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Micro First Aid

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Hint
Answer
what does teichoic acid from cell membranes (gram pos) induce?   TNF and IL-1  
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where in bacs is endotoxin/LPS?   in outer membrane of gram negs  
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What does Lipid A induce?   TNF and IL-1; polysaccharide in outer membrane of gram negs is the antigen  
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where in the cell are beta lactamases found?   in periplasm (site between inner and outer membrane in gram negs)  
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What are bacterial capsules made out of? What is the exception?   Polysaccharides, except Bacillus anthracis which is made of D-glutamate.  
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what are pili/fimbria made from?   glycoprotein  
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what are flagella made of?   protein  
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what are spores made of?   dipicolinic acid  
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4 organisms which have IgA proteases and their purpose   S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, N. gonorrheae, H. influenzae. Allows them to colonize mucosal surfaces.  
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6 bugs which do not Gram stain well   "These Bugs May Microscopically Lack Color": Treponema (too thin), Rickettsia (intracellular parasite), Mycobacteria (acid fast), Mycoplasma (no cell wall), Legionella (primarily intracellular), and Chlamydia (intracellular and lacks muramic acid in wall)  
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how to visualize treponema   dark field microscopy and fluorescent antibody staining  
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how to ID Legionella   silver stain  
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where does exotoxin come from?   certain species of some gram pos and gram neg bacs  
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is exotoxin secreted from cell?   yes (not endotoxin)  
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what is exotoxin made of? endotoxin?   exotoxin: peptide. endotoxin: lipopolysaccharide.  
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where are the genes for exotoxin located? endotoxin?   exotoxin: on plasmid or bacteriophage. endotoxin: chromosome.  
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toxicity of endotoxin vs exotoxin   endo: low, exo: high  
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clinical effects of exotoxin vs endotoxin   exotoxin: various. endotoxin: fever, shock  
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antigenicity of exotoxin vs endotoxin   exo: induces high titer antibodies (antitoxins). endotoxins are poorly antigenic.  
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vaccines for exotoxins vs endotoxins   exotoxins: toxoids used as vaccines. endotoxins: no vaccines.  
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heat stability of exotoxin vs endotoxin   exo: rapidly destroyed at 60C except for staph exotoxin. Endotoxin: stable at 100C for 1h  
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how do superantigens work?   bind MHC II and T cell receptor directly, activating loads of T cells to stimulate release of IFN-gamma and IL-2  
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how does S. aureus superantigen work?   TSST-1 causes toxic shock syndrome. Enterotoxins cause food poisoning.  
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How does Strep pyogenes superantigen work?   Scarlet fever-erythrogenic toxin --> toxic shock-like syndrome  
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How do ADP-ribosylating toxins work?   B (binding) component binds to a receptor on the surface of the host cell, enabling endocytosis. A (active) component then attaches an ADP-ribosyl to a host cell protein --> alter function.  
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4 examples of ADP-ribosylating A-B toxins   Corynebacterium diptheriae, Vibrio cholerae, E. coli, Bordetella pertussis  
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what is the Corynebacterium diptheriae toxin?   an A-B toxin which inactivates elongation factor (EF-2) similar to Pseudomonas exotoxin A. Causes pharyngitis and throat pseudomembrane.  
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How does the Vibrio cholerae toxin work?   an ADP-ribosylating A-B toxin which ribosylates a G protein --> stimulate adenylyl cyclase --> pump out Cl and H20  
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How does E. coli heat stable toxin work?   stimulates guanylate cyclase  
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How does E. coli heat labile toxin work?   stimulates adenylyl cyclase via a cholera-like mechanism, causing watery diarrhea  
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Mnemonic for the E. coli toxins   Labile like the AIR (Adenylyl cyclase), stable like the Ground (guanylate cyclase)  
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mechanism of Bordetella pertussis toxin   an ADP-ribosylating AB toxin that stimulates adenylyl cyclase --> causes whooping cough. Inhibits chemokine receptor, causing lymphocytosis.  
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What is the toxin of Clostridium perfringens?   alpha toxin causes gas gangrene  
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agar sign of Clostridium perfringens   double zone of hemolysis on blood agar  
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how does C. tetani toxin work?   An exotoxin that blocks the release of glycine as a neurotransmitter --> lockjaw  
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How does the C. botulinum toxin work?   an exotoxin that blocks the release of ACh, causing anticholinergic symptoms and CNS paralysis esp. cranial nerves.  
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describe Bacillus anthracis toxin   big complex, but 1 exotoxin stimulates adenylyl cyclase  
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how does Shiga toxin work>   an exotoxin that cleaves host cell rRNA and enhances cytokine release.  
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What is Streptolysin O?   An exotoxin found in S. pyogenes. The antigen for ASO antibody in rheumatic fever.  
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3 things that Endotoxin does, in general   1) Activates macrophages, 2)activates alternate pathway of complement 3)Activates Hageman factor  
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3 things that macrophages secrete   IL-1, TNF, and NO  
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what does IL-1 cause in host?   fever  
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what does TNF cause in host   Fever, hemorrhagic tissue necrosis  
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what does NO cause in host   hypotension, shock (in big doses)  
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What does C3a cause in host   hypotension and edema  
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what does C5a cause in host   neutrophil chemotaxis  
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what does Hageman factor cause   activation of coagulation cascade --> can cause DIC  
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fermentation patterns of Neisseria   MeninGococci ferment Maltose and Glucose. Gonococci just ferment Glucose.  
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what color pigment does S. aureus produce   yellow pigment  
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what color pigment does Pseudomonas aeruginosa produce   blue-green  
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what color pigment does Serratia marcescens produce   red  
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4 types of gram pos rods   Clostridium (anaerobe), Corynebacterium, Listeria, and Bacillus  
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What are catalase positive clusters of gram pos cocci?   staphylococcus  
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what are catalase neg chains of gram pos cocci   streptococci  
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What are coagulase positive, catalase positive, gram pos cocci   S. aureus  
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How do you distinguish the coagulase negative staphylococci?   If novobiocin sensitive, S. epidermidis. If resistant, S. saprophyticus  
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what is alpha hemolysis? Beta? gamma?   alpha is green (partial), beta is clear, gamma is no hemolysis  
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how to distinguish between the alpha hemolytic strep?   S. pneumoniae has a cpsule, is optochin sensitive, bile soluble. Viridans strep (eg S. mutans) has no capsule, is optochin resistant, and not bile soluble.  
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How to distinguish the Beta hemolytic strep   Group A is S. pyogenes and bacitracin sensitive. Group B strep is S. agalactiae and is bacitracin resistant.  
