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Endocrinology for the UT Southwestern spring 2010 Physiology Course

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Question
Answer
Hypothalamus Development   diencephalon, forms floor & part of latter wall of 3d ventricle  
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Pituitary Gland Development   Epithelial cells from posterior pharynx -> Rathke's Pouch (adenohypophysis = anterior pit. 80%), interfaces w/infundibulum (neurohypophysis = posterior pit. 20%).  
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HPT axes (Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Target Organ) exceptions   Exceptions = Parathyroid Gland, Adrenal Medulla & Zona Glomerulosa, Placenta, Pancreas.  
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Which hormones are made in the PVN?   THRH, CRH, Somatostatin (inhibitory for GH)  
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Which hormones are made in the ARC?   GnRH & LH, GHRH, DA (inhibitory for PRL)  
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What characterizes the portal Veins of the Infundibulum?   Low pressure, form sinusoids in ant. pit.  
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Which hormones are made of 2 peptide chains?   TSH, LH, FSH, Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, Activins, Inhibins  
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HPT axis   (DA/Somatostatin/CORT inhibit; cold stimulates) TRH release (not pulsatile)-> Gs R (15% of ant. pit.)-> TSH -> T3/T4 & PRL. Feedback Inhibition @ hypothalamus & pit. half-life = days, single measure sufficient.  
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HPA Axis   CRH (PVN) or AVP or IL1/6 -> POMC cleaved into ACTH (10% of ant. pit.) -> CORT (half-life 1 hour; measure early morning or pharmaco-stimulate) & DHEA-S (long half life, used as CORT surrogate). CORT -> hepatic glucose release & inhibits gut Ca absorption.  
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HPG Axis   GnRH (decapapeptide, ARC)-> G-protein R-> LH & FSH (10% of ant. pit.) ->E2 & T (1 hour half life). Inhibited by: Stress/starvation/opiates, CORT, Inhibin A/B (GnRH & FSH), sex hormones (GnRH & LH). Measure LH/FSH/T in morning single measure.  
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Which cells make Inhibin B?   Sertoli/Granulosa Cells, inhibits FSH secretion  
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GnRH Pulsatility   GnRH neurons inactive before puberty. 1st pulsatility during sleep. Constant GnRH -> downregulates receptor ->infertility (treatment for endometriosis/prostate cancer/precocious puberty). Rhythm dampened in elderly.  
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PRL axis   (25% ant. pit.) No feedback inhibition. Chronic inhibition by DA. Stimulated weakly by TRH, E2, nipple stimulation. Chronic low PRL production. Single randomly-timed measure OK.  
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Post. Pit.   SON, PVN = magnocellular neurons (OXT, AVP released as precursors) distinct cells, but both types found in both nuclei. Hormones cleaved & activated in secretory vesicles  
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AVP   secreted by BOTH post. pit. & hypothal., binds V2 GPCR in DCT & IMCD, binds V1R in arteries -> vasoconstriction. Lowers body temp, increases memory, increases ACTH w/acute stress.  
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Oxytocin   nipple touch, vaginal stim -> OXT -> milk let down & myometrium contraction, kidney & vascular actions like AVP, amnesia, maternal behavior.  
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% of diet that must be donated to growth   2-13%  
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Ways to assess growth   1)Weight & Height/Age, 2)Growth Velocity/Age, 3)Weight kg/(Height m^2) per Age (BMI), 4)Height Age (Age @ which height =50th percentile, 5)Weight Age (Age @ which weight = 50th percentile) 6)"Bone Age"(x-ray left hand epiphyses. correlates w/pubery onset)  
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When do Pubertal Growth Spurts occur in boys vs. girls?   MALE: Age 13-14, 7-12 cm/year. FEMALE: Age 11-12, < 10 cm/year.  
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Growth Pattern   Variable before 3 years old. After 3, healthy kids follow same percentile for height until puberty.  
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Mid-Parental Target Height   = (Summed Parents' Heights -5")/2. (- for girls, + for boys). stdev = +/- 4".  
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Gene mutations leading to short stature   1) any GH related genes, 2) PIT-1/PROP1 txn factors for GH expression, 3) SHOX (e.g. Turner's Syndrome), 4) IGF & IGFR  
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GH Axis   Somatostatin inhibits, GHRH/ghrelin/sex hormones stimulate-> GH (pulsatile; self-inhibitory; 50% of ant. pit.; 15 min half life)-> GHBP-bound-> liver IGF-1 & IGFBP3 (1/2 life = days, nonpulsatile = surrogate)-> feedback inhibition. TH= permissive.  
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GH actions   1) required for normal adult height, 2) free FA release from adipocytes, 3) insulin resistance (inhibits glucose metabolism) in muscle & adipocytes -> prevents hypoglycemia, esp. in newborns  
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GH pulsatility   7-8 pulses/24 hours in prepubertal male. Max. pulse amplitude w/in 1 hour of deep sleep onset. At puberty, pulse amplitude increases.  
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Somatomedin Hypothesis   =main role of GH is to regulate systemic IGF1. GH binding to R recruits JAK2 kinase -> STAT5 -> IGF-1 production. BUT locally produced IGF1 is major effector of GH.  
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IGFs   insulin-like growth factors stimulate glucose uptake in fat & muscle, 50% aa similarity to insulin (retain C-chain), stimulate collagen synthesis into cartilage. Circulate bound to BP's (e.g. IGFBP3 = major carrier).  
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IGF1   impt't for adult growth, hepatic origin + local paracrine secretion, not found in growth plates.  
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IGF2   impt't for fetal growth, binds insulin R -> hypoglycemia. paracrine. paternal imprinted.  
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T3/T4 actions   permissive for GH secretion. Direct stimulation of epiphyseal cartilage growth.  
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Sex Hormones & Growth   1) enhance GH & IGF-1 secretion, 2) high levels @ puberty contribute to growth spurt, 3) E2 -> epiphyseal fusion  
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Breast Development   stimulated by E2, 1st sign of puberty followed by pubic hair stimulated by Testosterone. 1 Prepubertal, 2 Breast Bud, 3 Further Enlargement, 4 Areolar Projection, 5 Mature.  
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Penis Development   androgen-stimulated, 6 months later than female breasts. 1 Prepubertal, 2 Enlargement (red scrotum, testes), 3 Enlargement (long penis), 4 Enlargement (penis breadth & glans, dark scrotum), 5 Maturity  
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Familial Short Stature (normal variant)   at least one parent below 5th percentile -> child below 5th %. Normal birth weight, normal growth velocity, bone age, and pubertal timing.  
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Constitutional Growth Delay (normal variant)   =Late Bloomer Syndrome. usually boys. late puberty + continued growth until late, normal growth velocity. bone age delayed along w/delay in puberty.  
