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Question

Answer

__ are a means to break the connection between events or other stimuli and behavior

stimulus control methods (or cue extinction)

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Nerves, ganglia, and receptors are part of the

peripheral nervous system

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Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid play a critical part of ___.

red cell production

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Calories burned calculated from MET value

calories burned = MET value * body weight in kg

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Cholesterol levels should be kept below __ mg/d

200

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total caloric expenditure =

RMR + (RMR * activity factor)

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To convert a 10 repetition-max weightload to a 1-repetition-max estimation, divide the weight by ___.

.75

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Does not factor in the weight of the individual

absolute maximum oxygen uptake

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Factors in the weight of the individual

relative maximum oxygen uptake

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List the cardiovascular health benefits related to cardiorespiratory exercise.

1. Reduced blood pressure, total cholesterol, body fat stores, glucose-stimulated insulin secretion, clinical symptoms of anxiety/depression, and mortality in post myocar infar patients 2. increase HDL cholesterol, aerobic work capacity, heart function

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List the adaptive physiologic responses related to cardiorespiratory exercise.

1 increase lactate threshold, heart vol, resting/max stroke vol, max cardiac output, max oxygen consumption, capillary density (blood flow to active muscles), total blood volume, max ventilation, lung diffusion capacity 2 decrease RHR, mortality, anxiety

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What is the formula for training heart rate?

maximal measured/predicted heart rate * 60 to 90 percent (desired % of max heart rate)

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ACSM recommends an exercise intensity of __ to __ percentage of maximum heart rate, which approximates __ to __ percentage of heart rate reserve and maximum oxygen uptake.

60-90, 50-85

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What is the karvonen formula?

target heart rate = (max HR - resting HR) * intensity + resting HR

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What is the formula for cardiac output max?

HR max * SV max

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What is the formula for oxygen extraction max?

VO2max/cardiac output

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What is the formula for VO2max?

cardiac output max * oxygen extraction max

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Borderline total cholesterol ranges from __ to __ mg/DL

200-240

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Borderline LDL cholesterol ranges from __ to __ mg/DL

130-159

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High total cholesterol is anything greater than __ mg/DL

240

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High LDL cholesterol is anything greater than or equal to __ mg/DL

160

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Low HDL cholesterol is considered anything under __ mg/DL

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Normal systolic blood pressure is less than __ mm/Hg and normal diastolic blood pressure is less than __ mm/Hg.

130, 85

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High-normal systolic blood pressure ranges from __ to __ mm/Hg and high-normal diastolic blood pressure ranges from __ to __ mm/Hg.

130-139, 85-89

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Hypertensive systolic blood pressure is greater than __ mm/Hg and hypertensive diastolic blood pressure is greater than __ mm/Hg.

139, 89

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What is the formula for calculating BMI?

weight in kg/height in m squared

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What is considered a healthy BMI range?

19-24

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What is considered an overweight BMI range?

25-29

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What is considered an obese BMI range?

30-34

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What is considered a seriously obese BMI range?

35+

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What is the essential body fat range for men and women?

2-5%, 10-13%

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What is the athletic body fat range for men and women?

6-13%, 14-20%

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What is the fitness body fat range for men and women?

14-17%, 21-24%

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What is the healthy body fat range for men and women?

18-24%, 25-31%

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What is the obese body fat range for men and women?

25+%, 32+%

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The amount of blood that flows from each ventricle in one minute.

cardiac output

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The amount of oxygen taken from hemoglobin and used in exercising muscle cells (two names).

oxygen extraction or arterio-venous oxygen difference

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The total capacity to consume oxygen at a cellular level.

maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max)

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Represents an individuals maximum aerobic capacity and depends on 1) delivery of oxygen to working muscle by the blood and 2) the ability to extract oxygen from blood at capillaries and use it in mitochondria

maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max)

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What are some uncontrollable factors that affect strength performance?

gender, age, limb length, muscle length, tendon insertion and muscle type

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Using progressive increase in resistance over time, causing targeted muscles to fatigue in 30 to 90 secs, and challenging all major movements to which muscles contribute are the three general guidelines for what?

modifying strength training programs to create overload

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What are the benefits of a flexibility training program?

increase: physical efficiency/performance, blood supply and nutrients to joint structures, neuromuscular coordination decrease: risk of injury, risk of low back pain, stress

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What are the seven factors that influence flexibility?

age, gender, joint structure, muscle tendon attachments, muscle cross-sectional area, body temperature, pregnancy

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Each year the number of Americans who suffer from a heart attack during or after exercise is ___.