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2 gamma hemolytic strep   Enterococcus (either alpha or gamma hemolytic) and peptostreptococcus (an anaerobe)  
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4 "coccoid" gram neg rods   H. influenzae, Pasteurella, Brucella, and Bordetella pertussis  
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what does H. influenzae require to grow   factors V and X  
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how do you get pasteurella   animal bites  
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Describe Klebsiella   a fast lactose fermenting gram neg rod  
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describe E. coli   a fast lactose fermenting gram neg rod  
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describe enterobacter   a fast lactose fermenting gram neg rod  
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describe citrobacter   a slow lactose fermenting gram neg rod  
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describe serratia   a slow lactose fermenting gram neg rod  
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describe pseudomonas   an oxidase positive lactose nonfermenting gram neg rod  
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describe shigella, salmonella, and proteus   an oxidase negative lactose nonfermenting gram neg rod  
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H. influenzae media   chocolate agar w/ factor V (NAD) and X (hematin)  
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N. gonorrheae media   Thayer-Martin media  
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B. pertussis media   Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar  
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C. diptheria agar   Tellurite plate, Loffler's medium, blood agar  
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M. tuberculosis media   Lowenstein-Jensen agar  
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media for lactose-fermenting bacteria   pink coloniees on MacConkey's agar  
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Legionella media   charcoal yeast extract agar w/ iron and cysteine  
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fungi media   Sabouraud's agar  
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what do you use Giemsa's stain for?   Borrelia, Plasmodium, trypanosomes, Chlamydia  
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what do you use PAS stain for?   To stain glycogen and mucopolysaccharides. Used to dx Whipple's dz  
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what is the silver stain for?   Fungi, PCP, Legionella  
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what is conjugation?   direct cell-cell DNA transfer in prokaryotic cells only. Chrosomal or plasmid DNA  
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what is transduction   phage-mediated cell-cell DNA transfer in prokaryotes. In generalized transduction can be any gene. In specialized, only certain ones.  
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what is lysogeny?   the genetic code for a bacterial toxin encoded in a lysogenic phage. Ie, Botulinum, cholera, diptheria, and erythrogenic toxin of Strep pyogenes  
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Mnemonic for 4 obligate aerobes   Nagging Pests Must Breathe (Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Bacillus)  
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3 examples of obligate anaerobes   Clostridium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces  
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why are aminoglycosides useless in anaerobes?   because aminOglycosides require O2 to get into cell  
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mnemonic for 2 obligate intracellular parasites   stay inside when it's Really Cold (Rickettsia, Chlamydia)  
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8 facultative intracellular bugs   Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY (Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia)  
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what is a positive "quellung" reaction?   if an encapsulated bacterium is present, that capsule swells when anticapsular antisera are added.  
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what beta hemolytic bacterium has tumbling motility   Listeria  
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what is the purpose of catalase?   degrades H202 made by PMNs. H202 is a substrate for myeloperoxidase.  
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what is "Protein A"   a virulence factor found in S. aureus that binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis.  
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is S. pyogenes bacitracin sensitive or resistant?   sensitive  
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Antibody to "M protein" enhances host defenses against what?   S. pyogenes  
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Mnemonic for diseases caused by S.pneumoniae   MOPS: Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia, Sinusitis. Also, Most OPtochin Sensitive  
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is S. pneumoniae sensitive to optochin or resistant.   Sensitive, remember MOPS: Most OPtochin Sensitive.  
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are Group B strep bacitracin sensitive or resistant?   Bacitracin resistant and Beta-hemolytic (2 Bs of group B strep)  
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what diseases do group B strep cause?   pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis, primarily in babies  
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what do enterococci cause?   UTIs and subacute endocarditis  
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are enterococci sensitive or resistant to penicillin G?   resistant  
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What does the Lancefield group D include?   the enterococci and the nonenterococcal group D strep  
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what is Lancefiel grouping based on?   differences in the C carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall.  
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how do you distinguish enterococci from nonenterococcal group D streps?   they are hardier and can grow in 6.5% NaCl  
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which viridans group strep causes subacute endocarditis?   S, sanguis  
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which viridans group strep causes caries   S. mutans  
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what two antibiotics are particularly prone to causing C. difficile pseudomembranous colitis   Clindamycin or ampicillin  
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What does the "coryne" in "corynebacterium" mean?   club shaped  
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what agar does corynebacterium diptheriae grow on?   tellurite agar  
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ABCDEFG of diphtheria   Adp ribosylation, Beta-prophage, Corynebacterium, Diphtheriae,Elongation Factor2, Granules  
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lab dx of diptheria   gram + rods w/ metachromatic granules  
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what happens in inhalation anthrax?   flulike symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, and death. "Woolsorter's disease."  
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symptoms of contact anthrax   malignant pustule (painless ulcer) which can progress for bacteremia and death. They are black vesicular papules covered by a black eschar.  
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what does Actinomyces israelii cause?   oral-facial abscesses with "sulfur granules" that may drain through sinus tracts in skin. However they are normal oral flora  
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gram stain and o2 req of actinomyces israelii   gram pos anaerobe  
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what does nocardia asteroides cause?   pulmonary infection in the immunocompromised.  
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gram stain and o2 requirements of nocardia asteroides   gram + and weakly acid fast aerobe in soil  
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how to remember treatments for Actinomyces israelii vs Nocardia?   SNAP: Sulfa for Nocardia, Actinomyces for Penicillin  
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penicillin and gram negative bugs   Gram negs are resistant to benzyl penicillin G but may be susceptible to penicillin derivatives like ampicillin. The gram negative outer membrane inhibits entry of penicillin G and vancomycin.  
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capsule in Neisseria gonococci vs meningococci   Meningococci have a polysaccharide capsule, gonococci don't  
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mnemonic for remembering what diseases Haemophilus causes   haEMOPhilus causes Epiglottitis, Meningitis, Otitis Media, and Pneumonia.  
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transmission of H. influenzae   aerosol  
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what is the Hib vaccine   contains type B capsular polysaccharide conjugated to diptheria toxoid or other protein  
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how to treat Hib infections   treat meningitis w/ ceftriaxone. Rifampin prophylaxis in close contacts/  
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what is the K antigen of enterbacteriaceae?   capsular antigen related to the virulence of the bug  
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what is the H antigen of enterobacteriaceae?   flagellar anitgen  
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fermentation of enterobacteriaceae   all ferment glucose and are oxidase negative  
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mnemonic for characteristics of enterobacteriaceae   COFFEe: Capsular, O antigen, Flagellar antigen, Ferment glucose, Enterobacteriaceae  
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3 As of klebsiella   Aspiration pneumonia, Abscess in lungs, Alcoholics  
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which are the the lactose fermenting enteric bacteria and how do you tell?   Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter, Citrobacter, etc. Grow Pink colonies on MacConkey's agar.  
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Salmonella vs Shigella   Only salMonella is Motile and can invade further to disseminate hematogenously. Shigella is more virulent than Salmonella  
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How is Shigella transmitted?   4Fs: Food, Fingers, Feces, and Flies  
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where do you get Yersinia enterocolitica from?   Pet poop (puppies) or contaminated milk, or pork, or day care. Can mimic Crohn's or appendicitis.  
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findings in Campylobacter   Comma or S-shaped organisms. Growth at 42C, oxidase positive  
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findings in salmonella   motile, lactose negative  
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how do vibrio cholera and pertussis toxins works?   cholera toxin permanently activates Gs, pertussis toxin permanently disables Gi and promotes lymphocytosis by inhibiting chemokine receptors.  
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what is bacillus anthracis toxin?   edema factor, a bacterial adenylate cyclase  
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tx of legionella   erythromycin  
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how to grow legionella   charcoal yeast extract w/ iron and cysteine. A french legionnaire sitting by the charcoal campfire with his silver helment and an iron dagger -- not a CYSsy.  
