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Duke PA Newborn and Infant

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Question
Answer
What defines the newborn period   First 28 days of life  
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Term infants are those that are born between __ weeks   38-42  
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What is the post natal period   28th day to end of 1st year  
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To what nursery level do healthy infants go   Level 1  
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What is a level 3 nursery   Regional center for critical infants  
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When is the APGAR score normally done   1 & 5 minutes, 10 minutes in depressed infants  
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Infant conjunctivitis is common or uncommon   Common  
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Most babies will lose __% of their birth wt in first 24 hours   8-10  
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Most babies will regain their birth wt by __   2 weeks  
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Normal vital signs for newborns   HR-120-160, RR-30-60, BP 50-70 systolic; Record & plot Ht, Wt, HC  
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Hematoma contained in skull suture lines   Cephalohematoma  
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Hematoma that crosses skull suture lines   Caput succedaneum  
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When does the anterior fontanelle usually close   4-24 months, average 1 year  
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When does the posterior fontanelle usually close   2-4 months  
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What is the term for premature fusion of the sutures   Craniosynostosis  
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Intermittent strabismus is normal up to __   3-6 months  
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Cloudy cornea from cataracts or glaucoma   Leukocoria  
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Newborns are obligate __ breathers   Nose  
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Hearing is fully developed by __   1 month  
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Macroglossia is associated with __   Trisomy 21, Beckwith-Wiedemann  
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Where is a branchial cleft cyst locate   Anterior to SCM  
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Where is a thyroglossal duct cyst located   Neck midline  
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Where is a cystic hygroma located   Posterior to SCM  
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Name some common neck masses   Branchial cleft cyst, thyroglossal duct cyst, cystic hygroma  
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What does APGAR stand for   Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration  
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What are the five components of the APGAR (not the mnemonic)   Skin color, pulse rate, reflex irritability, muscle tone, breathing  
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APGAR – blue all over gets a score of   0  
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APGAR – blue at extremities body pink gets a score of   1  
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APGAR – no cyanosis gets a score of   2  
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APGAR – absent pulse gets a score of   0  
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APGAR – pulse <100 gets a score of   1  
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APGAR - pulse > 100 gets a score of   2  
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APGAR – no response to stimulation gets a score of   0  
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APGAR – grimace/feeble cry when stimulated gets a score of   1  
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APGAR – sneeze/cough/pulls away when stimulated gets a score of   2  
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APGAR – no muscle tone gets a score of   0  
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APGAR – active movement gets a score of   2  
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APGAR – some flexion gets a score of   1  
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APGAR – no breathing gets a score of   0  
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APGAR – weak or irregular breathing gets a score of   1  
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APGAR – strong breathing gets a score of   2  
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APGAR score of __ are considered critically low   3 and below  
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APGAR scores of __ are considered fairly low   4-6  
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APGAR scores of __ are considered normal   7-10  
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APGAR scores are taken at __ and again at __ in depressed infants   1 and 5 minutes, 10 minutes  
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Umbilical cord should have __ artery to vein ratio   2:1  
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Eye prophylaxis to prevent GC   Erythromycin ointment within 1 hour of birth  
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What is given 1mg IM within 4 hours of birth to prevent hemorrhagic newborn disease   Vitamin K  
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What tests are done on the cord blood   Type, Coombs test, Newborn screening, Hct, glucose  
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Normal newborn HR   120-160  
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Normal newborn RR   30-60  
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Normal newborn BP   50-70 systolic  
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Birth weight decreases by __% in the first 24 hours but is regain by 2 weeks   8-10  
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What are the parts of the evaluation of the newborn in the nursery   Skin, auscultation of heart and lungs, palpate abdomen, HEENT, genitalia, hips, Neurologic (tone, reflexes, symmetry of movements)  
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What are the parts of the initial care of the newborn   Bulb suction oropharynx, support body temp, eye prophylaxis to prevent GC, hep B vaccine, glucose testing, state mandated newborn screen, hearing screen, cord blood eval, vitamin K, position (supine, or R side dependent arm extended)  