75,000

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In men, a waist circumference of greater than ____ inches is considered to be a strong indicator of abdominal obesity.

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If a woman weighs 110 lb, has a VO2 max of 40 mL/kg/min, and is exercising at a steady intensity of 70% of VO2 max for 20 minutes, how many calories are expended during exercise?

140

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What is the estimated number of calories that an individual will burn by taking an additional 15,000 steps per week?

750

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For every minute that goes by without defibrillation, the victim's chance of survival decreases by _____ percent.

7-10

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Unsupported forward flexion, twisting at the waist with turned feet (esp when carrying a load), lifting both legs simultaneously while in prone/supine position, and rapid movements such as twisting, forward flexion, and hyperextending are all what?

movements that clients with lower back pain should avoid

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What are possible side effects that may accompany increased physical activity?

stiffness, minor soreness, muscle pain or fatigue

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What are the four stages of the trainer-client relationship?

1. rapport 2. investigation 3. planning 4. action

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During __ the individual is not intending to change soon (i.e. within six months)

precontemplation

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Individuals who have decided to initiate an effort to change within a months time are in the __ stage.

preparation

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The reinforcement of successive approximations until a desired goal is reached.

shaping

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During the __ stage of change the client weighs the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification.

contemplation

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__ can take many forms, from generating objectives to keeping a log of efforts.

independent practice

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Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm?

supraspinatus

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Which of the following activities relies primarily on anaerobic power: 400 meter sprint, vertical jump, 10-rep max bench press, circuit training?

vertical jump

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Identification of appropriate corrective actions should be included in a comprehensive __.

risk-management review

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A fellow trainer says that a client refuses to obtain physician's clearance even though he has 2 primary CAD risk factors, but has signed a waiver. He asks for advice and identifies the client in general terms without saying his actual name. He has _.

maintained the client's confidentiality

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In the performance of a standing barbell curl, the muscles of the hip, back, and shoulders act as __.

stabilizers

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Family history of heart disease, serum cholesterol > 200mg/dL, and cigarette smoking are all considered __ by ACSM.

positive coronary risk factors

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What is the most important factor for initial exercise adherence?

the client should have social support when beginning a program

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A client who is training for a 10K race complains of stiffness (not pain) in his lower back and asks you for advice. Before making any recommendations, you should first evaluate ___.

muscular balance and flexibility

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Exercising regularly, modifying intensity by monitoring maternal symptoms, and avoiding prolonged exercise in the supine position are the ACOG guidelines for exercise for women in their __ and __ trimester who have been __ for physical activity

second, third, cleared by their physician

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Which of the following is within the scope of practice for an ACE-certified personal trainer: light massage work, PNF stretching, or corrective exercise?

PNF stretching

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Would you need physician clearance to begin exercise with a 35 yr old sedentary female with a blood pressure of 138/80, 27% body fat, resting heart rate of 95 bpm, and a below average fitness level?

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What type of equipment measures maximal muscular force at a constant speed?

isokinetic

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The benefit of having a high level of cardiopulmonary fitness is that the heart spends more time __ in submaximal exercise intensity.

resting (in diastole)

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What are the three biochemical pathways muscle cells use to replenish ATP?

1. aerobic system 2. anaerobic glycolysis 3. creatine phosphate system

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___ are the site of aerobic energy (ATP)

mitochondria

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What are the two substances the body uses to produce

1. fatty acids 2. carbohydrates (glucose)

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Glycogen is stored in the __ and __.

liver, muscles

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A molecule that can be quickly broken apart to help produce ATP.

creatine phosphate

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Resting VO2of 3.5mL/kg/min=

1 MET

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Volleyball has a MET value of __.

3-6

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Step aerobics has a MET value of __.

6-10

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Firefighting activity has a MET value of __.