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mnemonic for diseases associated with PSEUDOmonas   Pneumonia, Sepsis, External otitis, UTIs, Drug Use/Diabetic OsteoMyelitis (+ hot tub folliculitis + wound and burn infections)  
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how to treat pseudomonas aeruginosa   aminoglycoside + extended spectrum penicillin  
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toxins made by pseudomonas aeruginosa   endotoxn (fever, shock), and exotoxin A (inactivates EF-2)  
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treatment of H. pylori   triple therapy: metronidazole, bismuth, and either tetracycline or amoxicilln. OR, more expensive, metronidazole, omeprazole, and clindamycin.  
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what does Brucella cause and how transmitted?   brucellosis/undulant fever, transmitted by dairy or contact w/ animals  
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how do you get francisella?   aka tularemia. tick bite, rabbits, deer  
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what does Pasteurella multicoda cause and how transmitted?   causes cellulitis, from dog and cat animal bites.  
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what bacs cause bacterial vaginosis   Gardnerella vaginalis is a pleomorphic, variable gram rod that causes green-discharge, fishy, nonsmelly vaginosis. Mobiluncus is an anaerobe that is also involved.  
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how to treat bacterial vaginosis   metronidazole  
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how to dx bacterial vaginosis microscopically   clue cll (vag epithelial cells covered w/ bacs)  
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does Ghon complex occur in primary or secondary TB?   primary. consists of hilar nodes + Ghon focus (usually in the lower lobes)  
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what is Pott's dz?   vertebral dz  
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what does Mycobacterium kansasii cause   pulmonary TB like symptoms  
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what does Mycobacteria scrofulaceum cause?   cervical lymphadenitis in kids  
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tx of leprosy   long term oral dapsone. toxicity is hemolysis and methemoglobinemia. alternate treatments include rifampin and combination of clofazimine and dapsone.  
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what do rickettsiae need to live?   obigate intracellular parasites that need CoA and NAD to survive.  
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how are Rickettsiae transmitted?   All except Coxiella are transmitted by an arthropod vector. Coxiella is transmitted by aerosol and causes pneumonia.  
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classic Rickettsia trias   headache, fever, rash (vasculitis). Coxiella causes pneumonia  
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tx of Rickettsiae   tetracycline  
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what organism causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?   Rickettsia rickettsii from a tick.  
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symptoms of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever   Fever, headache, centripetal rash (sPotted=centriPetal)  
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what organism causes endemic typhus and how spread?   Rickettsia typhi, from fleas.  
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symptoms of endemic typhus   headache, fever, centriPHugal rash.  
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what organism causes Q fever and how transmitted   Coxiella, from aerosol. Q fever is "queer" because it has no vector and has a negative Weil-Felix rxn, and can survive outside the organism for a long time  
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what is the Weil-Felix reaction   assays for antirickettsial antibodies. Cross-react w/ Proteus antigen. usually pos for typhus and rocky mountain spotted fever, neg for Q fever  
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what organism causes epidemic typhus   Rickettsia prowazekii, from human body louse.  
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what agar does Mycoplasma pneumonia grow on   Eaton's agar  
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does Mycoplasma pneumonia have a cell wall?   no cell wall  
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what is the only bacterial cell membrane w/ cholesterol?   Mycoplasma  
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treatment of Mycoplasma   tetracycline or erythromycin  
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what is odd about the Chlamydia cell wall?   lacks muramic acid  
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treatment of chlamydia   erythromycin or tetracycline  
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lab dx of chlamydia   cytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa or fluorescent antibody-stained smear  
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which subtypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause blindness in Africa   A,B, and C (Africa, Blindness, Chronic Infection)  
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what subtypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause urethritis/PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia, or neonatal conjunctivitis?   Types D-K.  
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which chlamydia serotypes cause lymphogranuloma venereum?   Types L1,L2,L3 (Ls -lympho)  
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what is lymphogranuloma venereum?   acute lymphadenitis -- positive Frei tests  
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mnemonic for spirochetes   Borrelia, Leptospira, Treponema: BLT is Big (borrelia is big)  
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which spirochete can be visualized by light microscopy?   Only Borrelia, using Wright or Giemsa stain.  
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treatment of Lyme dz   tetracycline  
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3 stages of Lyme dz   1)erythema chronic migrans, flulike symptoms. 2) neuro and cardiac manifestations 3)autoimmune migratory polyarthritis  
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mnemonic for Lyme dz symptoms   BAKE a key LYME pie: Bells palsy, Arthritis, Kardiac block, Erythema chronicum migrans  
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what organism causes yaws   Treponema pertenue  
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treatment of syphilis   penicillin G  
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What is the Argyll Robertson pupil?   constricts w/ accomodation but is not reactive to light. pathognomic for 3' syphilis. "prostitute's pupil" -- accomodates but doesn't react  
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what are conidia?   asexual fungal spores  
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how to distinguish Candida albicans   budding yeast w/ pseudohyphae in culture at 20C, germ tube formation at 37C  
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what is the form of coccidiodomycosis and what is the dz called?   a spherule filled w/ endospores. called San Joaquin valley or desert or valley fever  
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where is histoplasmosis found?   Mississippi and Ohio river valleys.  
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where do you get histoplasmosis from?   bird or bat droppings.  
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micro appearance of histoplasmosis   intracellular (tiny yeasr inside macrophages).  
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where is paracoccidiodomycosis   Rural Latin America. "captain's wheel appearance"  
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where is blastomycosis found?   states east of the mississippi, and in central america  
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micro appearance of blastomycosis   Big, Broad Based Budding  
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how to treat dimorphic fungi   fluconazole or ketoconazole for local infection. Ampho B for systemic infection.  
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how to culture dimorphic fungi   on Sabouraud's agar.  
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what causes tinea versicolor?   Malassezia furfur  
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symptoms of tinea versicolor   hypopigmented skin lesions. Occurs in hot, humid weather  
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Treatment of tinea versicolor   topical miconazole, selenium sulfide (selsun)  
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what causes tinea nigra   Cladosporidium weneckii, an infection of the keratinized layer of the skin. Appears as a brown spot  
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tx of tinea nigra   topical salicylic acid  
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what causes tinea pedis, cruris, corporis, capitis?   Pruritic lesions w/ central ring clearing. Caused by dermatophytes. Microsporidium, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton. See mold hyphae in KOH prep, not dimorphic.  
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what is a reservoir for Microsporidium   pets  
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how to treat dermatophytes   topical azoles  
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form of aspergillosis.   Not dimorphic. A mold w/ septate hyphae branching at 45 degrees  
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is Cryptococcus dimorphic?   no  
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culture for Cryptococcus neoformans   Sabaroud's agar  
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what does latex agglutination test detect   polysaccharide capsular antigen in Cryptococcus  
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form of mucor and rhizopus   mold w/ irregular nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (>90 degrees).  
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who tends to get mucor and rhizopus infections   ketoacidotic diabetics and leukemia patients.  
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what diseases do mucor and rhizopus cause?   They tend to proliferate in the walls of blood vessels and cause infarction of distal tissue. Rhinocerebra, frontal lobe abscesses.  