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Cloudy cornea from cataracts or glaucoma   Leukocoria  
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Tachypnea in an infant is a rate >__   60  
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What are signs of respiratory distress in an infant   Tachypnea, retractions, grunting  
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Transient tachypnea of the newborn is from retained secretions, and usually resolves in __   24-36 hours  
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Murmurs heard at birth should be considered __ in etiology until proven otherwise   Valvular  
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Congenital heart disease is present in __% of infants   0.8  
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__ due to PACs is not uncommon in the first few days of life   Irregular heart rate  
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Newborn has excessive drooling and choking with attempted feeding, diagnosis made with CXR after placement of nasogastric tube, surgical treatment is required   Tracheo-esophageal fistula  
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Abdominal wall defect to right of umbilicus. Intestines/stomach/bladder/liver are outside the peritoneal cavity   Gastroschisis  
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Liver and stomach covered by peritoneum at the umbilical orifice   Omphalocele  
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Umbilical hernias are found in up to __% of black infants   40  
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Umbilical hernias <__cm usually close by age 5   1.5  
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What are signs that an umbilical hernia needs surgical repair   >1.5 cm at 2 years of age, or signs of incarceration  
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Congenital absence of intramural colonic ganglion cells in rectosigmoid. Inability of bowel complex to relax causes functional bowel obstruction. Presents in 1st 24-48 hours with failure to pass meconium, abdominal distention, and bilious vomiting   Hirschsprung disease; dx requires rectal bx  
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What nursery level will an infant >30 weeks and 1200 gm not requiring ventilation or circulatory support go to   Level 2  
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How is hypoglycemia defined in the infant   <35-40 mg/dL  
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By age 3 hours, glucose should be __mg/dL   50-80  
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What are the symptoms of infant hypoglycemia   Lethargy, poor feeding, irritability, jitteriness, seizures  
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What is the treatment for infant hypoglycemia   IV glucose D10W @ 2ml/kg  
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Four criteria required before discharge of a newborn in 24-36 hours   Feeds and voids well, yellow stools, <10% wt loss, bili levels stable; ensure f/u in 48-72 hrs  
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Neonatal mortality:   from birth to 28th day  
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Perinatal mortality:   20th week of gestation to 7th day after birth  
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LBW   <2500 g; 7% live births & 70% neonatal mortality  
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VLBW   <1500 g  
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Fetal scalp ABG of ____ indicates fetal hypoxic compromise   <7.20  
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Fetal scalp ABG of ____ is borderline & needs repeat test   7.20 - 7.25  
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Soft creamy layer on skin in preterm infants =   vernix caseosa; also often see lanugo in preterm  
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transient blue/black macules on lower back/buttocks in 90% AA, Indian, Asian infants   Mongolian spots  
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Salmon patch =   Nevus simplex: pink macular hemangiomas; neck, eyelids, forehead  
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Portwine stain, aka _______, consider:   aka nevus flammeus; Sturge Weber  
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skin feature in post term infant   peeling skin  
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Neonatal vision   20/200  
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white eye, cat eye:   retinoblastoma  
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Most common congenital anomaly of nose   choanal atresia (stenosis); poss resp distress/apnea at birth  
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micrognathia, cleft palate, airway obstruction   Pierre Robin syndrome  
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Persistence or aggravation of pulmonary vasoconstriction results in:   persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)  
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TTN   Failure to replace pulmonary alveolar fluid completely with air can lead to resp distress; retained secretions; usually resolves in 24-36 hrs  
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Periodic breathing   normal crescendo breathing followed by a brief apneic period  
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Capillary vs cavernous hemangiomas   capillary: raised, red lesions; cav: deep blue masses; Both enlarge after birth & resolve at 1-4 yo; may produce high-output heart failure or plt trapping/ hemorrhage  
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Erythema toxicum:   erythematous, papular-vesicular rash; common in neonates; involves eosinophils in the vesicular fluid  
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Pustular melanosis:   more common in AA; small, dry vesicle on a pigmented brown macular base  
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Bacterial infxn in newborn   sepsis, pneumonia, meningitis, UTIs, omphalitis  
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Perinatal viral infxn:   HSV, hepatitis B, C  
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congenital infxn in newborn   CMV, rubella, varicella, toxoplasmosis, syphilis, TB  
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Observe infants born to GPS-positive moms for:   48 hrs  
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Severe cardiac defects & infection present in:   6 hours  
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