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clinical Medicine

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Question
Answer
risk factors for developing GDM   Obesity, prior hx of GDM, heavy glycosuria, unexplained stillbirth, prior infant with major malformation, family hx of DM in first degree relative  
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When should at-risk pregnant women be screened for GDM   As soon as feasible and again between 24 and 28 weeks  
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Which women can be omitted from GDM screening   Age <25, normal body wt, no family hx, no hx of abnormal glucose metabolism/poor OB outcome, and not a member of an ethnic or racial group at high risk  
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A young PG pt who is hypertensive & having a seizure is __ until proven otherwise   Preeclamptic  
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Hypertension with proteinuria and or pathologic edema   Preeclampsia  
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Hypertension without proteinuria or pathologic edema during pregnancy   Pregnancy induced hypertension  
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Hypertension with proteinuria and or pathologic edema with convulsions   Eclampsia  
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S/S of preeclampsia   HA, hyperreflexia, visual changes, irritability, epigastric pain, edema of face/hands/abdomen, oliguria  
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HELLP =   Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets  
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Classic presentation of HELLP syndrome   Malaise/fatigue, N/V, HA, RUQ pain, severe elevated BP, 3+ protein/85% of the time  
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Hx of high BP before PG, elevation of BP during the first half of PG, or high BP that lasts for longer than 12 weeks after delivery:   Chronic hypertension  
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normal PG is assoc w/ decreased maternal sensitivity to __ which leads to expansion of the intravascular space   Endogenous vasopressors  
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women who develop preeclampsia do not exhibit normal refractoriness to __ (so normal expansion of the intravascular space does not occur)   Endogenous vasopressors  
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Preeclampsia sxs in addition to HTN & proteinuria   Scotomata, blurred vision, or pain in the epigastrium or RUQ  
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preeclampsia labs =   Elevated Hct, LDH, transaminases, uric acid; low plts  
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Mgmt of preeclampsia: usu maternal interests are best served by:   Immediate delivery  
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Mgmt of pts w/ mild preeclampsia before 37 weeks:   Expectantly with bed rest, twice-weekly antepartum testing, and maternal evaluation  
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severe preeclampsia mandates:   Hospitalization  
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Severe preeclampsia: delivery is indicated if fetal pulmonary is confirmed, evidence of deteriorating maternal or fetal status, or gestational age is:   34 wks or greater  
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In severe preeclampsia between 33 and 35 weeks, consider __ for pulmonary maturity studies   Amniocentesis  
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1st trimester bleed: DDx   implantation; impending SAB; ectopic; cervical polyp/ neoplasia  
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Any bleeding in the first half of an intrauterine pregnancy =   Threatened Ab  
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Threatened Ab =   bleeding, often painless; 25% of PG (1/2 go to SAB); closed os & EGA; need US  
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Rupture of membranes and/or cervix open, pregnancy loss unavoidable =   Inevitable Ab; cervix is dilated, bleeding increasing, cramping  
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Complete Ab: is common when?   Common prior to 12 weeks  
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Incomplete Ab more likely when?   After 12 weeks  
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ROM, fetus passed, but placental tissue retained; cervix open, gestational tissue seen in cervix, uterus <EGA; bleeding can be severe =   Incomplete Ab  
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Retention of a failed IUP for an extended period =   Missed Ab; AKA blighted ovum, anembryonic pregnancy; uterus < EGA, loss of PG sx  
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Missed Ab complication   DIC can occur in 2nd trimester if missed AB >6 weeks  
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Ominous sx of SAB   FHR <100; abnormal yolk sac; large subchorionic hematoma  
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Leading PG COD in 1st trimester:   Ectopic PG  
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Ectopic RF   Tubal surg; infxn/PID; infertility; multiple partners; SMK; douching; age; BTL/bipolar coag  
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Ectopic PG: sites   95% fallopian tube (55% of those are in ampulla); unusual location assoc w/ART  
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Ectopic sx   PG/SAB sx; unilateral adnexal pain; shoulder pain; if rupture: lightheaded, shock; urge to defecate  
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gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN) spectrum   malig: invasive mole, choriocarcinoma; PSTT (placental site trophoblastic tumor); benign: hydatidiform mole (complete/partial molar PG)  
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Painless cervical changes that occur in the second trimester and result in recurrent pregnancy loss =   Cervical insufficiency  
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Cervical insufficiency: congenital factors   short cervix (PTD risk x10 if 22 mm); mullerian or collagen abnml; FH  