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how to dx PCP pneumonia   lung biopsy or lavage. Identified by methenamine silver stain of tissue  
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tx of PCP pneumonia   TMP-SMX, pentamidine, dapsone  
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when should you start prophylaxis for PCP pneumonia in HIV   when CD4 drops <200  
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form of sporothrix schenckii   dimorphic fungus that lives on vegetation. sporotrichosis = rose gardener's dz  
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symptoms of sporotrichosis   causes local pustule or ulcer w/ nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis). little systemic illness. a cigar-shaped budding yeast is visible in the pus  
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tx of sporotrichosis   itraconazole or potassium iodide.  
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symptoms of entamoebiasis   bloody diarrhea (dysentery), liver abscess, RUQ pain  
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transmission of amoebiasis   cysts in water  
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dx of amoebiasis   serology, or trophozoites or cysts in stool  
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tx of amoebiasis   metronidazole and iodoquinol  
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tx of Giardia lamblia   metronidazole  
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how to dx cryptosporidium   cysts on acid fast stain  
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tx of cryptosporidium   none  
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what does toxoplasma cause?   in HIV, brain abscess. Birth defects (ring-enhancing brain lesions).  
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transmission of toxoplasma   cysts in meat or in cat poops  
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dx of toxoplama   serology or biopsy  
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tx of toxoplasma   sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine  
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what tx for relapse caused by P. vivax or P. ovale   primaquine  
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how to dx trichomonas vaginalis   motile trophozoites on wet mount  
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tx of trichomonas vaginalis   metronidazole  
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what does Trypanosoma cruzii cause   Chagas' disease: dilated cardiomyopathy, megacolon, megaesophagus  
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transmission of T. cruzii   reduviid bug  
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dx of chagas   blood smear  
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tx of chagas   Nifurtimox  
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what do Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodiense cause?   African sleeping sickness  
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how is african sleeping sickness transmitted?   tsetse fly  
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how to dx african sleeping sickness   blood smear  
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how to tx african sleeping sickness   suramin for blood-borne dz or melarsoprol for CNS penetration  
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What does Leishmania donovani cause?   Kala-azar: visceral leishmaniasis  
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how s Leishmania donovani transmitted   sandfly  
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dz of kala azar   macrophages contain amastigotes  
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tx of kala azar   sodium stibogluconate  
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what does the Babesia genus of protozoa cause   Babesiosis: fever and anemia  
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how is Babesiosis transmitted   Ixodes tick  
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how to dx babesiosis   blood smear. No RBC pigment. Appears as "maltese cross"  
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tx babesiosis   quinine, clindamycin  
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tx of taenia solium   Praziquantel/niclosamide, or albendazole for cysticercosis  
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what is Echinococcus granulosus   tapeworm (cestode) in dog poop that when ingested can cause cysts in liver and anaphylaxid iff echinococcal antigens are released from cysts  
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tx of echinococcus granulosus   albendazole  
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host of schistosoma and disease   snails. cercariae penetrate human skin and cause granulomas, fibrosis, and inflammation of spleen and liver.  
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tx of schistosoma   praziquantel  
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what is clonorchis sinensis   a trematode (fluke) found in undercooked fish. causes inflammation of the biliary tract.  
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tx of all flukes   praziquantel  
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what are ancyclostoma duodenale?   aka hookworm. larvae penetrate foot skin --> intestinal infection --> anemia.  
🗑
tx of ancyclostoma duodenale   mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate  
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tx of ascaris lumbricoides   mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate  
🗑
what is ascaris lumbricoides   giant roundworm. eggs are visible in poops  
🗑
what is Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)?   food contaminated w/ eggs; intestinal infection --> anal pruritis  
🗑
how to dx pinworm   scotch tape test  
🗑
tx of pinworm   mebendazole/pyrante pamoate  
🗑
what is Strongyloides stercoralis   a roundworm whose larvae in soil penetrate the skin and infect intestines.  
🗑
tx of Strongyloides stercoralis   Ivermectin/thiabendazole  
🗑
What is Trichinella spiralis   a nematode in undercooked meat, usually pork. causes inflammation of muscle and periorbital edema  
🗑
tx of trichinella   thiabendazole  
🗑
what is Dranunculus medinensis   a nematode in drinking water that causes skin inflammation and ulceration. "Guinea worm"  
🗑
tx of dranunculus medinensis   niridazole  
🗑
what is Loa loa   a nematode transmitted by deer fly. causes swelling in skin. can see it crawling in conjunctiva.  
🗑
tx of loa loa   diethylcarbamazine  
🗑
what is Onchocerca volvulus   a roundworm transmitted by female blackflies that causes river blindness  
🗑
tx of onchocerca volvulus   Ivermectin  
🗑
what is Toxocara canis   eggs in food --> granulomas. if in retina, get blindness. Visceral larva migrans.  
🗑
tx of Toxocara canis   Diethylcarbamazine  
🗑
what is Wuchereria bancrofti   a roundworm transmitted by female mosquito. causes elephantiasis  
🗑
tx of elephantiasis   diethylcarbamazine  
🗑
what parasite causes liver cysts   Echinococcus granulosus  
🗑
what parasite causes B12 deficiency   Diphylloobothrium latum  
🗑
what parasite causes biliary tract dz   Clonorchis sinensis  
🗑
What parasite causes hemoptysis   Paragonimus westermanii  
🗑
what parasite causes portal hypertension   Schistosoma mansonii  
🗑
What parasite causes hematuria and bladder cancer   Schistosoma haematobium  
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What parasite causes microcytic anemia   Ancyclostoma, Necator  
🗑
What parasite causes perianal pruritis   Enterobius  
🗑
what is the only DNA virus that is not dsDNA   parvovirus (remember "part-of-a-virus"  
🗑
what is the only family of RNA viruses that is not ssRNA   Reoviridae "remember "repeat-o-virus"  
🗑
which DNA virus families are nonlinear?   papovaviruses and hepadnaviruses  
🗑
naked viral genome infectivity   naked nucleic acids of most dsDNA and +ssRNA viruses are infectious, naked -ssRNA and dsRNA are not. Viral nucleic acids with the same structure as host are infective alone; others require special enzymes.  
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What are 3 naked RNA virus families?   remember "naked CPR": caliciviridae, picornavirus, reovirus.  
🗑
where do enveloped viruses get their envelope? exception?   from host plasma membrane, except herpesviruses which get it from the nuclear membrane.  
🗑
virus ploidy   all viruses are haploid except retroviruses which have 2 identical ssRNA molecules.  
🗑
where do DNA viruses replicate? what is the exception?   in the nucleus, except poxvirus  
🗑
where do RNA viruses replicate? exceptions?   cytoplasm, except influenza and retroviruses  
🗑
naked DNA virus families   PAP = Parvo, Adeno, Papova. "you need to be naked for a pap smear"  
🗑
enveloped DNA virus families   HPH: Herpes,Pox, Hepadna  
🗑
mnemonic for remembering DNA virus families   they are HHAPPPy viruses: hepadna, herpes, adeno, pox, papova, parvo  
🗑
what is the usual shape of DNA viruses? exception?   icosahedral, except Pox which is complex.  