11-13

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increase in the diameter of blood

vasodilation

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Decrease in the diameter of blood vessels.

vasoconstriction

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In response to aerobic training, the stroke volume during exercise also becomes__; thus, maximum cardiac output is significantly __

greater, greater, increase

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New capillaries are produced in the active skeletal

true

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__ results in a substantial increase in venous return.

muscle pump

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Research has shown that three (3) 10-minute sessions will yield the greater improvements as one (1) 30-minute session if they are done at relative intensity. (T/F)

false (they will yield the same improvements)

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Cool-down until the heart rate is ___ bpm to allow the cardiovascular system to reverse the blood shunt.

108-120

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Warm up for at least __ to __ minutes.

3-5

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Muscle cells found in walls of arteries and intestines used to shunt blood.

smooth muscle cells

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Muscle cells found only in the heart.

cardiac muscle cells

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Muscle cells bound together to form skeletal muscle.

skeletal muscle cells

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Strands of protein running the length of each muscle fiber.

myofibril

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What are the two primary contractile proteins in a myofibril?

actin, myosin

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Repeating units of myofibrils

sarcomere

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Two factors that affect the amount of force generated during muscle contraction

1. Size of the individual fibers contracting 2. Number of muscle fibers that contract simultaneously

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When the fibers of a motor unit are called on to contract, all of the muscle fibers in the unit contract together, and they contract with maximum force.

"all-or-none" principle

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A single motor nerve (from the spinal cord) and all the muscle fibers it stimulates constitute a __.

motor unit

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Increase in the number of muscle fibers in the muscle; evidence is lacking that this can be achieved in humans

hyperplasia

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Sensor of the nervous system used to protect against a muscle generating too much contractile force

golgi tendon organ

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__ raises the threshold of force generation at which the Golgi tendon organ is stimulated.

strength training

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Muscle fatigue (0-30 seconds or until exhaustion) is felt when performing a power event (maximum effort) because the active muscle cells run out of __.

ATP

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Muscle fatigue (40-60 minutes or until exhaustion) is felt during heavy exercise due to__.

lactic acid accumulation

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Muscle fatigue (60-180 minutes or longer) occurs

glycogen (the storage form of glucose)

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__ are fibers in the muscle tissue that protect against too much stretch (much like the __ protects muscles against too much contractile force).

muscle spindles, golgi tendon organ

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An example of shoulder __ is raising your arm/hand above the head as to answer a question or to speak.

flexion

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Gastrocnemius, biceps brachii, triceps brachii, sartorius, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, rectus femoris, gracialis, and semitendinosus are the nine examples of __.

biarticulate muscles (crosses two joints)

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Point on a bone where a muscle is connected

origin

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Point where the muscle crosses a joint

insertion

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Iliocastalis, longissimus, spinalis are the three main muscles of the __ and they aid in __.

erector spinae, trunk extention

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Most injuries occur during the __ contraction of a muscle.

eccentric

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As muscle grows, __ also grow.

tendons

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Slow-twitch fibers are __ in color (aerobic).

red

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Fast-twitch fibers are __ in color (anaerobic).

white

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With aerobic conditioning, muscle fibers __ in capillary density, __ in the number of mitochondria, and experience a __ in size and density of fast twitch fibers (atrophy).

increase, increase, decrease

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The five functions of the __ are: protection for vital organs, support for soft tissue, provide framework of levers to produce motion, produce blood cells, and store calcium and other minerals.

skeletal system

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Pronation occurs in the__ plane, and an example would be rotating the hand and wrist from the elbow to the palm down position (elbow flexed).

transverse

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The trapezius, levator scapulae, rhomboid major & minor are the primary muscle groups for__ of the scapula.

elevation

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When stimulated unilaterally, the iliocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis (erector spinae) cause __ to that same side.

lateral flexion

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The __ extends and horizontally rotates the arm at the shoulder.

posterior deltoid

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The __ is the only muscle of the quadriceps that crosses the hip joint.

rectus femoris

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To stretch the __, stand in a forward lunge position with one knee flexed and foot flat, and the heel of the other leg off the floor.

iliopsoas

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The __ is nicknamed “little lat.”

teres major

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Individuals inhale air that is __% oxygen and exhale air that is __% oxygen.

21, 16

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__ is also referred to as phosphagens.

Creatine phosphate (PCr)

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What are the two ways to make ATP without oxygen?

Creatine Phosphate System (lasts ~10 seconds) and Anaerobic Glycolysis (lasts ~3 minutes)

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What are the two ways to make ATP with oxygen?

