Flash cards for Immunology Test 2
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| Name the 4 ways in which an antibody can nuetralize or eliminate pathogens | Label, lyse, recruit, block
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| Which immunoglobulins do eosinophils bind to | IgG and IgE
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| What is IL-4 used for | maturation of IgE and B cell proliferation
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| TGF-beta is used for what | Immune suppression
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| TNF-alpha is used for what and what is it released by | Brings in nuetrophils and eosinophils and is released by macrophages
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| name the three cells used in ADCC | eosinophils, mmacrophages (monocytes), nuetrophils, and NK's
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| Are killing mechanisms of the macrophages oxygen dependant or independant | dependant
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| Which enzyme in the macrophage killing mechanism is most likely to be deficent | NADPH oxidase
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| Which chemical, released by macrophages, tends to cause tissue damage | hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
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| What are properties of cytotoxic T-cells | CD8+, work with MHC class I's, and has the FAS ligand that attaches to the FAS receptor on target cell
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| Which chemicals to cytotoxic T-cells release in order to punch holes in bacteria | Perforin and TNF
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| CD3 | found on T-cells, used for proliferation
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| CRP | acute phase reactive protien, becomes elevated in reactions
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| CXCR4 | receptor for chemokines
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| CTLA-4 | used to INACTIVATE T-cells
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| Which cell types do Th2 T-cells cause proliferation of | eosinophils and mast cells
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| Th1 releases INF-gamma, what does this do | maturation of macrophages AND inhibits Th2 T-cells AND makes IgG
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| Which two molecules do NK-cells use to destroy labeled cells | NO, granzyme and perforin
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| CD4 and CD25 | found on regulatory T-cells and used for suppression
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| Which chemokine do NK cells release | INF-gamma for the maturation of macrophages
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| A lack of nuetrophils in the body will present as recurrent infections from what type of agent | fungal
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| List 4 of the functions of INF-gamma | T-cell development, NK cell development, MHC class I activation, and Macrophage development
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| List two of the functions of INF-alpha/beta | MHC class I activation and block viral replication
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| Can an allergy be caused by something that someone HASN'T been exposed to yet | NO
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| What is a hapten | small molecules hat on their own CANNOT initiate a immune response, but bind to other cells (sometimes self) to cause a reaction
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| FceR1 is associated with which hypersensitivity reaction | Type 1
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| Which cells are FceR1 found on | basophils, macrophages, and mast cells
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| What needs to happen before a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction can occur | APC takes in antigen, presents to Th2 cell, IL4 and IL13 are relased to cause lots of IgE to be madeThere is also a proliferation of B-cells and roduction of antibodies
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| Besides binding of IgE on mast cells, what else is needed to release histamine | cross-linking
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| Wheal and Flare is associated which hypersenesitivity | Type 1
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| Alergic Rhinitis is only foudn where | NASAL MUCOSA, anywhere else is NOT allergic rhinitis
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| Doe antibiotics have the ability to act as haptens? and what hypersensitivity reaction woudl this cause | YES and Type I
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| Which immunoglobin dominates Type II reactions | IgG (subtype 1 and 3 activate compliment)
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| When are type 2 hypersensitivities seen | blood tranfusions
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| Goodpastures is what type of hyeprsensitivity rxn | type 2
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| Myasthenia gravis is which type of hypersensitivty | type 2
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| Coombs and ELISA are used to diagnose which type of hypersensitivity rxn | type 2
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| Will a single epitope and single antigen be able to form a type 3 hypersensitivity rxn | NO, requires multiples of each one
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| Arthus reaction is what | immune complexes formed OUTSIDE of blood vessels,
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| Serum Sickness is what | immune complexes formed INSIDE blood vessels
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| Hypersensitivity pneumonitis *farmers lung* is which type of hypersensitivity rxn | Type III
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| Raji test is used to diagnose which hypersensitivity | TYpe III
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| What takes place in the sensitization stage of a Type IV | antigen is taken up and presented to the T-cells at the lymph nodes
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| What takes place in the effector stage of a TYpe IV | a second exposure causes a reaction to occur
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| FcyRIII is associated with which hypersensitivity rxn | type 3
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| What are three mechanims used in immunological tolerance | Clonal deletion, clonal anergy, and supression
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| Is natural clonla deletion 100% effective in out bodies | no
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| Which cell type is primarily responsible for suppression | T-regulators
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| Hypoparathyroidism, canditis, and addisons are all associated with which disease | polygrandular syndrome
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| What is polygrandular symndrome, which hypersensitivity rxns are occuring and when is the the first manisfestation | autoimmune reaction against multiple endocrine glands, Types I II and III and first appears in childhood
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| ANA (antinuclear bodies) are associated with... | Lupus
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| What's occuring in insulin -dependant diabetes | Autoantibodies against beta cells in the islets of langerhans
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| Autoantibodies against ACh receptors cause which disease | myasthenia gravis