🗑
medically important hepadnavirus   HBV -- not a retrovirus but has reverse transcriptase anyhow  
🗑
what family does EBV belong to?   herpesvirus (DNA)  
🗑
what family does CMV belong to   herpesvirus (DNA)  
🗑
what does HHV8 cause?   kaposi's sarcoma.  
🗑
what does adenovirus cause   febrile pharyngitis, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia  
🗑
what does parvovirus B19 cause?   aplastic crises in sickle cell pts, 5th disease, and hydrops fetalis  
🗑
what family does JC virus belong to and what does it cause?   Papovavirus (circular dsDNA). causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy  
🗑
what is the largest DNA virus   pox  
🗑
mnemonic for the picornaviruses   PERCH: Polio, Echo, Rhino, Coxsackie, HAV  
🗑
what does echovirus cause   aseptic meningitis  
🗑
what does coxsackievirus cause   aseptic meningitis, herpangina -- febrile pharyngitis, hand, foot, and mouth disease, myocarditis  
🗑
structure, shape, and envelope? of picornavirus   icosahedral,SS+linear, no envelope  
🗑
2 important caliciviruses   HEV, Norwalk virus -- viral gastroenteritis  
🗑
structure, shape, and envelope? of calicivirus   SS+ linear icosahedral, no envelope  
🗑
structure, shape, and envelope? of reoviruses   double icosahedral, ds linear segmented, no envelope  
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medically important reoviridae   Reovirus -- Colorado tick fever. Rotavirus too  
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medically important flaviviruses   HCV, yellow fever, dengue, St Louis encephalitis, West Nile  
🗑
structure, shape, and envelope? of flavivirus   icosahedral, SS+ linear, enveloped  
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3 medically important togaviruses   Rubella, EEE, WEE  
🗑
structure, shape, and envelope? of togaviruses   icosahedral, ss+ linear, enveloped  
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2 important retrovirusess   HIV, HTLV  
🗑
structure, shape, and envelope? of retroviruses   icosahedral, SS+ linear, enveloped  
🗑
medically important coronaviruses   "common cold" and SARS  
🗑
structure, shape, and envelope? of coronaviruses   helical, SS+ linear, enveloped  
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structure, shape, and envelope? of rhabdoviruses   helical, SS- linear, enveloped  
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med. important filoviruses   ebola/marburg  
🗑
structure, shape, and envelope? of filoviruses   helical, ss- linear, enveloped  
🗑
medically important arenaviruses   LCV -- lymphocytic choriomeningitis, and spread by mice  
🗑
structure, shape, and envelope? of arenaviruses   helical, ss - circular, enveloped  
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medically important bunyaviruses   California encephalitis, Sandfly/Rift Valler fevers, Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever, and hantavirus (hemorrhagic fever + pneumonia)  
🗑
medically important deltavirus   HDV  
🗑
structure, shape, and envelope? of deltavirus   helical, ss- circular, enveloped  
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what kind of immunity do live attenuated vaccines induce? killed?   live: humoral and cell-mediated. killed: humoral only.  
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is MMR live or killed   live  
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is Sabin polio vaccine live or killed   live  
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is VZV vaccine live or killed   live  
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is yellow fever vaccine live or killed   live  
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is smallpox vaccine live or killed   live  
🗑
is adenovirus vaccine live or killed   live  
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how to remember Killed vaccines   RIP Always: Rabies, Influenza, Polio (salK= killed), hAv  
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how to remember egg-based vaccines   FRY An egg. Flu, mmR, Yellow fever  
🗑
what is an example of a recombinant vaccine   HBV  
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how to remember negative-stranded viruses   Always Bring Polymerase or Fail Replication: Arenaviruses, Bunyaviruses, Paramyxoviruses, Filoviruses, Retroviruses  
🗑
how to remember segmented viruses   all are RNA viruses. BOAR: Bunyaviruses, Orthomyxoviruses, Arenaviruses, Reoviruses  
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what kind of things do paramyxoviruses cause   parainfluenza (croup), mumps, measles, RSV  
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serotypes of paramyxovirus   all have only 1 serotype except for parainfluenza virus which has 4  
🗑
what causes diarrhea in rotavirus infection?   villous destruction w/ atrophy --> decreased absorption of Na and water  
🗑
symptoms of mumps   makes your tests and parotids as big as POM-poms: parotitis, orchitis, meningitis  
🗑
what kind of virus is mumps   paramyxo  
🗑
spread of measles rash   head to toe  
🗑
3 C's of measles   Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis. And a K: Koplik spots.  
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structure of influenza   enveloped, single stranded segmented RNA  
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drugs used for influenza A   amantadine, rimantadine (especially for prophylaxis)  
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drugs used for influenza B   zanamivir and oseltamivir (neuraminidase inhibitors)  
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shape of rabies   bullet-shaped capsid  
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characteristic inclusions in rabies   Negri bodies (cytoplasmic inclusions)  
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2 classic examples of arboviruses   dengue (aka break-bone fever), and yellow fever. variant of dengue in SE Asia: hemorrhagic shock syndrome.  
🗑
how to remember arbovirus families   Fever Transmitted by Bites: Flavivirus, Togavirus, Bunyavirus  
🗑
what is yellow fever   an arbovirus flavivirus transmitted by aedes mosquito. monkey and human reservoir. symptoms are high fever, black vomit, jaundice, w/ Councilman bodies (acidophilic inclusions) in liver.  
🗑
What is mononucleosis?   Infects B cells. fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, LAD esp of posterior auricular nodes. Peak incidence in teens, atypical circulating T cells  
🗑
how to test for mono   monospot test -- heterophil antibodies detected by agglutination of sheep RBCs  
🗑
incubation of HAV. carriers?   3 wks, no carriers  
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incubation of HBV   3 months.  
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what kind of virus is HCV   flavivirus  
🗑
what does HDV require?   HBsAg as its envelope.  
🗑
are there carriers of HDV?   no  
🗑
3 Es of Hep E   Enteric, Expectant mothers, and Epidemics  
🗑
how are HAV and HEV transmitted?   fecal-oral: the vowels hit your bowels  
🗑
how to detect active HAV?   IgM HAVAb  
🗑
what serologic marker indicates low HBV transmissibility   HBcAb  
🗑
What serologic marker indicates high HBV transmissibility   HBeAg  
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genome of HIV   diploihttp://www.studystack.com/AddCards.jsp?studyStackId=61956d; 2 molecules of RNA  
🗑
what is p24?   rectangular nucleocaspid protein in HIV  
🗑
what is gp41 and gp120?   envelope proteins in HIV?  
🗑
what is CCR5 mutation?   a mutation which when homozygous gives you immunity to HIV, and in heterozygotes gives a slower course of HIV. 1% of US whites.  
🗑
what is CCR5 mutation?   mutation which causes rapid progression of HIV to AIDS. 20% of US whites.  
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micro signs of HIV encephalitis   microglial nodules w/ multinucleated giant cells  
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how does HIV gain access to CNS in HIV encephalitis   infected macrophages  
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what are normal form of prions? pathologic form?   normal: alpha helix. pathologic: beta sheets.  
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4 what are dominant normal flora in colon?   Bacteroides fragilis> E. Coli  
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what are normal flora in vagina?   Lactobacillus. Colonized by E. coli and group B strep.  