Aerobic Glycolysis – 1 glucose yielding 38 ATP (lasts ~3-20 minutes) and Fatty Acid Oxidation – 1 fatty acid yields 100 ATP (lasts ~20 minutes to infinity)

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The simplest way to determine anaerobic threshold is to use the ___.

talk test

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Aerobic training or conditioning will result in __ cardiac output.

increased

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In a healthy individual, during a single bout of cardiovascular exercise, there is an __ in ATP production.

increase

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In a healthy individual, during a single bout of cardiovascular exercise, there is a __ in the amount of peripheral resistance in the vascular system.

decrease

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__ muscle fibers are well-equipped for oxygen delivery.

slow twich

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The muscle’s ability to extract __ from the blood is the limiting factor in exercise performance.

oxygen

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Lactic acid accumulates rapidly when exceeding __.

anaerobic threshold

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Three circumstances where a health screening should be performed:

1. When first meeting with a client 2. Annually 3. Anytime there is a change in the client’s health status (injury or illness).

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An HDL (good) cholesterol level of greater than __ mg/dl is considered good and can result in the reduction of risk factors by one (1). An HDL cholesterol level of less than __ mg/dl increases the risk for heart disease.

60, 40

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The waist girth for women should be less than __ inches.

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The waist-to-hip ratio for men should be less than __ in, and the waist-to-hip ratio for women should be less than __ in.

1, .85

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If a client is on beta-blockers, his/her pulse will remain below __bpm.

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The PAR-Q is a physical activity readiness questionnaire and is designed for use

low-to-moderate

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If an individual answers “Yes” (risk factors) to ___ or more of the questions on the PAR-Q, he/she should be referred to a physician for evaluation prior to fitness evaluation.

one

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The health history form is designed for use with individuals who will engage in __ intensity exercise programs.

moderate-to-high

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If an individual answers “Yes” (risk factors) to __ or more of the questions on the health history form, he/she should be referred to a physician for evaluation prior to fitness evaluation.

two

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Chest pain, loss of consciousness/fainting, dizziness, recent injury, upper epigastric pain, currently on prescribed drugs that inhibit physical activity, chronic infectious disease, pregnancy, and recent disorders exacerbated by exercise are all what?

reasons for deferring a fitness evaluation

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__ is consent when surrounding circumstances exist which would lead a reasonable person to believe that this consent had been given, although no direct, express, or explicit words of agreement had been uttered.

Implied consent

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Do not conduct a fitness evaluation if a client’s heart rate is greater than __ bpm and/or his/her blood pressure is greater than __ mmHg.

110, 160/100

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An individual’s overload should be __% of his/her 1RM (one-repetition-maximum).

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By giving the body small increments of overload with adequate time to recuperate/recover, the __ dictates that the overload factor will increase over time.

Law of Progression

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The alarm phase (neuromuscular-releases hormones), the adapation phase (physiological-attempt to cope), and the competition phase (neuromuscular, physiological, & skill-related) are the three phases of what?

the general adaptation model (how the body adapts to stress)

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Performance of submaximal exercise to promote recovery

active rest/recovery

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Absolute rest to promote recovery

passive rest/recovery

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Fatigue, muscle soreness, apathy, lack of improvement, lack of appetite, insomnia, mood swings, and increased resting pulse rate are all signs/symptoms of what?

overtraining

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__ strength is the maximum amount of weight that can be lifted.

absolute

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__ strength is the strength that can be applied to a task/function.

functional

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__ strength is the amount of strength needed to complete a task/function; however, additional training will not improve performance.

optimal

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__ is the product of Force and Velocity.

power P= F * V

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__ is distance divided by time.

velocity V= D/T

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__ is the total amount of weight lifted and can be calculated by multiplying weight lifted by the number of reps by the number of sets.

volume V = Weight x Reps x Sets

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Hypertrophy/endurance, strength, speed/power are the three phase of ___.

periodization

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The core of the body consists of __ muscles.

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Posture is controlled by the __.

Central Nervous System (CNS

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When conducting a fitness assessment, the tests should be administered in what order?

aerobic/cardiovascular, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility

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No more than __ of the daily intake of fat should saturated.

half

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What are the three micronutrients?

vitamins, minerals, water

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To facilitate weight loss, an individual may consume__ calories less per day and exercise __ more calories more per day.