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Adrenal Development   Mesoderm-> adrenal primordium by 8th gestational week: Fetal Zone expresses Cyp17 & makes DHEA-S. outer Definitive Zone doesn't express Cyp17. Chromaffin cells from neural crest migrate in & form discrete islands until 1 week afer birth -> medulla.  
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Fetal Adrenal Gland   Fetal Zone makes Cyp17 & DHEA-S as precursor for placental E2 & androgens, disappears @ 1 year old, when Definitive Zone develops into Adrenal Cx  
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Adrenal blood flow   most CO/g weight of any organ, flow from Cx to medulla  
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Which enzymes are expressed in each adrenal Cx zone?   G: 21-Hydroxylase, Aldo Synthase. F: 17/21/11-hydroxylases, 3) R: 17-hydroxylase  
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ACTH stimulates:   CORT (Zona fasciculata), DHEA & Androstenedione (Zona reticularis)  
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Aldo   AngII or high [K]-> GPCR on zona glomerulosa -> Aldo  
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What are the acute and delayed/chronic effects of ACTH?   1) Acute (sec-min) cholesterol in outer Mt membrane-> [StAR]-> inner Mt membrane Cyp11A. 2) Chronic (hours) ACTH induces "trophic action" gene expression of P450's.  
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Cholesterol Sources for Adrenocortical cells   1) uptake from blood lipoproteins, 2) HMG CoA Reductase de novo synthesis, 3) Cholesterol Ester Hydrolase hydrolysis of cholesterol esters.  
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mineralicorticoid receptor (MR)   same affinities for CORT & Aldo. 11-beta-HSD type 2 expressed in Aldo-responsive tissues converts CORT to inactive cortisone  
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Biological FX of glucocorticoids   1) mobilize aa's from muscle/fat 2) adipocyte lipolysis, 3) liver gluconeogenesis & glyocgenolysis, 4) catecholamine R expression in heart, 5) CNS effects, 6) inhibit immune system (NKkB & AP1)  
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hypotensive patients who do not respond to volume repletion & pressors:   May have Adrenal Insufficiency (CORT -> increased Epi & NE expression in heart)  
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11-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase Type 1 (11-beta-HSD Type 1)   converts inactive corticosteroids prednisone/cortisone into active prednisolone & cortisol in liver & adipocytes  
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Epi production in adrenal chromaffin cells:   Tyrosine [TH, rate-limiting]-> DOPA [aromatic aa decarboxylase]-> DA [DA beta hydroxylase]-> NorEpi 20% [PNMT] -> Epi 80%. stored in granules & released rapidly when sympathetics signal acute stress. Epi half life = sec-min  
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alpha adrenergic R   vasoconstriction, iris opening, GI relaxation, Sphincter tightening, Pilomotor contraction  
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beta adrenergic R   beta 1: high HR & contractility, lipolysis. beta 2: vaso- & broncho-dilation, uterus relaxation, glycogenolysis, bladder relaxation  
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Termination of Catecholamine Action   1) desensitization & internalization of R, 2) presynaptic Epi reuptake (neurons only), 3) MAO & COMT in liver  
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Cretinism   deaf-mute retardation, pyramidal disturbance w/extrapyramidal dysfunction. Abnormal gait or di/paraplegic. Low IQ. Due to low/no TH in pregnant mom.  
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TH effects on human health   1) TH -> proper growth. Low levels = delayed growth. 2) TH in adult: elevates basal metabolism & increases O2 consumption via Na/K ATPase -> increased glucose/FA/protein consumption  
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Hyperthyroidism   hyperphagia w/weight loss, tremors, heat intolerance, anxiety, frequent poos.  
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Hypothyroidism   Fatigue/Cold Intolerance/Weight Gain/Dry Skin/Coarse Hair/Brittle Fingernails/Irregular Menstruation/Myalgia/Constipation/ Cognitive Dysfunction. Primary = thyroid, 2ndary = Pituitary, Tertiary = Hypothalamus dysfunction.  
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Thyroid Nodules   50% of people have them, >95% benign, high colloid content. If cancerous: Growing, large, men/children mostly who were treated w/XRT drugs.  
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Iodine absorption -> Colloid   Iodine-> Iodide in gut-> blood-> IODIDE TRAPPING: follicular cell apical NIS imports I- -> basal pendrin transporter -> colloid  
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Iodine Organification   iodination of thyroglobulin (Tg) in colloid + H2O2 from NADPHoxidase -> Thyroid Peroxidase (TPO) oxidizes I & attaches it to Y residue on thyroglobulin ->3-MIT/DIT  
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Iodine Coupling   Thyroid Peroxidase adds MIT+DIT->T3 or 2xDIT->T. Thyroglobulin attached to T3/T4 is stored in colloid. Pinocytosed into follicular cell, endosome adds to lysosome-> Cathepsins digests -> T3/4 released to blood & Tg pieces recycled  
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How is Thyroid Hormone transported in the blood?   1) TBG carries 60-70% of T3/4. TTR (transthyretin) carries 15%. Albumin carries remaining. 0.1% TH free (accessible to target tissues).  
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Thyroid Hormone Actions   T3 enters cells directly. Deiodinases I & II convert T4 to active T3. T3 binds TR-RXR heterodimer -> binds TRE's on DNA -> expression.  
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What molecular effects does TSH signaling have?   1) more NIS, TPO, Tg, H2O2, 2) Tg proteolysis by cathepsins & pinocytosis, 3) follicular cell mitosis.  
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reasons for high bone age   may appear more advanced w/high T3, E2, CORT, Testosterone.  
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Equation for BMI using lb & inches   weight lb/(height in.^2) x 703  
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BMI at risk for adult obesity   > 85th percentile for high BMI  
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What are the pubic hair stages?   1 (no hair) -> 5. Timing correlates with genitalia & secondary sexual features development. Driven by androgens.  
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What is the largest endocrine organ in the body?   GI tract  
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What type of hormonal interaction is it where 2 hormones together -> double the effects?   Additive  
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What type of hormonal interaction is it where 2 hormones together give > 2x the effects?   Synergistic  
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What type of hormonal interaction requires 2 different hormones for a 1x effect?   Complementary (e.g. FSH + testosterone needed for sperm development)  
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What type of hormonal interaction requires 1 hormone so that a cell can be receptive to another hormone?   Permissive (e.g. E2 at the uterus induces expression of P4 receptors)  
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What type of hormonal interaction is it where 1 hormone opposes the effects of another hormone?   Antagonistic (e.g. insulin induces fat formation whereas glucagon induces fat breakdown. insulin represses glucagon release)  
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What are the classes of hydrophilic hormones?   Proteins >100 aa's long. Peptides < 100 aa's long. Amines = 1 aa derivative.  