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common causes of pneumonia for kids 6 wks --18 yrs   Viruses (RSV), Mycoplasma, Chlamydia pneumoniae, S. pneumonia  
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common causes of pneumonia for adults 18-40   Mycoplasma, Chlamydia pneumoniae, S. pneumoniae  
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common causes of pneumonia for adults 40-65   S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Anaerobes, Viruses, Mycoplasma  
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Common causes of pneumonia in the elderly   S. pneumoniae, viruses, anaerobes,H. influenzae, gram neg rods  
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what are common causes of pneumonia in neonates?   Group B strep, E coli  
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What are the atypical pneumonias   Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia  
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what are common postviral pneumonias   Staph, Hib  
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what tends to cause meningitis in newborns   Group B strep, E. coli, Listeria  
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what tends to cause meningitis in kids 6mo-6yrs   S. pneumoniae, Neisseria, Hib, enteroviruses  
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what tends to cause meningitis in people 6-60years   Neisseria, enteroviruses, S. pneumoniae, HSV  
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What tends to cause meningitis in the elderly?   S. pneumoniae, Gram neg rods, Listeria  
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CSF finding in bacterial meningitis   Pressure up, increased PMNs, increased protein, decreased sugar  
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CSF findings in fungal and TB meningitis   increased pressure, increased lymphocytes, increased protein, decreased sugar  
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CSF findings in viral meningitis   normal or elevated pressure, increased lymphocytes, normal protein, normal sugar  
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what organism usually causes osteomyelitis   S.aureus  
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what are sexually transmitted causes of osteomyelitis   gonorrhea. septic arthritis more common than osteo thoug  
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what tends to cause osteomyelitis in sickle cell   Salmonella  
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what tends to cause osteomyelitis w/ prosthetics   S. epidermidis, S. aureus  
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what causes vertebral osteomyelitis   TB (Pott's dz)  
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in whom does most osteomyelitis occur?   kids  
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lab sign of osteomyelitis   elevated ESR  
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2nd most common cause of UTI in young woman   S. saprophyticus  
🗑
what kind of findings w/ Proteus mirabilis   swarming on agar due to motility.produces urease, associated w/ struvite stones.  
🗑
diagnostic markers of UTIs   Leukocyte esterase -positive = bacterial. Nitrite test -- positive = gram neg  
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what is condylomata acuminata   genital warts, koilocytes, HPV 6, 11  
🗑
Chlamydia vs gonorrheal PID   Chlamydial: subacute, often undiagnosed. gonorrheal; acute, high fever  
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most common STD in US   chlamydia  
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2 most common causes of nosocomial infection   E. coli (UTI) and S. aureus (wound infections)  
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nosocomial pathogens from catheterization   E. coli, Proteus mirabilis  
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nosocomial pathogen from respiratory therapy equipment   Pseudomonas aeruginosA  
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nosocomial pathogens from working in dialysis unit   HBV  
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nosocomial pathogen from hyperalimentation   Candida albicans  
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ToRCHeS diseases   Toxoplasma, Rubella, CMV, HSV/HIV, Syphilis  
🗑
branching rods in oral infections --   Actinomyces israelii  
🗑
surgical wound infections -->   S. aureus  
🗑
traumatic wound infections -->   C. perfringens  
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dog or cat bite -->   Pasteurella multocida  
🗑
which antibiotics block cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan crosslinking   beta-lactams. penicillin, ampicillin, ticarcillin, piperacillin, imipenem, aztreonam, cephalosporins  
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what antibiotics block peptidoglycan synthesis   Bacitracin, vancomycin, cyclosrine  
🗑
what antibiotics disrupt the cell membrane   polymixins  
🗑
what antibiotics block nucleotide synthesis   sulfa, trimethoprim  
🗑
what antibiotics block DNA topoisomerases   quinolones  
🗑
what antibiotics block mRNA synthesis   Rifampin  
🗑
What antibiotics block 50S   Chloramphenicol, erythromycin/macrolides, lincomycin, clindamycin, streptogramins, linezolid  
🗑
what antibiotics block 30S   aminoglycosides, tetracyclines  
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which are the bactericidal antibiotics   Penicillin, cephalosporins, vancomycin, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinoones, metronidazole  
🗑
what is IV form of penicillin? oral?   IV: penicillin G. Penicillin V = oral  
🗑
toxicity of penicillin   hypersensitivity, hemolytic anemia  
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what is a toxicity of methicillin   interstitial nephritis  
🗑
what are the aminopenicillins   Ampicillin, amoxicillin  
🗑
are amoxicillin and ampicillin penicillinase sensitive or resistant   sensitive  
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amoxicillin vs ampicillin   amOX has greater Oral bioavailability  
🗑
clinical use of ampicillin and amoxicillin   extended spectrum -- certain gram pos bacs and gram neg rods (HELPS kill enterococci: Haemophilus, E. coli, Listeria, Proteus, Salmonella, enterococci)  
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toxicity of ampicillin and amoxicillin   hypersensitivity, ampicillin rash, pseudomembranous colitis  
🗑
what are the anti-pseudomonals   Ticarcillin, carbenecillin, piperacillin. Remember "TCP takes care of pseudomonas."  
🗑
mechanism of antipseudomonals   same as penicillin but extended spectrum  
🗑
clinical use of antipseudomonals   Pseudomonas and gram neg rods  
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penicillinase sensitivity of antipseudomonals   sensitive, so use w/ clavulanic acid  
🗑
toxicity of antipseudomonals   hypersensitivity  
🗑
what are 1st generation cephalosporins active against   Cefazolin, cephalexin. Gram pos cocci, Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella. "PEcK"  
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2nd generation cephalosporins are active against   cefoxitin, cefaclor, cefuroxime. Gram pos cocci, Haemophilus, Enterobacter aerogenes, Neisseria, Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella, Serratia. "HEN PEcKS."  
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what are 3rd generation cephalosporins and what are they active against   Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime, Ceftazidime. Against serious gram neg, resistant infections and meningitis (penetrate CNS). Ex: ceftazidine for Pseudomonas, ceftriaxone for gonorrhea  
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what are 4th generation cephalosporins for?   cefepime, cefpiramide. increased activity against Pseudomonas and gram pos  
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Toxicity of cephalosporins   hypersensitivity (cross sensitivity w/ penicillins). increases the nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides and has a disulfiram-like reaction w/ ethanol if have a methylthiotetrazole group  
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what is aztreonam   a monobactam resistant to Beta-lactamases that binds to PBP3, inhibiting cell wall synthesis  
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interactions of aztreonam w/ other antibiotics   Synergy w/aminoglycosides, no cross-sensitivity w/ penicillins.  
🗑
cilincial use of aztreonam   gram negative rods like Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Serratia. No activity against gram positive or anaerobes. Used for penicillin-allergic patients and those whose renal insufficiency prevents use of aminoglycosides.  
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toxicity of aztreonam   usually none, occasional GI upset  
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Mechanism of imipenem/cilastatin, meropenem   broad-spectrum, Beta-lactamase resistant carbapenem. Always administered w/ cilistatin which is an inhibitor of renal dihydropeptidase to decrease its inactivation in renal tibules  
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clinical use of imipenem, meropenem   gram pos cocci, gram neg rods, anaerobes. drug of choice for enterobacter.  