500, 500

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The only clients who might benefit from nutritional supplements are __ and __.

pregnant women, children

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A __ level of a nutrient is 10x the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA).

megadose

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7% of communication is __; 93% of communication is __.

verbal, non-verbal

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Jim is 42 years old, apparently healthy, and a beginning exerciser. His goal is to lose 20# in 12 months. The best way to improve cardiorespiratory fitness is __.

walking, 3 times per week, for 45 minutes, at 70% VO 2 Max.

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Carrie is 29 years old, apparently healthy, and an experienced exerciser. Her goal is to beat her husband in a 10K race in four months. The best way to improve her cardiovascular fitness is __.

jogging, 3 times per week, for 45 minutes, at 80% VO 2 Max

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Mark is 30 yr old, has a RHR of 80bpm, and his desired intensity is 60-70%. His intensity range will be __ bpm (maximum heart rate) or __ bpm (Heart Rate Reserve or Karvonen). The Karvonen range is higher due to factoring in the resting heart rate.

114-133, 146-157

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Beta-blocking and calcium-channel blocking drugs __ the heart-rate response to exercise.

decrease

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The goal of stretching is to optimize joint __ while maintaining joint __.

mobility, stability

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What are the body's three reflexes?

stretch reflex, inverse stretch reflex (golgi tendon organ), and reciprocal inhibition

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During the stretch reflex, the acting mechanism is __ which prevent movement too far and/or too fast.

muscle spindles

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During the inverse stretch reflex, the acting mechanism is the__ located in the tendons.

golgi tendon organ

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During reciprocal inhibition, the acting mechanism is the __.

opposing (antagonistic) muscle

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__ stretching is movement through a full ROM without holding at an end point and the two types are __ and __.

dynamic, ballistic, controlled dynamic

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When designing an __ workout, the Peer Fitness Trainer must be sure to include a warm-up, stretch, exercise, cool-down, stretch.

aerobic

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The primary body systems utilized in aerobic exercise are the __ and __ systems.

cardiovascular, respiratory

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The Karvonen Formula estimates Heart Rate Reserve at __%.

50-85

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The maximum heart rate formula estimates the target training zone at __%.

60-90

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You should not recommend __ for areas near a fracture , areas recently sprained or strained, joints or muscles that are infected/inflamed/have arthritis, and clients who have osteoporosis (unless cleared by a physician).

stretching

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Equipment should be cleaned with antibacterial disinfectant or 10% solution of bleach and water __.

after each use

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If the exercise bout lasts longer than __, the client should drink a carbohydrate sports drink with sodium content less than 6-7%.

one hour

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If a client has __, he/she should avoid breath-holding or straining during exercise (Valsalva maneuver), refrain from heavy lifting (keep resistance low and repetitions high), and should be instructed to move slowly when getting up from the floor.

hypertension

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If a client has __, he/she should avoid exercising in cold air or water to reduce the risk of vasoconstriction.

peripheral vascular disease (PVD)

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If a client has __, he/she should exercise at the same time each day for better control and give special attention to feet and foot care.

diabetes

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Symptoms of __ include fatigue, headache, trembling, excessive sweating, slurred speech, poor coordination, and elevated blood pressure.

hypoglycemia

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Symptoms of__ include nausea and vomiting, excessive sweating, difficulty breathing, light-headedness, and pain/pressure over the chest, left arm, shoulder, neck, or back.

myocardial infarction

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An __ is a forcible tearing away of the tissue from the body.

avulsion

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The best choice of fat for a person concerned about his/her cholesterol level would be __ oil.

corn

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A client with __ will have pain in and around the knee cap.

patellofemoral syndrome

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A client with __ will have numbness in the middle fingers.

carpal tunnel syndrome

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A client with __ will have pain around the lateral epicondyle.

tennis elbow

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Symptoms of __ include profuse sweating, fatigue, severe headache, vomiting, nausea, light-headedness, decreased coordination, and tachycardia.

heat exhaustion

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Pertaining to the head

cephalic (root=cephalo=head)

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Pertaining to a rib and its cartilage.

costochondral (root=costo=rib/root=chondro=cartilage)

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Inflammation of a muscle.

myocitis (root=myo=muscle)

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Softening of the bone

osteomalacia (root=os/osteo=bone)

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__ is the only fluid tissue in the body and is

blood, formed elements, plasma

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The actual exchange of respiratory gases, such as O2 and CO2, between the lungs and the blood occurs at the __.

bronchioles

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The lungs are paired, cone-shaped organs lying in the thoracic cavity with __ lobes on the right and __ lobes on the left.