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What are the classes of lipophilic hormones?   Unbroken B ring (cholesterol-derived). Broken B ring (vitamin D-derived). Thyroid Hormone (iodide confers hydrophobicity).  
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What is the level of regulation of protein/peptide hormones?   at the level of secretion. typically synthesized in advance and stored until ready to be released. Preprohormone synthesized in ER, refined in Golgi -> Prohormone -> active hormone (still inside cell) -> secretory vesicles.  
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What is a Prehormone?   hormones secreted in an inactive state, and are later activated by the target cell. e.g. T4 is inactive in circulation, converted to active T3 @ target cell.  
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At what stage is steroid hormone production regulated?   at the level of de novo synthesis. immediate release (no reservoirs).  
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What is the GH diurnal rhythm & the best time to measure GH?   episodic peaks evey 3 hours (greatest levels @ night). Use IGF1 as a proxy.  
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What is one peptide hormone that circulates with a carrier protein?   IGF circulates with IGFBP3  
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What is the Priming Effect?   when 1 hormone increases the number of receptors for another hormone on a target cell, a greater response is seen (e.g. GnRH on the ant. pit.)  
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What is a mechanism to prevent desensitization of a target cell to its hormone?   Pulsatile Secretion (may prevent downregulation of receptors on target cell)  
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radioimmunoassay (RIA)   add labeled hormone to sample serum + single Ab (recognize 4 aa's). competition b/tw hormones @ Ab. measures amount, but doesn't distinguish free from carrier-bound hormones). Ab's may not recognize all forms of hormone.  
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ELISAs   broader linear range, shorter incubations, fewer reagents & measurements, don't need radioactivity. 2 Ab's required (2 diff sites of hormone), 1 bound to petri dish, 1 free. Does not measure hormone activity/active vs. bound hormone.  
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What is the first thing that would happen if you cut the pituitary stalk?   Prolactin levels go sky high -- no more DA to inhibit it!  
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What are the hypothalamic nuclei supplying the posterior pituitary?   PVN, SON  
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What is cancer of Thyroid C cells called?   Medullary Thyroid Cancer  
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What happens if someone has Thyroid Hormone deficiency at different stages of life?   1) baby -> CNS cretinism. 2) child -> bone malformation. 3) adult -> metabolism disorder.  
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What is NIS?   The Na-Iodide Symporter on the apical membrane of follicular cells of the thyroid. Involved in Iodide trapping  
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What is the % composition of thyroid hormone?   T4 (70%). T3 = 30%. Deiodinases in target tissues converts T4 into T3.  
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How does the body increase heat production using thyroid signaling?   TRH production is increased (T3 burns fuel to generate heat)  
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Frequency of disorders of sexual development   1 in 100  
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What is sex reversal?   When sexual phenotype does not correlate with sex chromosome complement. e.g. SRY on otherwise normal X chromosome causes sex reversal in XX individuals.  
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Which genes are critical for male spermiogenesis but not sexual differentiation?   DAZ & AZF. (SRY is needed for male fertility but not for spermiogenesis specifically).  
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Which gene is located adjacent to PAR1 on the Y chromosome?   SRY. Can be translocated to X chromosome with abnormal crossover. key gene for testis development. Gene product "bends" DNA.  
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What is SRY gene product?   DNA binding protein of High Mobility Group (HMG) family. Conserved across species. Mutations cluster iN HMG region. Never been shown specifically to activate transcription via promoter region. Activated in pre-Sertoli cells very early in development.  
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What is SF1 important for?   jump-starts sexual development. MALES: Sertoli Cells make AMH, SRY ->SOX9 in testes-> FGF9 & male feed-forward. FEMALES: Ovaries make Wnt4 & beta-catenin inhibit SOX9.  
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45X female development   initially generate normal number of follicles, but by birth, all have degenerated. Oocyte critical for ovarian development (constitutive pathway of sexual differentiation).  
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What is a cause of pseudohermaphrotism leading to both male and female internal genitalia?   Mutation in AMH in males  
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Which hormones stimulate Leydig vs. Sertoli cells?   LH -> Leydig -> Testosterone & Androstenedione. FSH -> Sertoli cells -> AMH (development) & inhibin (puberty).  
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What do the Mullerian ducts form?   Fallopian tubes, uterus, upper vagina.  
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How does Testosterone signal during development?   Acts locally at HIGH concentration for Testicular & Wolffian development. If not enough testosterone from one side -> unilateral development. DHT production is NOT unilateral (except maybe testicular descent).  
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What is AMH?   Antimullerian Hormone, TGF-beta family, signals via Smads to initiate apoptosis, acts locally. mutations = persistent Mullerian Duct Syndrome.  
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When does fusion of the uterine tube occur?   @ 9 weeks. First, elongation of Mullerian tubes, then fusion, then canalation & resorption of intermediate tissue.  
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What is equivalent to the penile shaft in the female?   labia minora  
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When can you tell when a fetus is male vs. female?   Male can tell several weeks early (@ 7 weeks development b/c of DHT), ovaries appear @ 12 weeks. but cannot tell if abnormal sexual development until birth.  
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Do female embryos make estrogen?   YES, but not critical for female sexual development. May affect normally sized uterus & vagina.  
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What is the role of oocytes in sexual differentiation?   Maintain ovarian development.  
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What is affected in congenital adrenal hyperplasia?   21 hydroxylase deficiency -> blocks up system, so precursors are made into androgens. looks male external, but no palpable mass in scrotum (ovaries do not descend)  
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AIS (androgen insensitivity) syndrome   testes makes AMH -> no Mullerian duct, externally female + vaginal pouch (lower 1/3 of vagina not from Mullerian duct). @ puberty high testosterone is converted to E2 (tall + large breasts) BUT no pubic hair.  
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What are the contents of semen?   Sperm 5-10%. 65% from seminal vesicles (fructose, coagulants, seminogelin inhibits motility until ejaculation) 30% from prostate (anticoagulants that work 15 min later).  
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Normal semen analysis   pH >7.2, volume >2 ml, [ ] >20 million/ml, motility >50% forward, morphology > 50% normal, leukocytes < 1 million/ml (if more, may have prostatitis)  
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Kruger's Sperm Infertility Analysis   > 14% morphologically normal sperm = still fertile  
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What is hyperactivation of sperm?   Increasingly circular nondirective movements of sperm as they move up the female reproductive tract (due to uterine contractions)  
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What are types of male infertility?   Obstructive: 1) absent fructose b/c seminal vesicles blocked, 2) Cystic fibrosis (no vas Deferens) 1-2%). Nonobstructive: 1) AZF & DAZ mutations, 2) Klinefelter's (severely decreased sperm production), 3) Y chromosome microdeletion mutation.  
