Beds)  
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57- Revenue code 0292 9 Purchase of new DME) is an example of   B ( An Ancillary service code)  
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58- Revenue code 0352 (CT-body scan) is an example of   B ( An Ancillary service code)  
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59- Which of the following subcatergory describtions is not included in revenue code series 063X (Pharmacy - Extension of 025X)   A ( Drugs incident to other diagnostic services)  
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60- Which revenue code range represents accommodation revenue codes   C ( 01X-021X)  
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61- Revenue code 0171 (Nursery, Newborn - level 1) is an example of   A ( An accommodation code)  
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62- Revenue code 0201 (Intensive Care, Surgical) is an example of   D ( An accommodation code)  
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63- Medicare does not require a detailed revenue code for   A (General pharmacy charges)  
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64- On the UB-04 claim form, with the exception of revenue code 0001, revenue codes shold be listed in what order   B ( Ascending numeric order by date of service)  
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65- Revenue code series 18X (Leave of Absence) is an example of   D ( An accommodation code)  
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66- Which of the follwoing is a subcategory description uner revenue code 026X (IV Therapy)   A ( IV therapy/supplies)  
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67- Ememergency room charges (045X) can be billed on   A ( Both inpatient and outpatient claims)  
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68- A revenue code for physical, occupational or speech therapy is also reported with   C ( A value code and an occurrence code)  
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69- Which of the following is a subcatergory description under revenue code 032X (Radiology-Diagnostic)   D ( Chest X-ray)  
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70- FL 44 on an inpatient claim contains   A A HCPCS/CPT code  
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For claims other than medicare, which field contains the covered and noncovered charges for each revenue code?   c. FL 47  
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72- In FL 50 (payer name), which line is used to report the primary payer   A ( Line A)  
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73- The code chices to complete FL 52 (release of information certification indicator) are   C Y(yes), I informed consent  
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74- To indicate that the patient has refused to assign benefits, what code is reported in FL 53 (Assignment of Beneficts Certification Indicator)   B ( W not applicable)  
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75- Code 01 (spouse) is a choice for which of these form locators   B ( FL 59 patient relationship to insured)  
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76- The health insurance claim number is entered in whihc of thes form locators   C ( FL 60 insured unique identifier)  
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77- In FL 58, the name Geller-Brown should be entered using the following format   A (Geller-Brown)  
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78- WHich of the following types of provider data contained in the NPI database is not considered disclosable under the Freedom of Information Act   A ( Social Security Number)  
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79- Which of the following codes is used in FL 59 (Patients Relationship to Insured) to identify a child of the insured   C (19)  
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80- Which of the following is not an accurate description of a change from the UB-92 to the UB-04 claim form   A decreased number of fields for secondarty diagnoses  
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81- the correct format on the UB - 04 form for diagnosis code 425.4   C - 4254  
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82- In which of the following encounters wold it not be appropriate to use a V Code   b. patient being evaluated postoperatively  
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83 which type of codes are liste first highet priority amoung the other secondary diagnosis codes on a claim   b. comorbidities and complications  
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84- The CMS-assigned UPIN had how many alphanumeric characters?   c- six  
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85- Fl 78-79 Other proveders names and identifiers are used to report which of the followin   d. a physician other thena the attending and operating physician who treated the patiednt  
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86- Which of the following is not a qualifier code used in the Code-Code field?   a. R1 (Overflow Revenue Codes)  
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87- In physician billing taxonomy codes are used to indicate   a. the providers specialty  
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88In hospital billing, taxonomy codes are used to indicate   a. the type of hospital that is submitting the claim  
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89- The letter U in UB-04 stands for uniform    
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90 - The I in the 837I stands for inpatient   false  
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91- THe paper claim used by physician is the CMS-1450   false  
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92- When a continuing claim is submitted, the provider expects that subsequent bills will be sent   TRUE  
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93- A continuing claim is the first in a series of claims to be submitted   FALSE  
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94- TOB is the abbreviation for type of bill   TRUE  
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95- The principle diagnosis and principle proceduer must be locigally linked   TRUE  
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96- Admitting diagnosis and principle diagnosis are always the same   False  
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97- Only one procedure code can be reported   False  
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98- Providers number are assigned by the payer   True  
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99- DCN and INC serve as two different purposes   False  
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100 NPI is the abbreviaton for nation provider identifier   True  
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1- The NUBC is coordinated through   A ( American Hospital Association)  
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