3, 2

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Nerves that connect the extremities of the body with their receptors in the CNS.

peripheral nervous system

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__ are specialized nerve cells located throughout the body that carry messages (nerve impulses).

receptors

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__ carry impulses from the

sensory nerve cells

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__ carry impulses away from the CNS to respond to the perceived changes in the body’s internal or external environment.

motor nerve cells

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The human skeletal system consists of __ bones.

206

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Protection of vital organs, support of soft tissue so that erect posture can be maintained, providing framework for levers of the body to attach, producing blood cells, and storing calcium, potassium, sodium and other minerals are the 5 functions of _.

bones

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__ are comprised of an organic component made of collagen (complex protein) and an inorganic component composed of mineral salts (calcium and potassium).

bones

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There are __ cervical, __ thoracic, __ lumbar, __ sacral (fused), and __ coccyx (fused vertebrae.

7, 12, 5, 5, 4

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The type of connective tissue that holds the bones of the

two main characteristics that differentiate the types of joints

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Articular disks made of fibrous cartilage designed to help absorb shock, increase joint stability, aid in joint nutrition, and increase the joint contact area.

menisci (meniscus)

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A __ joint is a joint with only one axis of rotation that can only move in one plane. Also known as __ joints. Examples are the ankle and elbow.

uniplanar, hinge

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A __ joint has two axes of rotation that can move in two planes that are at right angles to one another. The two types are __and ___ joints. Examples are the knee (modified hinge), the joints of hands/fingers/feet/toes (condyloid).

biplanar, modified hinge, condyloid

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A __ joint is a joint with three axes of rotation that can move in three planes. The two types are __ and __ joints. Examples are the hip & shoulder (ball-and-socket), and the thumb (saddle).

multiplanar, ball-and-socket, saddle

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A broad, flat type of tendon that sometimes attaches skeletal muscle to bone. (e.g. wide flat insertion of the rectus abdominus)

aponeurosis

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There are more than __ muscles in the human

600

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What are the three muscle groups that cross the knee joint?

quadriceps femoris, hamstrings, pes anserine group (semintendinosus, sartorius, gracilis)

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The only muscle of the quadriceps femoris group that crosses the hip joint is the __.

rectus femoris

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Most of the muscles that cross the hip joint and act on the

pelvis

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Pronator teres, pronator quadratus, and supinator muscle are muscles that act on the __.

wrist

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Biceps brachii, brachialis, brachioradialis, and triceps brachii are muscles that act at the __.

elbow joint

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Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, deltoid, and rotator cuff muscles are muscles that act at the __.

shoulder joint

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Trapezius, rhomboid major, rhomboid minor, and levator scapula are muscles that act at the __.

scapulothoracic articulation

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The two primary reference points in the body are __ and __.

the joints, segments

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__ are body parts between two joints (ex: upper-arm segment between the shoulder & elbow).

segments

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A force that causes an increase in speed or a change in direction.

motive

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A force that resists the motion of another external force.

resistive

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Overuse and stress injuries can occur in weight- training activities which involve __.

momentum

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More resistance can be created with the same amount of weight by moving the weight __ the working joint.

farther from

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To lessen the resistance as fatigue occurs, move the weight __ the working joint.

closer to

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Most of the body’s muscles are __ muscles which are designed for higher force production than __.

penniform (diagonal fibers), longitudinal (fibers run in same direction as muscle)

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To maintain balance without moving, a person’s __ must fall within the __.

line of gravity, base of support

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Lordosis suggests a possible tightness of the __ and __ muscles and a possible weakness of the __ and __ muscles.

lower back (erectors), hip flexors, abdominals (especially obliques), hip extensors

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Flat-back suggests a possible tightness of the __ and __ muscles and a possible weakness of the __ and __ muscles.

upper abdominals, hip extensors, lower back (erectors), hip flexors

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Sway-back suggests a possible tightness of the __ and __ muscles and a possible weakness of the __ and __ muscles.

upper abdominals, hip flexors, obliques, hip extensors

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Kyposis suggests a possible tightness of the __, __, and __ muscles and a possible weakness of the __ and __ muscles.