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What are environmental requirements for normal spermatogenesis?   sperm take 3 months to develop. Tobacco, Alcohol, Marijuana BAD for 3 months prior. High Temp: Cryptorchidism, Varicocele (pampiniform plexus dilation esp. on the left-> heat). Illness: fever, mumps orchitis.  
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What are hormonal requirements for normal spermatogenesis?   1) high local testosterone, 2) normal LH/FSH. Anabolic steroids are inhibitory (-feedback. no local testosterone production).  
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How do androgens and estrogen maintain bone health?   estrogens inhibit bone resorption & induce osteoclast apoptosis. Androgens stimulate bone cell proliferation (bone converts testosterone to estrogen also).  
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What is the pattern of male testosterone production in early life?   1) hCG instigates T in early fetal period. 2) T increases a few days after delivery due to withdrawal of placental steroids. 3) Prolonged surge during 1st year of life.  
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HPG changes during male puberty   peaked pulsatile secretion overnight to early morning (measure early morning). at puberty, LH secretion continues throughout the day.  
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How is serum testosterone measured?   Total testosterone only measured. Free testosterone assays = expensive & not accurate.  
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What are permanent effects of T/DHT?   enlarged penis/testes, deep voice, hair growth on face & chest.  
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What are temporary effects of T/DHT?   Hematopoiesis, Libido.  
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What is the role of the fetal adrenals on androgen signaling?   DHEA & DHEA-s are very weak, but can be converted to more potent androgens. High levels in fetus (converted by fetus to estriol), adrenals involute just before birth, DHEAs decrease @ birth  
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What hormone modulates beard growth & chest hair in males?   testicular (not adrenal!) testosterone  
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What pulse frequency of GnRH stimulates FSH vs. LH?   slow GnRH pulse frequencies (q2 hours)-> FSH -> late luteal phase peak. Faster-> LH (late follicular phase peak).  
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FSH & LH surge properties in female menstrual cycle:   Surge just before luteal phase. FSH levels are higher. Due to E2 (certain amount of E2 required). 24-36 hours later = ovulation.  
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Which cells release Inhibin across the menstrual cycle?   Inhibin B made by granulosa cells (peaks just before ovulation), Inhibin A by luteal cells (peaks just before menstruation).  
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Why do some women have spotting after ovulation?   Drop in estradiol just before ovulation  
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What are the general roles of estrogen and progesterone on folliular function?   estrogen = growth factor, progesterone = stability factor  
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What is the hormone state at the selection window?   low P, low E2, higher but equivalent FSH & LH. FSH is dropping, LH is rising. Only 1 follicle survives drop in FSH.  
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What hormones are made by the ovaries   E2, P4, activin/inhibin, EGF/VEGF (respond to insulin in diabetes), Cytokines, Prostaglandins  
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Granulosa cell hormone production:   avascular = no cholesterol. **no Cyp17 enzyme (cannot make DHEA or Androstenedione) but CAN convert them to estrogens w/17betaHSD.  
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Thecal cell hormone production:   Cyp17 to make androstenedione. No 17-beta-HSD & aromatase. Well-vascularized.  
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What are the Activins?   A, B, AB. Activin R specific for activin. Made by ovary, pituitary, bone, stem cells, etc. paracrine. Stimulate FSH & augment FSH actions.  
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Describe follicular development   1 cohort of follicles/month, starts in utero, all follicles undergo atresia before puberty b/c NO FSH!!!!, rate of growth & atresia cannot be changed by any interventions (e.g. fertility treatment just rescues follicles that would otherwise have died)  
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What is gondadotropin-independent follicular growth?   from primordial to early antral follicle (gonadotropin-dpdt occurs in late antral & requires FSH)  
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Describe a healthy dominant follicle during selection:   HIGH granulosa cell #, FSH-R's, IGF1, LH-R's, blood vessels, aromatase. "Estrogen-Dominant"  
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What are androgen dominant follicles?   LESS: granulosa cells, aromatase, IGF1. "Atretic/Apoptotic"  
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What is the function of the corona radiata for the oocyte in ovulation?   makes the oocyte sticky for attachment to fimbriae  
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How is the ovary releasead during ovulation?   inflammatory process: histamines/prostaglandins, plasminogen activator/collagenase, matrix metalloproteinases  
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What happens with regression of the corpus luteum?   PGF2alpha & P4 decline (-> menstruation), macrophages invade, apoptosis-> fibrotic corpus albicans. (rescued by beta-hCG if pregnancy)  
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What are normal Ca levels?   2.2-2.5 mM Ca (10 mg/dL) = TIGHTLY regulated. Too much: nausea/vomiting, kidney stones, bone pain & fracture, dementia. Too little: tetanus, cardiac arrhythmia.  
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What are the 3 distribution fractions of Ca?   1) ionized Ca++ (biologically active, 50%), 2) protein-bound eg Albumin (40%), 3) complexed as salt w/citrate or PO4 or SO4 (10%)  
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***What are the effects of elevated albumin on Ca regulation?   Does not alter bioavailable (ionized) Ca (subtract 0.8 mg/dl from total Ca for each 1 g/dl increase in albumin. opposite for decreased albumin.)  
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how does pH affect ionized Ca amounts?   every 0.1 rise in pH decreases ionized Ca by 5% & vice versa  
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How does the GI tract handle Ca?   Absorbs 500 mg daily but secretes 300 mg daily. 600 mg lost in stool daily.  
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vitamin D as a hormone   cholesterol-derived (seco-steroid b/c broken B ring). Vitamin D activation increases when low Ca -> 1,25 dihydroxy variant = calcitriol, bioactive. -> high serum Ca.  
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Where does most bone turnover/remodeling occur?   Trabecular bone (20% of skeleton, but 75% of bone surface). 20-30% turned over annually. = Cancellous/Spongy bone.  
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When does human bone mass peak?   ~30 years old. periosteal apposition is greater in men (thickened perimeter & stronger bone -> slower loss w/age) . women show accelerated loss @ menopause.  
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What is RANK?   RANK = receptor for RANKL (similar to TNF) secreted -> pro-osteoclast differentiation. Osteoprotegerin (OPG) = RANK ANTAGONIST. M-CSF is also PRO-osteoclast differentiation.  
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What are the precursors of osteoclasts?   Mononuclear precursors from bone marrow. more RANK-L promotes osteoclast differentiation, more OPG inhibits (eventual apoptosis).  