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Cervical insufficiency: non-congenital factors   Trauma (cervical lac, LEEP, bx); high relaxin  
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Cervical insufficiency: sx   Vaginal fullness, pressure, spotting/bleed; watery/ mucus/ brown d/c; abd/back pain  
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Extravasation of blood into the myometrium =   Couvelaire uterus  
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Placenta previa sx   painless vaginal bleeding; dx by US; NOT BY PELVIC EXAM  
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Abruptio placenta RF   HTN; trauma; smoking; cocaine; PPROM; chorioamnionitis; rapid decompression of the uterus; thrombophilia  
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Causes of postpartum hemo   uterine rupture/ inversion; birth trauma; retained placenta; uterine atony; DIC; von W dz  
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Uterine inversion is assoc with:   associated with uterine atony, fundal placenta, first baby; not necessarily with cord traction  
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Uterine inversion sx   shock out of proportion to blood loss  
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Uterine atony RF   Chorioamnionitis; over-distended uterus; long labor; oxytocin in labor; MgSO4; genl anesthesia; multiparity; previous postpartum hemorrhage  
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Fetal heart monitoring: need to:   establish baseline (>10 min); check for: decelerations; accelerations; variability  
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fetal heart monitoring: accelerations if pt >32 weeks   15 by 15 (15 bpm over 15 sec)  
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fetal heart monitoring: accelerations if pt <32 weeks   10 by 10 (10 bpm over 10 sec)  
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What is the average volume of amniotic fluid at term   800 mL  
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How is oligohydramnios determined   Identification of the largest pocket of fluid measuring less than 2cmx 2cm or the total of 4 quadrants less than 5 cm  
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Oligohydramnios is associated with:   SGA fetus, renal tract abnormalities (renal agenesis), and urinary tract dysplasia  
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The clinical manifestation of oligohydramnios is a direct result of:   impairment of urine flow ot the amniotic fluid in the late part of the first half of PG or during the second and third trimesters  
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Turner syndrome is assoc w/an average birthweight of approximately __ below average   400g  
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Fetuses with neural tube defects are frequently:   IUGR weighing approximately 250g less than controls  
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Partial or complete detachment of placenta from uterine wall, after 20 weeks gestation =   Abruptio Placenta  
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Placenta previa is __ bleeding   Painless/silent  
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Placenta abruption is __ bleeding   painful  
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What is the most common cause of neonatal sepsis   GBS  
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What is the most commonly identified pathogen responsible for IUGR   CMV  
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What is the most common protozoan, acquired by eating raw meat, that is responsible for IUGR   Toxoplasma gondii  
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Bac infxn are common in PG & often implicated in PTD; not usu assoc w/IUGR; EXCEPT in chronic infx with:   Listeria monocytogenes  
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Clinical picture of an infant born to a mother infected with chronic listeria monocytogenes   Critically ill, encephalitis, pneumonitis, myocarditis, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, and petechiae  
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Early GBS =   1st 6 days of life; 75% of cases; in utero or during birth; RFs: PTL, PROM, PPROM  
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Late GBS =   After 1st week of life; nosocomial or CA  
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BV adverse outcomes   PTD/LBW; intraamniotic or placental infxn (ID & Rx did not improve outcomes); USPSTF: no routine screen; tx sx  
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Most common effects of rubella transmission   Heart, eye, ear; risks are GA dependent  
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Both IUGR and LGA fetuses have increased risk for __   Perinatal morbidity and mortality  
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A pregnancy cannot be described as IUGR unless what is known with certainty   Gestational age  
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Symmetric IUGR =   Infants in which all organs are decreased proportionally  
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Symmetric IUGR infants are more likely to have __   An endogenous defect that results in impairment of early fetal cellular hyperplasia  
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Asymmetric IUGR =   Infants in which all organs are decreased disproportionately (abdominal circumference is affected to a greater degree than head circumference)  
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Asymmetric IUGR infants are more likely caused by __   Intrauterine deprivation that results in redistribution of flow to the brain and heart at the expense of less important organs such as the liver and kidneys  
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An infant with an autosomal __ is more likely to be IUGR   Trisomy  
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Multiple gestation is associated with a __% increased incidence of IUGR fetuses   20-30  