internal obliques, shoulder adductors (pec maj/lat dor), intercostals, erector spinae of thoracic spine, scapular adductors (mid/lower trapezius)

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Forward head suggests a possible tightness of the __ and __ muscles and a possible weakness of the __ muscles.

cervical extensors, upper trapezius, neck flexors

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The __ muscles function primarily as thigh stabilizers, especially during movement such as lunges.

adductor

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The __ muscles can be trained by doing squats with the knees held together or by placing a ball between the knees.

adductor

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In a squat the __ forces are the weight of the torso and

motive, resistive

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The best way to avoid a knee injury in squats & lunges is to limit the degree of knee flexion to no more than __ degrees.

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The ___ is a stabilizer that prevents knee dislocation when a squatting position is maintained. It also unlocks the knee by inwardly rotating from the anatomical position.

popliteus

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The gastronomies and soleus both work to elevate the heel; however, the __ works to elevate the heel when the knee is bent.

soleus

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The __ are the first line of defense in high-impact activities with regard to shock absorption.

dorsiflexors

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__ will provide a thorough warm-up & strengthening of the dorsiflexors.

toe-tapping

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Shoulder and upper-arm movements are the

scapulae, glenohumeral joint

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The ___ is called the glenohumeral joint. It

shoulder, glenoid fossa, humerus

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Heart disease, stroke, high blood pressure, diabetes, and osteoporosis are all __.

leading causes of death in the united states

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__ is the primary fuel for light-to moderate-intensity

Fat

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Beta carotine, vitamins c & e, sulfur, selenium are __.

antioxidants

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ACSM defines __ exercise as approximately 45 minutes at 40-60% VO2max.

moderate

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ACSM defines __ exercise as activities of >6 METs and/or an intensity of >60% VO2 max.

vigorous

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To avoid aggravating an existing injury, and to allow for healing to occur, modify a client’s exercise program using a __ strategy.

cross-training

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Optimal blood pressure, with respect to cardiovascular risk, is __. However, a blood pressure reading below __ is considered normal.

120/80, 130/85

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Absolute O2 uptake can be converted to relative O2 uptake by using which formula?

Relative O2uptake = O2uptake (L/min) x 1,000/bodyweight (kg)

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The YMCA uses the __ instead of the __ because it is less expensive, requires little space, is easily transported, and makes it easier to take a heart rate.

bicycle ergometer, treadmill

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Ross Submax Treadmill Test is an easy to use alternative to bicycle ergometer testing. The speed is held constant at a comfortable walk of __, the elevation is increased every __ minutes. The change is __ per stage for men and __ per stage for women.

3.4 mph, 3, 4%, 3%

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The YMCA Submax Step Test is a __minute step test where the aerobic stimulus is controlled by stepping to a standardized cadence. It's easier to administer, cheaper, requires less equipment, and can be used in mass testing situations than __.

3, bicycle ergometer test

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A disadvantage of the __ is that it does not result in an estimation of maximal O2consumption.

YMCA submaximal step test

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The __ is an alternative step test which may be more useful for fit clients. (Though this test results in an estimation of maximal O2 uptake, the standard of error of estimation of +/-16% is still comparable to other submaximal tests)

McArdle Step test

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The __ is routinely used to assess the cardiovascular fitness of those with a low-to-moderate aerobic fitness level. The test involves a timed __ mile walk on a smooth and level surface.

rockport fitness walking test, 1

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__mile jog at a steady pace, and exercise heart rate is measured immediately after the run.

BYU (Brigham Young University) Jog Test, 1

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__ mass is composed of bone, muscle, and organs.

fat-free

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__ is composed of adipose tissue.

fat

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Convert pounds to kilograms by dividing by __. Convert inches to meters by multiplying by __ then dividing by __. (used for body mass index formula_

2.2, 2.54, 100

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What is the body mass index of a client who is 6'2'' and 185 lbs?

84kg/(1.88m)2= 23.8 (BMI)

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The two primary sources of error in measuring girth are __ during repeated measures and __ during the measurement.

inconsistent tape placement, variations in the tension placed on the tape

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What are two muscle-endurance tests that are reliable, easy to administer, and relative to body weight?

push-up, half sit-up test

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The first follow-up tests are usually administered __ weeks following the onset of training.