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***What hormone receptors do osteoclasts express?   RANK, calcitonin & estrogen  
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How do osteoclasts digest bone?   release H via V-type pump -> pH 4.5 dissolves CaPO4, also release digestive enzymes. lipids in osteoclast membrane protect it from self-digestion. minute-to-minute changes.  
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What receptors and signaling molecules do osteoblasts use?   Receptors for: calcitropic hormones, estrogen, androgen, IGF1 & TGFbeta, autocrine cytokines. Secrete: M-CSF, RANK-L, & OPG to control osteoclasts (para/juxtacrine) in response to vitamin D!!  
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What is collagen's molecular structure?   mostly Type I -> long protein w/every 3d aa = Gly. 10% Proline (causes kink). Helical. Vitamin C-dpdt post-translational modification (involved in scurvy)  
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What is bone modeling?   Changing size & shape of bone w/negligible change in mass occurring during childhood & adolescence. e.g. flared ends of bones & enlarged cranial vault. Involves bone creation & degradation.  
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What is bone remodeling?   Major activity of adult skeleton. Renews & repairs, requires gravity.  
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How is PTH synthesized & released?   soluble peptide hormone synthesized as pre-prohormone, stored in vesicles. 34 aa amino terminal = active site.  
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How is low serum Ca sensed by parathyroid glands?   GPCR senses low Ca (low signaling -> PTH release -> raises serum Ca)  
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How does PTH work on bone?   1) binds receptor on osteoblasts -> RANK-L released -> osteoclast precursors fuse & activate. 2) stimulates osteoblast collagen production. 3) chronic high PTH can also increase osteoclast activity.  
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What is PTHrP?   PTH related peptide. overproduced in cancer -> humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (low PTH & vitamin D but high PTHrP). not normally a player (except in developmental chondrocyte proliferation & placental/mammary gland Ca transport).  
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What are the systemic effects of calcitonin?   GPCR senses high Ca OR Gastrin signaling -> calcitonin release 1) inhibits osteoclast activity directly, 2) promotes phosphate excretion. Used to treat osteoporosis.  
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how does vitamin D signal?   lipophilic hormone, binds VDR receptor in cytoplasm, deactivated into tri-hydroxy 1,24,25-vitaminD3 (enzyme upregulated when v. high vitamin D).  
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What are the systemic effects of vitamin D?   1) increases osteoblast secretion of RANK-L & osteocalcin2) stimulates calbindin in kidney. 3) promotes Ca & PO absorption in GI tract. Good for treating bone disease secondary to kidney failure, or hypoparathyroidism.  
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How does thyroid hormone alter bone growth?   increases bone resorption & turnover  
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How does CORT alter bone growth?   pharmacologic doses stimulate bone resorption & inhibit bone formation, impair Ca resorption from GI  
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How does E2 alter bone growth?   Inhibits osteoclasts. @ menopause, more bone is absorbed. androgens stimulate  
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What are some common disorders affecting ovarian function?   precocious/delayed puberty, abnormal uterine bleeding, polycystic ovaries, premature ovary failure  
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What is the average age of menarche?   12.5 years  
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What is the normal range of menstrual period invervals?   21-35 days (always 14 days after ovulation)  
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What is the simple pathway for cholesterol generation of steroid hormones?   C27 chol -> C21 pregnane (adrenals, ovary/testes, placenta) -> C21 CORT (adrenals) or -> C19 androgens (adrenals, ov/test) -> C18 estrogens (ov/test, placenta)  
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what are the roles of LH & FSH on granulosa cells?   LH 1) stimulates FSH-R on granulosa cells & 2) increases cAMP in theca & granulosa cells -> ovulation-specific gene expression. FSH in granulosa cells 1) more FSH/LH R's, 2) IGF1 produced (anti-apoptotic), 3) mitosis, 4) increased aromatase activity.  
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What is the role of LH on thecal cells?   LH -> androgen production (precursor for E2 in granulosa cells)  
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When does oocyte number peak?   ~24 weeks of gestation (6 month old embryo)  
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When does oogonia number peak?   ~18 weeks of gestation (just prior to oocyte peak)  
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What hormonal changes cause menstruation?   Degeneration of the corpus luteum -> simultaneously low E2 & P4  
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Which circulating fuels are soluble?   glucose, lactate, free FA's, kentones, aa's.  
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Which circulating fuels are insoluble?   TAG's (chylomicrons or VLDL)  
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Which hormones increase/decrease serum glucose?   RAISES: Glucagon. LOWERS: insulin. Epi, CORT, GH also alter circulating gluc.  
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Why can't muscles release glucose to the bloodstream?   Lack the glucose-6-Phosphatase enzyme that converts glucose to a form that can be transported across the membrane. Muscle breaks down glycogen, but keeps the energy for itself.  
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How are the subunits of insulin linked together?   A and B chains are covalently linked via disulfide bonds. Peptide hormone.  
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How is insulin made?   Pre-proinsulin -> proinsulin -> insulin+C-peptide -> packed into granules  
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How much secreted insulin is cleared via first pass through the liver?   50% . Insulin has a v. short half-life. C-peptide is a better marker of insulin SECRETION.  
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Which tissues primarily increase glucose uptake with insulin signaling?   muscle & adipocytes (also reduces release of free FA's from adipocytes by inhibiting lipolysis). Increases glucose utilization & inhibits FA oxidation.  
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What is the molecular action of insulin signaling?   decreases cAMP-> dephosphorylation-> decreased glycogenolysis, increased glycolysis and glycogenesis. 3-C pyruvate fragments increase malonyl CoA activity -> Lipogenesis (packaged as VLDL by liver). Ketone synthesis is decreased (low FA utilization).  
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What is the molecular structure & synthesis of glucagon?   29 aa peptide hormone cleaved from 180 aa proglucagon protein (that also contains GLP-1). Glucagon v. difficult to measure (unstable)  
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How does glucagon signaling occur?   increases cAMP -> PKA (opposite effects as insulin). Glucagon receptors are ONLY found in liver & adipose tissue (NOT in muscle)  
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What regulates glycogen production/break-down?   PKA (glucagon) activates glycogen phosphorylase kinase -> activates glycogen phosphorylase -> Glycogen break-down. PKA (glucagon) inhibits glycogen synthase. Glucose directly inhibits phosphorylase.  
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Where is the glucagon receptor located?   adipocytes and liver cells (NOT MUSCLE)  
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How does glucagon regulate adipocyte fat break-down?   PKA (glucagon) activates Hormone-Sensitive Lipase (increases TAG breakdown to free FA's & glycerol -> bloodstream).  
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Which hormones modulate the activity of hormone sensitive lipase?   Epi & Glucagon ACTIVATE. Insulin & Adenosine INHIBIT.  