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| Rhuematoid Factor | antibody that forms against the Fc region of IgG
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| DMARD's, NSAIDS, steroids, and OMT are all used to treat what | Rhuematoid arthritis
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| Warm antibodies are found at what temps and associated with which immunoglobulin | above 37 and IgG(make up about 70% of hemolytic anemia)
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| Cold antibodies are foudn at what temps and associated with which immunoglobulin | below 37 and IgM
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| Which two autoimmune diseases will result in a hypothyroid state | hashimotos and addisons
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| Which autoimmune state will result in a HYPERthyroid state and why | Graves, due to up regulation of TSH receptors
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| Does Ulcerative colitis progress in a 'patchy' progression | No, moves distal to proximal w/o leaving any areas uncovered
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| Which disease has intermittent patchs of inflammation throughout the GI tract | Crohns
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| Giant cell arteritis, Wegners Granulomatosis and HenochS -Schonlein purpura are all examples of which disease type | Vasculitis
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| Blistering disease of skin and mucos, with autoantibody against keratinocytes | Pemphighus Vulgaris
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| Pulmonary Hemorrage, Glomerulonephritis and rxns against basment membranes | Goodpastures
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| Difference between primary and seocndary immunodeficency | primary = genetic/inheritedsecondary = caused by external factors
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| What is the main presentation of X-linked agammaglobulinemia | lack of mature B-cells
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| Most common immune deficency | IgA
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| Low platelets and eczema are indicatie of? | Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
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| ADA and PNP deficnecies can lead to what common disorder | SCID
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| A mutated cytokine receptor gamma chain gene coudl cause which immune deficnecy | SCID
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| Triad of congenital heart disease, hypocalcemia, and low T-cells | Degeorge syndrome
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| Difference between extrinsic and intrinsic defects in intracellualr killing by phagocytic cells | Extrinsic = outside of the cell (receptors, compliment etc...)Intrinsic = intercellular mechanisms liek NADPH oxidase
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| Hereditary angioedema is what | defect in compliment, where too much compiment means too much bradykinin, and too much kinin/plasmin
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| Chronic Granulomatus Disease is.... | Lack of NADPH oxidase, onset around 2, recurrent/persistent infections, usually X-linked
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| B2-integrin defect will cause what disease and by what mechanism | Luekocyte adhesion deficency by not allowing nuetrophils to leave the blood stream
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| 'sis' | growth factor, has a GOF mutation
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| erb B, erb B-2, HER2/neu | Growth factor receptors, have GOF mutations
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| ras and Abl | signal transducers, have GOF mutations
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| myc | transcription factor, have GOF mutations
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| bcl-2 | programmed cell death regulator, GOF mutation
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| Rb1 | controls cell division, LOF mutation
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| BRCA1 and BRCA2 | DNA repair genes, have LOF mutation
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| p53 | cell cuicide gene, have LOF mutation
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| PLACenta-specific 1 (PLAC-1) | Tumor specific antigen (means there is for sure cancer)
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| Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) | - tumor assicated, colon cancer
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| Alpha-fetoprotien | - tumor associated, liver cancer
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| CALLA (CD10) | - tumor associated, leukemia
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| Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) | - timor associated, prostate cancer
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| Tyrosinase | - tumor associated, melanoma
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| Ca-125, HE4 | - tumor associated, ovarian
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| Lack of RBC's, WBC's, and high IgG | Plasma cell myeloma, tumor in bone marrow
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| M-band is associated with | Plasma cell myeloma
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| What is Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia | accumulation of clonal B-cells arrested in differentiation. Most common luekemia in western countries
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| Azathioprine | blocks prolifertion of lymphocyte precursors
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| Mycophenolate mofetil | blocks proliferation by inhibting GUANINE neucleotide sythesis
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| Rapamycin | blocks proliferation of lymphocytes by inhibiting IL-2 signaling
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| Corticosteroids | reduce inflammation by inhibiting macrohage cytokine secretion
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| Anti-CD3 monoclonal antibodies | depletes T-cells
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| Anti IL-2 receptor antibody | INhibits T-cell proliferation
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| CTLA-4 Ig | inhibits T-cell activation by blocking B7 costimulator binding to CD28
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| What are the primary targets in Graft vs Host disease, | GUT, SKIN, LIVER and LUNGS
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| How do cyclosporin and tacrolimus work | block T--cell proliferation by reduction of cytokines
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| What is expressed at low levels on trophoblastic cells | MHC class I's
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| People with Hep C would be given which cytokines in order to stop the infection from spreading | INF - aplha and Beta
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| Difference between active and passive immunization | Active - given part of the virus or other immunological material in order to intiate a responsePassive = preformed antibodies
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| Examples of diseases for which active inmmunization is used | Small pox, HPV, and Polio
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| example of a disease in which preformed antibodes are used | rabies or tetanus
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| What is an Adjuvant | a substance that non-specifically enhances the immune response to an antigen
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| What is the site of respiration in bacteria | cell membrane