4-12

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selection of the __ is made on the basis of the client’s functional capacity, interests, time availability, equipment & facilities, and personal goals.

exercise mode

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The result of subtracting the resting heart rate from the maximal heart rate; represents the working heart-rate range between rest and maximal heart rate within which all activity occurs.

heart rate reserve

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In the initial conditioning stage, exercise frequency should begin with __.

every other day

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Avoid exercise with tenderness in a __ (e.g., knee or ankle) that tends to worsen with activity.

joint

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The net caloric cost per mile of walking is __ of that for running.

50%- 60%

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For young and middle-aged adults, the usual improvement in aerobic capacity will be __ over 10-20 weeks of training.

15-20%

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Aerobic capacity may increase up to __ depending on age, initial level of fitness, frequency of training, intensity of training, duration of exercise & training programs, and

45-50%

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Chest discomfort, musculoskeletal pain, dizziness, lightheadedness, malaise are all __.

conditions that warrant a call to a physician

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Research indicates that previously untrained men & women gain about __ pounds of muscle and __% more strength after two months of regular strength exercise.

2-4, 40-60

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The gradual loss of muscle tissue in non-training adults leads to a __% reduction in metabolic rate every decade of life.

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__ states that most of the performance improvement during the initial weeks of strength training is due to more efficient motor unit utilization.

motor learning effect

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The rate of strength gain appears to be greater during the normal years of development: ages __.

10-20

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To spot during a __, the trainer should stand behind the client ready to help him/her to a standing position (arms around upper torso).

squatting exercise

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To spot during a __, the trainer should stand behind the bench ready to grasp the barbell and help lift it back to the standards when needed.

bench or incline press

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Potential effects of __ use include increased blood pressure, decreased levels of HDL, liver enzyme leakage, liver cancer, uterus shrinkage, uncontrolled mood swings, depression, breast shrinkage, testicle atrophy, sterility, and aggression.

anabolic steroid

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__ creates a higher risk of injury and therefore should only be attempted when carefully controlled and supervised by a competent personal trainer.

Negative training

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The most important aspect of __ is maximizing the rate of improvement and minimizing the risk of injury.

training motivation

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A good __ should be well planned and time efficient, results-oriented, functional and usable in relation to your clients’ personal lifestyles, directed toward health and personal wellness

resistance training program

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Resistance training should be done at least __ days per week for a minimum of one set of __ repetitions that are executed to fatigue. Each session should include __ exercises that challenge the major muscle groups.

2, 8-12, 8-10

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Though more frequent training and more sets (or

strength gains, 2, 3

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What are the two ways in which varying the intensity of muscle contraction, or force gradation, occurs?

Varying the intensity of muscle contraction, or

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To recruit fast-twitch fibers and achieve a training effect, the exercise must be __ in intensity.

higher

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Consistent application of force, more total muscle tension/force produced, more muscle fiber activation (ST & FT), less tissue trauma and reduced risk of injury are benefits of __.

controlling the speed of movement during a repetition

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The complete rebuilding of the ATP-CP energy system, which is depleted predominantly through short bursts of maximal effort, takes about __ minutes.

3-5

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Boredom, lack of motivation, lack of results, desire for change in muscle strength/hypertrophy/muscle endurance, and a change of training environment are all valid reasons for __.

changing a resistance training program

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Manipulating frequency, intensity, and volume both up and

break a plateau

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The longest time frame in periodization (6-12 months), designed for the long-term goal.

macrocycle

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The mid-length time frame in periodization (3-4 months), stepped goals on the way to the long-term goal .

mesocycle

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The shortest time frame in periodization (1-4 weeks), short-term goals on the way to a mesocycle stepped goal.

microcycle

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Assessing time availability, identifying types (mode) of activity, matching training to goals, and choosing activities that the client enjoys are processes used to __.

determine how to achieve a periodization goal.

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Overstretched ligaments (ligament laxity), increased risk of incurring injury, hyperflexibility with reduced muscle strength to

potential disadvantages to overtraining for flexibility

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The two most important factors influencing stretching

intensity, duration

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Most stretches should be held for __ seconds and

10-30, 2-3

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Walking costs approximately __ calories/minute, while jogging costs approximately __ calories/minute.

5, 10

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Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR) =

weight in kg *24

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