🗑
toxicity of imipenem,meropenem   Gi distress, skin rash, CNS toxicity  
🗑
mechanism of vancomycin   inhibits cell wall mucopeptide formation by binding D-Ala-D-Ala portion of cell wall precursors. Bactericidal  
🗑
how do bacs become resistant to vancomycin   aa change of d-ala-d-ala to d-ala-d-lac  
🗑
clinical use of vancomycin   serious, gram positive multidrug resistant organisms like MRSA and Clostridium difficile colitis  
🗑
toxicity of vancomycin.   well tolerated in general -- does "NOT" have many problems. Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity, Thrombophlebitis, + "red man syndrome" (diffuse flushing, which can be prevented w/ antihistamines and slow infusion rate)  
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How to remember the 30S inhibitors and 50S inhibitors   buy AT 30, CELL at 50: 30S = Aminoglycosides (cidal), Tetracyclines (static). 50S: Chloramphenicol (cidal), Erythromycin (static), Lincomycin (static), cLindamycin (static)  
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how to remember the aminoglycosides   "Mean" GNATS canNOT kill anaerobes. GNATS = Gentamycin, Neomycin, Amikacin, Tobramycin, Streptomycin. NOT = toxicities: Nephrotoxic, Ototoxic, Teratogen.  
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mechanism of aminoglycosides   bactericidal; inhibits formation of initiation complex and causes misreading of mRNA. Requires O2 for uptake, so doesn't work w/ anaerobes.  
🗑
clinical use of aminoglycosides   severe gram neg rod infections. Synergy w/ beta-lactams. Neomycin for bowel surgery.  
🗑
mechanism of tetracyclines   bacteriostatic, bind to 30S and prevent attachment of aatRNA  
🗑
CNS penetration of tetracyclines   limited  
🗑
which is the only tetracycline that can be used in renal failure   doxycycline  
🗑
what foods do tetracyclines conflict with?   things w/ divalent cations  
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what is a special property of demeclocycline   it is an ADH antagonist and is used as a diuretic in SIADH  
🗑
how to remember clinical uses of tetracycline   "VACUUM THe BedRoom": V. cholerae, Acne, Chlamydia, Ureaplasma Urealyticum, Mycoplasma, Tularemia, H. pylori, Borrelia, Rickettsial  
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toxicity of tetracyclines   GI distress, teeth discoloration, inhibition of bone growth in kids, photosensitivity. Contraindicated in pregnancy.  
🗑
which are the macrolides   erythromycin, clarithomycin, azithromycin  
🗑
mechanism of macrolides   bind 23S rRNA of 50S ribosomal subunit. Bacteriostatic.  
🗑
Clinical use of macrolides.   URIs, pneumonias, STDs --- gram pos cocci (strep in ppl w/ penicilin allergies), Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia, Neisseria  
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toxicity of macrolides   GI discomfort, acute cholestatic jaundice, eosinophilia, skin rashes. Increases serum conc of theophyllines and anticoagulants.  
🗑
mechanism of chloramphenicol   inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase. Bacteriostatic  
🗑
Clinical use of chloramphenicol   Meningitis (Haemophilus, Neisseria m, S. pneumoniae). Use conservatively b/c of toxicities  
🗑
toxicities of choramphenicol   Anemia (dose dependent), aplastic anemia (dose independent), gray baby syndrome in preemies b/c lack liver UDP-glucuronyl transferase  
🗑
mechanism of clindamycin   blocks peptide bond formation at 50S. bacteriostatic.  
🗑
clinical use of clindamycin   to treat anaerobic infections esp above the diaphragm (C. fragilis, C. perfringens)  
🗑
toxicities of clindamycin   Pseudomembranous colitis, fever, diarrhea  
🗑
are sulfas bacteriocidal or static?   static  
🗑
clinical use of sulfas   Gram pos, gram neg, Nocardia, Chlamydia. Can use triple sulfas or SMX for simple UTI.  
🗑
toxicity of sulfas   hypersensitivity, hemolysis in G6PD deficiency, nephrotoxicity (interstitial nephritis), kernicterus in infants. Displaces other drugs like warfarin from albumin.  
🗑
mechanism of sulfas   PABA analog,inhibits dihydropterate synthase  
🗑
MOA of trimethoprim   inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. bacteriostatic.  
🗑
How to remember toxicity of trimethoprim   TMP: Treats Marrow Poorly. megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, granulocytopenia. Alleviate w/ supplemental folinic acid.  
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Clinical use of trimethoprim   Use w/ sulfa as TMP-SMX for recurrent UTIs, Shigella, Salmonella, Pneumocystis  
🗑
mechanism of quinolones   inhibits DNA gyrase. Bactericidal  
🗑
Clinical use of quinolones   Gram neg rods of urinary and GI tracts including Pseudomonas, Neisseria, some gram positives  
🗑
Toxicities of quinolones   GI upset, superinfection, skin rashes, headache, dizziness. Cartilage toxicity (bad for fetus and kids). Tendonitis and tendon rupture in adults, leg cramps and myalgias in kids.  
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how to remember quinolone toxicities   "quinoLONES hurt attachments to your BONES"  
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mechanism of metronidazole   forms toxic metabolites in the bacterial cell wall. Bactericidal  
🗑
Clinical uses of metronidazole   GET GAP on the Metro: Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas, Gardnerella, Antiprotozoal, h Pylori (triple therapy)  
🗑
metronidazole toxicity   Disulfiram-like reaction, headache, metallic taste, etc  
🗑
Mechanism of polymixins   Binds to cell membranes of bacteria and disrupt their osmotic properties. Cationic and act like detergents. "Mixins mix up membranes"  
🗑
clinical use of polymixins   resistant gram neg infections  
🗑
toxicity of polymixins   neurotoxicity, acute tubular necrosis.  
🗑
how to remember the TB drugs   INH-SPIRE (INH, Streptomycin, Pyrazinamide, (i) - Rifampin, Ethambutol  
🗑
what is used for TB prophylaxis   INH alone  
🗑
what is main toxicity of TB drugs   hepatotoxicity  
🗑
mechanism of INH   decreased synthesis of mycolic acids.  
🗑
clinical use of INH   TB including as sole prophylaxis  
🗑
toxicity of INH   Hemolysis if G6PD deficient, hepatotoxic, neurotoxic. SLE-like syndrome. Administer w/ B6 to prevent neurotoxicity. Remember INH Injures Neurons and Hepatocytes.  
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Mechanism of Rifampin   inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase.  
🗑
Clinical use of Rifampin   TB. Also delays resistance to dapsone when used in leprosy. Meningococcal prophylaxis and chemoprophylaxis in contacts of kids w/ Hib.  
🗑
Toxicity of Rifampin   Minor hepatotoxicity and drug interactions (increases P450)  
🗑
Rifampin 4 R's   Rna polymerase inhibitor, Revs up microsomal P450, Red/orange body fluids, Rapid resistance if used alone  
🗑
mechanism of resistance to aminoglycosides   modification via acetylation, adenylation, or phosphorylation  
🗑
mechanism of resistance to vancomycin   terminal D-ala-D-ala of cell wall component replaced w/ D-lac. Decreases affinity.  