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| What is an inclusion body | storage granules and gas vacuoles
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| Lysosomes reside where in the bacteria | cell wall
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| PCN, cephalsporin, and vancomycin all target what in a bacteria | cell wall
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| Do gram positive bacteria have endotoxins? Can they cause shock | no and yes
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| Porins are seen on gram positive or negative | Only on gram negatives
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| What color does the gram positive bacteria stain | purple
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| Give an example of Wall-less bacteria | mycoplasma
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| Give an exmaple of Acid Fast bacteria | mycobacteria
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| Sprial bacteria are gram negative or gram positive | gram negative
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| how quickly can a new generation of baceria be made | every 20min
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| Chemiosmosis is seen as what in bacteria | protons that are ejected out of the cell druing respiration, which then create a enerygy gradient which drives protons back into the cell and generates ATP
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| When the cell needs reducing power, which molecule becomes hydrolyzed | ATP
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| What are facultative anerobes | grow anerobically w/o oxygen and aerobically w/ oxygen
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| Aerotolerant refers to | bacteria that will tolerate oxygen but grow fermentatively
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| Neisseria and pseudomonas | strict aerobes
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| clostirdium | oligate anaerobes
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| E. Coli | facultative anaerobes that require some ammonium salt to grow
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| Strepptococcus | aertolerant and require a complex medium to grow on
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| Which molecule is reponsible for activating NAM and NAG | UDP (uridine diphosphate)
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| Autolysins | break glycosidic bonds of the ppg and peptide cross links
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| Transglycosidases | insert and link monomers into the new ppg
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| Tranpeptidases | reform peptide links
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| Bacteria secrete siderophores for what reason | iron chelating compounds to bring in iron
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| B-lactams (penecillin, cephlasporin, and carbepenems) | stop the transpeptidases from working and thus last binding step cannot occur
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| Vancomycin | bind to peptdes of ppg monomers and block transglycosiases
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| Bacitracin | blocks dephosphorylation of bactoprenol phophates
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| Cycloserine | blocks addtion of dipeptide to UDP-NAM
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| Fosfomycin | prevents NAM from forming
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| Tetracycline and Aminoglycosides | 30s inhibitors
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| Macroludes and chloramphenicol | 502 inhibitors
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| Polymixins | Interact with phopholipids and destory cytoplamsmic membrane
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| Trimethoprim and Sulfonamides | Both are folate antagonsit
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| Rifampin | targets RNA synthesis by binding to RNA polymerase
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| Fluoroquinolones and Metronidazole | target DNA synthesisMetronidazle is for annerbic conditions
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| Which gene transfer method picks up free genes from the environment | transformation
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| which gene transfer method uses a formed pilae to tranfer genetic material | conjugation
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| which gene tranfer method uses viral plasmids to transfer genetic information | transduction
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| B-lactamase and aminoglycoside both under go what process by antibiotic resistant bacteria | degredation
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| Tetracycline undergoes what process caused by resistant bacteria | ejection via an efflux pump
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| Cephlasporin is rejected by resistant bacteria by what mechanism | reduced uptake
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| An overproduction of target receptors by bacteria effects the usefulness of which drug | sulfonamides
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| Macrophages release which two IL's and what do they do | IL-12 and IL-18m which activate NK cells
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| What percentage of the population in industrialized countries is afflicted with allergies | 25-30%
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| Which allergy form is the most common and biggest money maker in pharmacueticals | Type 1
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| In a type one reaction, which IL's are released by the mast cell and what d they cause | IL4 - more IgE IL5 - B-cell gorwthIL6 - inflammatory mediator IL8 and IL9 - LATE stage inflammtory mediators
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| Which has a longer life, mucosal or connective tissue mast cells | connective tissue, also have more histamine
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| What is the major cell type in LATE PHASE type 1 reactions | eosinophils
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| Type 2 anti-Desmoglein 3 reactions are responsible for what disease | Pemphigus
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| Elisa and Coombs test are used to diagnose which hypersensitivity | TYpe 2
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| While a Type 1 (histamine response) will be blanchable, which hypersensitivity rxn will be NON-blanchable | Type 3
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| The immune complexs formed in a Type 3 will cause the aggragation of platelets and release of lysosomal enzymes which have what effect on endothelial cells | Causes them to shrink and/or contractOverall increases vascular permiability
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| endocarditis, malaria, leprosy and SLE can all lead to which hypersensitivity rxn | Type 3
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| granular anti- immunoglobulin immunofluorescence staining is used to diagnose which hypersensitivity | Type 3
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| Mantoux PPD testing is done for which hypersensitivity rxn | type 4
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| May be rapidly fatalIg and complement deposits commonPlasma exchange and corticosteroids - plasma exchange can help ‘dilute’ out the reactive antibodies | Goodpastures
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| Primarily effects facial muscles, mastication, expression muscles, and swallowing | Myashthenia Gravis
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