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What signaling pathway causes ketone body production for energy?   Glucagon: inhibits acetyl CoA Carboxylase required to make Malonyl-CoA -> CPT1 released from inhibition -> long chain FA's enter Mt to be broken down to ketones. Insulin: excess Malonyl CoA -> lipogenesis.  
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what is the densest soluble fuel that can circulate in the blood and feed the brain?   Ketone Bodies  
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How is glucose sensed?   There is no direct receptor, changes in glucose metabolism is measured via ATP: ADP ratio. ATP-sensitive K channel SUR1 closes, coupled to a v-gated Ca channel (Kir6.2) that allows granules to release contents.  
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Where is Glut2 expressed?   Beta pancreatic cells, and Liver. Very low affinity but high capacity for glucose uptake. Glucokinase also expressed in these locations.  
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What happens to glucose when it enters a cell?   Rapidly P'ated to trap it in the cell. e.g. Hexokinase 4 ("Glucokinase")  
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What does SUR1 channel stand for?   Sulfonyl Urea channels (affected by antidiabetic drugs targeting that channel)  
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What is contained in insulin secretory vesicles of beta pancreatic cells?   insulin, C-peptide, zinc  
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What transcription factors are upregulated by glucose/insulin in liver cells?   ChREBP (glucose) and SREBP-1c (insulin). Both promote conversion of excess glucose to FA's by increasing appropriate enzyme expression.  
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In which cells does insulin cause GLUT4 translocation to the membrane?   muscle, adipose.  
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*** How do catecholamines affect brain availability of glucose?   alpha/beta adrenergic R -> increased glucagon production. alpha R -> decreased insulin release. Epi/NorEpi released during exercise.  
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What are the 4 types of diabetes?   Type I (autoimmune against beta islet cells), Type II (insulin resistance), Gestational (5% pregnancies, transient but confers risk for Type II), MODY genetic type (abnormal beta cell development/fxn).  
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How does a severe Type 2 diabetic secrete insulin in response to glucose?   Resembles a Type I diabetic (low release)  
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How do GI tract enteroendocrine cells sense nutrients to release hormones?   GPCR's, metabolic cues of ATP:ADP, "Taste-Receptors", ion channels, neural signals. Effector = high intracellular Ca++. Juxta/Para/Endocrine signaling.  
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How is a preprohormone converted to an active hormone?   Pre directs protein to appropriate organelle, then Pre is cleaved -> Pro-hormone -> Proprotein convertases (PC1/3 or 2) cleave -> mature hormone  
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What is a prehormone?   e.g. T4 or cholecalciferol (vitamin D3 precursor): Secreted, then activated ONLY in the target organ.  
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Gastrin   3 forms, promotes acid secretion & calcitonin release, made by G-cells in Antrum, inhibited by low pH  
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CCK   stimulates gallbladder contraction, many forms, made & secreted by I cells in duodenum. prohormone cleaved by PC1/3. Stimulated by fats/proteins.  
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Which 2 digestive hormones share the same receptor?   Gastrin (antral stomach G cells) & CCK (s.i. I cells). CCK-1 receptor prefers CCK. CCK-2 receptor binds more gastrin (higher concentration in that area).  
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PYY   (colon/rectum L cells) Has a tyrosine (Y) @ each end. MAY BE an incretin, increase tissue sensitivity to insulin, & induce satiety. Stimulated by fat, released in 15 min (too soon for direct fat sensors).  
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Which hormones are deactivated by DPPIV   DPPIV cleaves (in blood stream) PYY and GLP-1 -> inactivation  
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Which GI hormones are released in the colon?   PYY and GLP-1  
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Secretin   (S cells) related to glucagon, 27 aa's. stimulated by acid in the duodenum. Stimulates release of biliary water and bicarbonate from pancreas.  
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What condition is associated with secretin deficiency?   Achlorohydria (inability to produce gastric acid).  
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What is the half-life of GI hormones?   V. short. usually less than 10 minutes. Gastrin (?) = 40 minutes.  
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What is the "incretin effect"?   difference in insulin secretion b/tw amount glucose given orally (absorbed) and given IV (injected). Nutrients -> incretins -> increased insulin & C-peptide release.  
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What are inclusion criteria for incretin status?   1) must be released in response to glucose. 2) must reach sufficient physiological levels to increase insulin release @ beta cells.  
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Which hormones are incretins?   GLP-1 and GIP. increase insulin release (only work when glucose is high). NOT secretagogues = cannot generate hypoglycemic state.  
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Which incretin is ineffective in diabetics?   GIP (glucoinsulinotropic peptide)  
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GIP   (K-cells in duodenum/jejunum). PC1 cleaves 42 aa hormone from pro-hormone. First 2 aa's cleaved by DPPIV -> inactivation in blood stream -- 20 min 1/2 life. v. low plasma [ ], max by 15 min. Stimulated x fat, carbs, nutrasweet, rapid gastric emptying.  
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Where are GIP R's located?   brain, GI tract, islet cells, pituitary, heart, adrenal gland & adipose tissue.  
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What happens when GIP receptor is knocked out in mice?   Glucose Intolerance! (GLP-1 receptor k/o also glucose intolerant, but more mild phenotype)  
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GLP-1   30 aa's (PC1/3) from PROGLUCAGON. L cells. stimulated x dietary carbs, nutrasweet, fat, & protein, plasma FA's, rapid gastric emptying. BIPHASIC (peak @ 15 min, prolonged peak @ 1 hr). Degraded by DPPIV (3 min 1/2-life)  
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What is the synthesis difference between glucagon and GLP-1   PC2 cleaves glucagon in alpha cells. PC1/3 cleaves GLP-1 in L cells.  
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What are GLP1-R signaling effects?   1) increased insulin release, 2) decreased liver glucose release, 3) increased beta cell proliferation & mass! 4) satiety, lowers food intake, memory, learning. (Gx -> cAMP _> PKA)  
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What links Gila Monsters to GLP-1?   Exendin 4 (Gila monster salivary GLP-1) cannot be cleaved by DPPIV enzyme -> 30 minute halflife (instead of 3 min). Synthetic version = Exenatide (injected)  
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What is Exenatide?   "Byetta". Adjuvant protein therapy with other anti-diabetic agents. Must be injected. Reduces plasma glucose, causes slight weight loss, improves insulin secretion. BUT nausea, diarrhea, vomiting (altered gut bolus transit time), immune reaction.  
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What is Liraglutide?   GLP mimetic with half-life of 11-15 hours. C16 FA is attached that binds albumin -> increases GLP-1 levels 40x. Injected.  