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What is the most common maternal complication causing IUGR   Hypertension  
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Women who stop smoking before __ weeks gestation are not at increased risk for having an IUGR infant   16  
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Measurable effect on birthweight (risk of IUGR) seen with daily PO intake of:   <1500 kcal/d  
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Vascular dz = RFs for IUGR =   Collagen vascular disease, IDDM assoc w/microvasculopathy & preeclampsia  
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Best parameter for early dating of pregnancy on US:   Crown-rump length  
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Most accurate parameters for dating of PG in the second trimester   Biparietal diameter, and HC  
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Most accurate parameter for dating of pregnancy in the third trimester   Head circumference  
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Single most common preventable cause of IUGR in infants in the US   Smoking  
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Data show that IUGR infants appear to catch up in weight in the first __ of life   6 months  
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Taken as a group IUGR infants have more __ than do their AGA peers   Neuro / intellectual deficits; higher SIDS incidence  
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Maternal obesity increases risk of fetal macrosomia by:   3-4 fold  
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Male fetuses are __g heavier on average than female fetuses   150  
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Best single measure to evaluate macrosomia by U/S in diabetic mothers   Abdominal circumference  
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Estimated fetal wt. by __ is not very accurate   Ultrasound  
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Risk factors for GDM   > 25 years, prior GDM/family hx, prior big baby/still birth, BMI greater than or equal to 27, chronic hypertension, glycosuria  
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What is the biggest complication of GDM   Big babies that don't want to come out (macrosomia/ shoulder dystocia)  
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birth traumas associated with macrosomia   Brachial plexus injury, clavicular injury, facial nerve injury  
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RFs for fetal growth restriction   CVD (hypertension), smoking, fetal abnormalities, multifetal gestation, abnormal placentation, poor maternal wt gain or nutrition  
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In second half of PG, increased concentrations of __ combine to produce modest maternal insulin resistance, which is countered by postprandial hyperinsulinemia   Human placental lactogen, free and total cortisol, and prolactin  
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Defined as any degree of glucose intolerance with first recognition during pregnancy   Gestational diabetes  
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Women with GDM have an approximately __% risk of developing type 2 diabetes over the next 10 years   50  
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hormone mainly responsible for insulin resistance and lipolysis =   Human placental lactogen (similar structure to growth hormone: reduces insulin affinity to insulin receptors)  
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Higher maternal glucose => higher fetal glucose => higher levels of insulin => fetal:   Macrosomia, central fat deposition, enlargement of internal  
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Decelerations: new terminology   Periodic: assoc w/contraction; episodic: not assoc w/contraction - 2/2 other cause  
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Decelerations: old terms: Early   periodic, mirrors contraction  
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early deceleration usu 2/2:   head compression; low in pelvis; delivery may be imminent  
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Decelerations: old terms: Late   periodic, decrease in HR that does not return to baseline after contraction  
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late deceleration usu 2/2:   placental insufficiency  
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Decelerations: old terms: Variable   episodic, V- or W-shaped; usually 2/2 cord compression  
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fetal heart monitoring: variability   beat-to-beat variation in HR; 6-25 bpm difference = moderate  
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increase in myometrial contractility resulting in effacement and dilation of the uterine cervix =   Labor  
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the 3 mechanical variables during delivery:   the powers, the passenger, and the passage  
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an external tocodynamometer measures:   Number of contractions in an average 10 minute window, intensity, and duration of contractions  
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What is the most precise method of measuring contractions   Intrauterine pressure monitoring via internal pressure transducers (IUPC)  
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What is classically considered to be adequate labor   3-5 contractions in 10 minutes, however there is no consensus for criteria  
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Macrosomia = an infant over:   4,500 g  
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the lie of the fetus =   The longitudinal axis of the fetus to the uterus  
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station of the fetus =   A measurement of descent through the birth canal  
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External cephalic version is routinely done after __ weeks   36  