🗑
mechanism of resistance to chloramphenicol   modification via acetylation  
🗑
mechanisms of resistance to macrolides   methylation of rRNA near erythromycin binding site  
🗑
mechanisms of resistance to tetracycline   altered uptake and efflux  
🗑
mechanism of resistance to sulfas   altered enzyme, decreased uptake, or increased PABA synthesis  
🗑
Meningococcal prophylaxis   Rifampin (drug of choice), minocycline.  
🗑
Gonorrhea prophylaxis   ceftriaxone  
🗑
syphilis prophylaxis   Benzathine penicillin G  
🗑
prophylaxis for history of recurrent UTIs   TMP-SMX.  
🗑
Pneumocystic pneumonia prophylaxis   TMP-SMX (drug of choice), aerosol pentaminidine  
🗑
endocarditis prophylaxis w/ dental or surgical procedures   penicillins  
🗑
mechanism of ampho B   binds ergosterol (unique to fungi), forming pores in membrane  
🗑
clinical use   wide spectrum of systemic mycoses and intrathecally for fungal meningitis  
🗑
toxicity of ampho B   fever/chills, hypotension, nephrotoxic, arrhythmias, anemia, IV phlebitis.  
🗑
mechanism of nystatin   binds ergosterol  
🗑
clinical use of nystatin   topical only, for oral thrush, diaper rash, vaginal yeast  
🗑
mechanism of azoles   inhibit fungal steroid (ergosterol) synthesis  
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Clinical use of azoles   systemic mycoses. Fluconazole for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS. Candidal infections. Ketoconazole for Blastomyces, Cocidioides, Histo, Candida albicans, hypercortisolism  
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toxicity of azoles   hormone synthesis inhibition --> gynecomastia, liver dysfunction, fever, chills  
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mechanism of flucytosine   inhibits DNA synthesis by conversion to 5-FU which competes w/ uracil  
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clinical use of flucytosine   systemic fungal infections  
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toxicity of flucytosine   nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bone marrow suppression  
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mechanism of caspofungin   inhibits cell wall synthesis  
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clinical use of caspofungin   invasive aspergillosis  
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toxicity of caspofungin   GI upset, flushing  
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mechanism of terbanifine   inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase  
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clinical use of terbanifine   to treat dermatophytoses especially onychomycosis  
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mechanism of griseofulvin   interferes w/ microtubule function. disrupts mitosis. deposits in keratin-containing tissues like nails  
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clinical use of griseofulvin   oral treatment of superficial infections. Inhibits growth of dermatophytes like tinea, ringworm  
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toxicity of griseofulvin   teratogenic, carcinogenic. Confusion, headaches. Increases P450 and warfarin metabolism  
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mechanism of amantadine   blocks viral penetration and uncoating via M2 protein. May buffer endosome pH. Also causes dopamine release from nerve terminals. Remember: "A man to dine takes off his coat"  
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clinical use of amantadine   influenza A, parkinson's, rubella?  
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toxicity of amantadine   ataxia, dizziness, slurred speech.Remember Amantadine blocks flu A and rubellA and causes problems with the cerebellA  
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mechanism of resistance to amantadine   mutated M2 protein. 90% of flu A is resistant to amantadine  
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why is rimantadine better than amantadine?   fewer CNS effects. Does not cross BBB  
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mechanism of zanamivir, oseltamivir   inhibits flu neuraminidase, decreasing release of progeny virus  
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clinical use of zanamivir, oseltamivir   both flu A and B  
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mechanism of ribavirin   inhibits guaniine nucleotides by inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase  
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clinical use of ribavirin   RSV and chronic hep C  
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toxicity of ribavirin   hemolytic anemia. Severe teratogen.  
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mechanism of acyclovir   preferentially inhibits viral DNA polymerase when it's phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase  
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clinical use of acyclovir   HSV, VZV,EBV. Mucocutaneous and genital herpes lesions. prophylaxis in the immunosuppressed  
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toxicity of acyclovir   delirium, tremor, nephrotoxicity  
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mechanism of resistance to acyclovir   lack of thymidine kinase  
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mechanism of gancyclovir   phosphorylation by viral kinase. Preferentially inhibits CMV DNA polymerase.  
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toxicities of ganciclovir   leukopenia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, renal toxicity. More toxic to host enzymes than acyclovir.  
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clinical use of ganciclovir   CMV esp in immunocompromised  
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MOA of resistance to ganciclovir   mutated CMV DNA pol or lack of thymidine kinase  
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mechanism of foscarnet   inhibits viral DNA polymerase that binds to pyrophosphate binding site of enzyme. Does not need to be activated by viral kinase. remember "FOScarnet = pyroPHOSphate analog"  
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clinical use of foscarnet   CMV retinitis in immunocompromised pts when ganciclovir fails and for acyclovir-resistant HSV  
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toxicity of foscarnet   nephrotoxic  
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mechanism of foscarnet   mutated DNA pol  
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how to remember protease inhibitors   -Navir tease a pro- protease inhibitors  
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toxicity of protease inhibitors   GI intolerance, hyperglycemia, lipodystrophy, thrombocytopenia (indinavir)  
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how to remember the non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors   Never Ever Deliver nucleosides: Nevirapine, efavirenz, delavirdine  
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toxicity of reverse transcriptase inhibitors   bone marrow suppression, peripheral neuropathy, lactic acidosis (nucleosides), rash (non-nucleosides), megaloblastic anemia (AZT)  
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clinical use of reverse transcriptase inhibitors   HAART generally entails combo therapy w/ protease inhibitors and reverse transcriptase inhibitors.  
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when to initiate HAART   when have CD4 <500 or high viral load. AZT is used during pregnancy to reduce risk of fetal transmission  
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Mechanism of interferons   they are glycoproteins from human leukocytes that block various stages of viral RNA synthesis by induces a ribonuclease that degrades viral mRNA  
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clinical use of IFN-alpha   chronic hep B and C, Kaposi's sarcoma  
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clinical use of IFN-gama   NADPH oxidase deficiency  
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toxicity of interferon   neutropenia  
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how to treat onchocerciasis   Ivermectin (rIVER blindness --.IVERmectin  
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what do you treat w/ mebendazole/thiabendazole   nematode/roundworm (pinworm, whipworm) infections  
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what do you treat with pyrantel pamoate   giant roundworm (Ascaris), hookworm (Necator/Ancyclostoma), pinworm (Enterobius)  
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what do you treat flukes with?   praziquantel  
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treating cysticercosis   praziquantel  
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treating tapeworm infections (except cysticercosis)   niclosamide  
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treating leishmaniasis   Pentavalent antimony  
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how to treat malaria hypnozoites   primaquine  
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treating giardia, amoebiasis, bacterial vaginitis, Trichomonas   metronidazole  
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treatment of PCP   TMP-SMX, pentamidine  
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treating Chagas' disease, American trypanosomiasis   Nifurtimox  
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treating African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)   Suramin  
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How to remember antimicrobials to avoid during pregnancy   SAFE Moms Take Really Good Care. S=sulfa, A=aminoglycosides, F=fluoroquinolones, E=erythromycin, M=metronidazole, T=tetracyclines, R=Ribavirin, Griseofulvin, Chloramphenicol  
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