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What are the DPPIV inhibitors?   Januvia (Sitagliptin), Galvus (Vildagliptin). Improved oral glucose test, prevents diet-induced obesity, more modest fx than GLP-1 mimetics. oral. 8-14 hr half-life, cleared x kidney. only 3x change in GLP-1 levels. cons: UTI's.  
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Where is DPPIV expressed?   membrane-bound to capillaries of kidney & intestine.  
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What is Vildagliptin?   (Galvus) DPPIV antagonist, broken down x liver & excreted x kidneys.  
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What are the major metabolic characteristics of ob/ob & db/db mice?   hyperphagic, increased adiposity, high insulin, hyperglycemic.  
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What is the mutation in the ob vs. db mouse?   ob k/o = no leptin. db k/o = no leptin R.  
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What does leptin do?   DECREASES: body weight, intra-abdominal fat, insulin, food intake. INCREASES: glucose uptake by liver (lowers blood sugar).  
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What cell type does leptin bind to?   Leptin is a hormone released by white adipose tissues. Leptin: 1) inhibits NPY/AgRP/GABA neuron. 2) activates POMC/CART neuron (same ObRb receptor for each)  
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What do NPY/AgRP neurons do?   NPY activates NPY-R (opposite effects to leptin), AgRP inhibits MC4R (leptin effects), GABA inhibits POMC/CART neurons (leptin effects)  
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what is POMC?   large pro-protein that can be cleaved to form alpha MSH (melanocortin) ->binds MC4R -> anorexigenic. stimulated x leptin  
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What do MC4R-expressing neurons do?   DECREASE: food intake, intra-abdominal fat, insulin sensitivity. INCREASE energy expenditure. Constitutive activity. MSH = agonist for MC4R, AgRP = competitive antagonist/inverse agonist (eliminates ALL activity).  
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Which signals alter POMC/CART neuron activity?   AGONIST: Leptin, 5HT. ANTAGONIST: GABA.  
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How is Ghrelin activated?   Synthesized x P/D1 enteroendocrine cells (stomach & duodenum), post-translational modification.  
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What does Ghrelin do?   1) increases GH release. 2) Hunger & feeding (GH-independent). 3) Decreases energy expenditure (measured by O2 use).  
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What is an effective means to decrease ghrelin release?   Gastric Bypass Surgery  
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In which brain regions is the Ghrelin Receptor (GHSR) expressed?   Arcuate nucleus, hippocampus, vTA (reward, ventral tegmental area).  
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Which mutations cause obesity?   ob, db (common in people), MC4R (2.5% of obese individuals have mutation), POMC. Leptin RESISTANCE also occurs.  
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What happens if GHSR mutated?   (Ghrelin Receptor) -> cachexia & low body weight.  
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What is a normal adult BMI?   18.5-24.9 (overweight = 25-29.9)  
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Why is adipocyte fat storage effective?   No water necessary, low-volume, high-density TAG's. (e.g. glycogen needs water = high vol. only 4 cal/g)  
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How much energy is contained in TAG's?   9 kcal/g (most dense fuel available)  
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What happens when excess lipids invade non-adipocyte tissues?   insulin resistance, hepatic steatosis, lipotoxicity of beta cells, maybe also cardiomyocytes.  
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What types of fat are protective against diabetes?   subcutaneous fat (women have more than men), pear-shaped fat deposition.  
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What is required for adipocyte development?   PPAR-gamma nuclear hormone receptor. ligand = free FA derivative.  
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Which drugs are PPAR-gamma agonists?   Actos, Avandia (thiazolidinedione antidiabetic drugs). Adipocytes take up free FA's & spare muscle & liver from steatosis.  
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How do white vs. brown adipocytes differentiate?   White from fibroblasts, brown from primordial muscle cells.  
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Why are brown adipocytes brown?   Lots of mitochondria (contain iron)  
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What stimulates brown adipocyte heat production?   Norepi from central neurons -> beta adrenergic receptor on brown adipocyte -> heat production instead of ATP production (uncoupled mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation)  
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What are some examples of lipodystrophy?   1) PPAR-gamma mutation (familial partial lipodystrophy), 2) Congenital generalized lipodystrophy, 3) Acquired (HIV-associated) -> adipose wasting + lipids stored instead in muscle/liver, insulin resistance, hyperglycemia, low leptin/adiponectin.  
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What is the difference between small and large mature adipocytes?   Small release mostly adiponectin, v. insulin-sensitive. Large adipocytes release mostly leptin.  
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What is the structure of adiponectin?   Protein hormone w/highly coiled collagen-like region + globular domain. Circulates as high MW multimer @ HIGH concentrations. Stimulated by PPAR-gamma.  
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What is the difference in adiponectin between a lean & obese individual?   LEAN: more adiponectin, mostly high MW (also pre-menopausal women). OBESE: less adiponectin, mostly low MW (post-menopausal women + men).  
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How does adiponectin signal?   DECREASES glucose production, intracellular TAG's, hepatic insulin resistance, muscle cell glucose uptake.  
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What happens to adiponectin in diabetics?   1) high in Type I, 2) low in Type II diabetes  
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Why is sleep apnea associated with obesity?   Fat in neck accumulates w/obesity, compresses airways -> difficulty breathing (lose weight in neck & face & liver first)  
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What are good candidate traits for bariatric surgery?   BMI >40 or BMI >35 with health complications  
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What was the problem with jejuno-ileal bypass?   Calcium Oxalate Kidney Stones (Oxalate absorbed in GI b/c fat binds Ca), Migratory Polyarthritis (bacteria), Protein-Calorie Malnutrition, Liver Failure -> High Mortality Rate (from bacterial toxins)  
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Early Bariatric Surgery   Remove vagal input, dissect out antrum, hook up fundus to duodenum/jejunum -> intractible weight loss.  
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Gastric Bypass Surgery   Bring limb of small intestine-> top of stomach, staple off intermediate areas. chemoreceptors in distal ileum sense food sooner -> satiety signaling in brain.  
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Dumping Syndrome after Gastric Bypass   cramps, diarrhea, flushing, tachydardia, diaphoresis (sweating), syncope. sudden water loss in intestines (early: due to hyperosmolar contents in intestines -> sympathetic response). late: hypoglycemia due to HIGH insulin (GLP-1)  
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What is Nesidioblastosis?   Hyperproliferation of pancreatic islets  
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What is Pernicious Anemia after Gastric Bypass?   Intrinsic Factor (Fe) & B12 deficiency  
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What does the glucose tolerance test measure?   OGTT (oral glucose) measures how quickly glucose is cleared from the blood (measured via blood draws)  
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How much glucose does the brain require per hour?   6 g/hour (requires 50-60 mg/dL glucose in the arteries)  
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What conditions alter binding globulin concentrations?   1) liver disease/viral hepatitis (low/high TBG), 2) pregnancy/birth control/E2 (high TBG & SHBG), 3) Obesity (low SHBG), 4) aging (high SHBG), 5) testosterone (low SHBG)  
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What does it mean if someone has normal PTH levels and hypercalcemia?   Hyperparathyroidism  
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What are the "hormone pairs" that should be included when measuring sex steroids? What about TSH?   E2 with FSH. T with LH. TSH with T4.  