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What landmarks designate 0 station for the fetus   Ischial spines  
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Cardinal movements of labor: passage of widest diameter of presenting part to below the plane of the pelvis   Engagement  
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Cardinal movements of labor: downward passage of presenting part through the pelvis   Descent  
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Cardinal movements of labor: passive flexion of fetal head as it descends due to resistance related to body pelvis   Flexion  
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Cardinal movements of labor: rotation of presenting part (usually from transverse to anterior-posterior)   Internal rotation  
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Cardinal movements of labor: brings base of occiput in contact with the inferior margin of the pubic symphysis, head is delivered by extension   Extension  
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Cardinal movements of labor: rotation to the correct anatomic position in relation to the fetal torso   External rotation (restitution)  
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Cardinal movements of labor: delivery of body of fetus   Expulsion  
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the Cardinal movements of labor include:   Engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation (restitution), expulsion  
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What is the first stage of labor   Onset of labor to full dilation  
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What is the second stage of labor   Interval between full dilation (10cm) and delivery  
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What is the third stage of labor   Time from delivery to expulsion of placenta  
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__ is characterized by the slow, abnormal progression of labor   Dystocia of labor  
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What is the leading indication of primary c-section   Dystocia of labor  
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60% of all c-sections in the US are attributable to the diagnosis of __   Dystocia of labor  
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RFs for prolonged labor   Older, medical (DM, HTN, obesity), macrosomia, prolonged ROM/ chorioamnionitis, short maternal stature, high station at complete dilation, occiput posterior position, pelvic abnormalities  
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What is AROM   Artificial rupture of membranes  
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the best tool to predict the likelihood of successful labor induction (resulting in vaginal delivery)   Bishop score (6 or greater = favorable for induction of labor)  
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What is the mechanism by which membrane stripping works to induce labor   Increases prostaglandin release  
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Delivery that requires additional maneuvers following failure of gently downward traction on the fetal head to effect delivery of the shoulders   Shoulder dystocia  
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RFs for shoulder dystocia   Maternal obesity, diabetes, hx of macrosomic infant, current macrosomia, hx of shoulder dystocia  
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Warning signs of shoulder dystocia   Prolonged 2nd stage, recoil of head on perineum (turtle sign), lack of spontaneous restitution  
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Fetal complications of shoulder dystocia   Brachial plexus injury, clavicle/humerus fx, asphyxia  
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What is McRoberts maneuver   Dorsiflexion of hips against the abdomen to ease birth of fetus with shoulder dystocia.  
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What is the most common cause of postterm pregnancy   Error in dating  
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With postterm pregnancy what are the risks to the fetus   Stillbirth, meconium aspiration, intrauterine infection, uteroplacental insufficiency  
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With postterm pregnancy what are the risks to the mother   Increased labor dystocia, perineal injury related to macrosomia, and c-section rate  
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What are the leading causes of preterm deliveries   Preterm labor (PTL) and preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM)  
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Preterm delivery is before __ weeks   37  
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Major determinant of infant mortality in developed countries   Preterm delivery  
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What are the key risk factors for preterm delivery   Smoking, cocaine, AA, maternal age (young and old), social (SES), infxn (GBS, UTI), low-wt mom  
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What is the purpose for prolonging pregnancy when the patient goes into preterm labor   To allow admin of steroids (betamethasone) for fetal lung maturity and maternal transport to a facility with NICU  
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What are the risk factors for PPROM   Intraamniotic infection, prior hx, lower SES/teens, smokers, hx of STD, hx of cervical cerclage, uterine overdistention  
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What do you do if the mother goes in to labor any time after 34 weeks   Proceed with delivery, GBS prophylaxis  
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What do you do if the mother goes into labor between 24-31 weeks   Expectant management, GBS prophylaxis, steroids recommended, tocolysis, antibiotics  
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What do you do if the mother goes in to labor before 24/23 weeks   Pt counseling about poor outcome, expectant management, no steroids, no GBS prophylaxis or Abx  
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What are the different presentations of the fetus?   Vertex, breech, shoulder, compound  
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What are the different lies of the fetus?   transverse, oblique, longitudinal  
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HELPERR =   For shoulder dystocia: call for Help, evaluate for Episiotomy, Legs (McRoberts), suprapubic Pressure, Enter maneuvers (Rubin, Woods), Remove posterior arm, Roll pt  
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Most common cause of secondary amenorrhea   Pregnancy  
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Female with acute abdominal pain (no characteristic acute abdomen pattern)   Ectopic pregnancy  
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Nagel's rule:   LMP + 7 days - 3 mo  
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Pregnant + rash, post-auricular or occipital LAD   Rubella; Give vaccine AFTER delivery  
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Pregnant, HA, visual disturbance   Pre-eclampsia  
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Pregnant < 20 wks gestation w/ vaginal bleeding, abd & pelvic pain. Blood from closed cervical os.   Threatened abortion  
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Pregnant < 20 wks gestation w/ vaginal bleeding, abd & pelvic pain. Tissue at or said to be passed from open cervical os.   Incomplete abortion (complete abortion will have empty uterus, complete passage of fetal tissue, pain resolves after passage of tissue)  
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Pregnant who drinks during pregnancy and inadequate peri-natal care   Fetal alcohol syndrome / low birth weight  
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Postpartum hemorrhage   Uterine Atony. Tx = uterine massage  
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Gravida-para format (G0P0)   G = total PG; P = no. of deliveries; Pabcd: a=term infants, b=premature, c=abortions, d=living kids  
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prenatal visits:   6-8 wk post LMP; q 4 wk to 28 wks, then q 2 wks to 36 wks, then q wk  
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fundal height: 12 wks   uterus palpable above pubic symphysis; FHT noted w/Doppler (nl 120-160 bpm)  
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fundal height: 14-16 wks   midway btw pubic symphysis & umbilicus  
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fundal height: 20 wks   umbilicus; quickening  
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fundal height: 20-38 wks   fundal ht = gest age (+/- 2 cm)  
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fundal height: 38-40 wks   gravid uterus 2-3 cm below xiphoid  
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most common cause of ectopic PG   tubal occlusion 2/2 adhesions  
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di-di twins =   dichorionic (2 placentae) & diamniotic (2 amniotic sacs)  
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risks assoc w/PROM & PPROM   infxn (chorioamnionitis & endometritis); cord prolapse  
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preeclampsia RFs   NULLIPARITY; <20 or >35 yo; multi gestation, DM, HTN  
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types of placental abruption   external (most common, less severe); concealed (blood is retained btw detached placenta & uterus)  
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cervical exam of L&D   dilatation (to 10 cm); effacement (to 100%); station (ischial spines = 0, below is + in cm)  
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APGAR - blue all over =   0  
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APGAR - blue at extremities body pink =   1  
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APGAR - no cyanosis =   2  
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APGAR - absent pulse =   0  
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APGAR - pulse <100 =   1  
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APGAR - pulse > 100 =   2  
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APGAR - no response to stimulation =   0  
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APGAR - grimace/feeble cry when stimulated =   1  
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APGAR - sneeze/cough/pulls away when stimulated =   2  
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APGAR - no muscle tone =   0  
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APGAR - active movement =   2  
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APGAR - some flexion =   1  
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APGAR - no breathing =   0  
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APGAR - weak or irregular breathing =   1  
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APGAR - strong breathing =   2  
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critically low APGAR score:   3 and below  
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fairly low APGAR score:   4-6  
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normal APGAR scores:   7-10  
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endometritis   usu post C-section or mem rupture >24 hr pre delivery; s/s 2-3 days post partum; fever >101F, uterine tenderness  
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immediately after delivery, uterus is at the level of:   umbilicus; involutes in 2 days; descends into pelvic cavity in 2 wks; normal by 6 wks  
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Chadwick sx:   bluish or purplish discoloration of vagina/cervix in PG (2/2 congestion of pelvic vasculature)  
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Hegar sx:   softening of the uterine isthmus in PG; by 6-8 weeks, palpable on bimanual exam  
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Goodell sx:   softening of the cervix in PG  
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