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When should hormones be measured in urine instead of plasma?   1) Cushing's (24H CORT). 2) Pheochromocytoma (24H Epi/NorEpi because short burst type secretion)  
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Which hormones are released from the PVN?   CRH, TRH, Somatostatin  
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Which hormones are released from the ARC?   GnRH, GHRH, DA  
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What disease should be tested for if a person has hyperprolactinemia?   Primary hypothyroidism. Measure TSH levels to see if they are high (release from tonic feedback inhibition). TRH stimulates both TSH and PRL.  
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What % of cells in the ant. pit. is made up of each hormone-type?   10% ACTH, 10% FSH/LH, 15% TSH, 25% PRL, 50% GH  
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How are OXT & AVP stored before release?   preprohormone is stored in vesicles. enzymes in vesicles cleave & convert to prohormone + Neurophysins (chaperones).  
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Where are AVP receptors located?   V2 receptors in renal CD. V1 receptors in blood vessel smooth muscle (shunts blood toward core body) require much higher [AVP].  
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Which organs grow the most between infancy and adulthood?   Muscles > Bones > Heart > Skin/liver/kidney > Brain  
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At what bone age are boys vs. girls about to start puberty?   Bone age (relative maturation of epiphyses) = 12 for Boys, 10 for Girls.  
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Which GH action counteracts the Somatomedin Hypothesis?   GH-induced insulin resistance of fat & muscle cells is NOT mediated by IGF-1  
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What are IGFII actions?   Paracrine. Acts through IGFIR & Insulin R -> prenatal growth.  
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What is the first committed step in CORT steroidogenesis?   Cyp11A enzyme acts on cholesterol  
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What happens when there is Persistent ACTH deficiency?   Adrenal atrophy & 2ndary adrenal insufficiency (inability to respond to exogenously applied ACTH)  
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Why is CORT called "Glucose Sparing"?   It frees up FA's & aa's for energy so that glucose can preferably be used by the brain.  
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What is the action of Type I 11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase?   It is expressed in liver & adipose to convert inactive corticosteroids (prednisone/cortisone) into active prednisolone & cortisol.  
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How is NorEpi production by enterochromaffin cells regulated?   Sympathetic Splanchnic signaling -> Tyrosine Hydroxylase activation (1st step in Epi production). CORT activates PNMT (final step converts NE to Epi)  
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What converts iodide to iodine in the thyroid follicle?   Thyroid Peroxidase (TPO; uses H2O2 from NADPH oxidase)  
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What adds iodine to MIT & DIT?   Thyroid Peroxidase TPO  
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What is the subcellular localization of Cyp17?   Endoplasmic Reticulum  
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What is the female counterpart to peritubular myoid in males?   Interstitium.  
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Which structures form from the Wolffian Duct?   Testosterone stimulates development of: Epidydimis, Vas Deferens, Seminal Vesicles, Prostate.  
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What structures form from the embryonic Genital Tubercle?   Glans Penis or Clitoris  
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What structures form from the embryonic Genital Fold?   Penile Shaft or Labia Minora  
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What structures develop from the embryonic Genital Swellings?   Scrotum or Labia Majora  
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What structures develop from the Urogenital Sinus?   Prostate and Bulbourethral Glands or Lower Vagina & Skene's Glands [NOTE: upper vagina comes from mullerian duct!]  
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What organelles are missing from mature sperm?   ribosomes, rER, Golgi, nucleolus  
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Which hormones does aromatase work on?   Testosterone and Androstenedione -> estrogen and estrone. [DHT cannot be converted!]  
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Which enzyme converts testosterone to DHT?   5-alpha-reductase  
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Which enzymes can deactivate testosterone and DHT?   1) 17-beta-HSD-Type2 (works on T better than on DHT), 2) 3-alpha-HSD, 3) Liver Cyp450  
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***How is testosterone carried in circulation?   60-70% w/SHBG (inactive), 40% w/albumin & other proteins (bioactive), 1% free  
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How does LH increase Leydig cell testosterone production?   ACUTE: LH signaling activates StAR. LONG-TERM: LH -> steroidogenic enzyme expression in Leydig Cells.  
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What other hormone binds the LH receptor in the fetus?   hCG in males -> early testosterone production (LH takes over @ end of 1st trimester)  
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What brings about adrenarche?   @ 8 years of age, zona reticularis expands & makes DHEA-S -> pubic hair in boys & girls. Independent of HPG axis.  
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What causes the preovulatory decline in FSH levels?   high levels of Inhibin B and E2 (E2 -> granulosa cells now express LH receptors)  
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What signaling molecule causes vasospasm of spiral arterioles leading to menstruation?   PGF2-alpha  
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How do RANK, OPG, and M-CSF modulate osteoclast differentiation & activity?   RANK: 1) precursor differentiation, 2) precursor fusion & activation, 3) increased activity, 4) anti-apoptosis. OPG: does the exact opposite. M-CSF: only promotes precursor differentiation.  
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How are minerals transported from the site of osteoclast activity to the blood?   Osteocytes carry them in long processes  
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What molecules are stored in bone aside from CaPO4?   Collagen, Acidic Glycoproteins, P-proteins, Osteocalcin, Growth Factors  
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Which factors promote bone degradation during remodeling?   IL1, M-CSF, G-CSF, TNF, TGFalpha, T3, CORT  
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Which factors promote bone formation during remodeling?   BMPs, PDGF, IGF1/2 (autocrine), TGFbeta.  
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What stimulates/inhibits vitamin D production?   PTH, low calcium and low PO4 stimulate. autoinhibition.  
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What are the systemic effects of incretins (GIP & GLP1)?   1) inhibit gastric acid secretion & GI motility, 2) locomotor activity, neurogenesis, satiety, 3) adipocyte glucose uptake & lipogenesis (GIP only)  
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What happens to GIP & insulin levels when a high fat 0 carb diet is consumed?   GIP is stimulated by fat, but insulin is not released b/c GIP is NOT a secretagogue.  
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Which incretin has no effects on Type II Diabetics?   GIP. NO longer a commercial drug target.  
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What cells does GLP-1 signal to?   beta islet cells, muscle, liver, fat, brain (hypothalamus)  
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What happens to ghrelin levels when dieting?   INCREASE  
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