CDC's 5 lvl vol. 1
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| What three categories does training fall into? | initial, recurring, and recertification.
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| Who will administer training for certification? | The CP training manager
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| Who is the focal point for the CP training program? | The CP training manager
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| Who receives initial training? | Controllers without CP console experience within the past two years
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| Which two phases of training must you be certified? | phase 1(console operations) and phase 2, (emergency actions [EA])
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| What is the minimum passing score for all written phase examinations? | 90 critiqued to 100
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| What other training are you entered into at the same time as initial training? | upgrade training (UGT) using the 1C3 CFETP
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| What type of training ensures that controllers remain knowledgeable in all areas pertinent to their unit’s mission? | Recurring training
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| What are the three categories of recurring training? | • Formal training. • Self-study training. • Proficiency training.
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| What training category does the “training meeting” fall under? | Formal training.
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| What does proficiency training evaluation consist of? Certified personnel are administered a semi-annual performance evaluation covering “performance” and “knowledge” based subtasks identified | on the ATP. Performance evaluation scripts contain a minimum of five situations and progressive in nature when possible. Evaluations are not conducted on the console.
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| What is the minimum passing score for monthly written test? | A 90 percent score (critiqued to 100%)
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| How will performance evaluations be rated? | either “satisfactory” (SAT)or “unsatisfactory” (UNSAT)
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| What is the purpose of recertification training? | It is designed to teach controllers with prior CP experience (within the past two years); It is also used to recertify controllers who have not performed CP duties in 60 or more calendar days in their respective command.
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| What three different reasons will you be entered into recertification training? | • Permanent change of station (PCS). • Tour of duty (TDY). • Decertification for cause.
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| Who completes initial or recertification certification training within 90 calendar days from the date entered training? | Active duty, full-time ARC, or traditional reservist (TR) CP controllers
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| Who must interview assigned controllers prior to their certification? | The certifying official
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| Who is authorized to recertify controllers who are absent for 60 days or more, performing command post related duties. | The CP chief
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| How soon must a work center orientation be completed after arrival to your new duty station? | within 60 calendar days
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| What two valuable resources do you have to assist you in your on the job training? | CDCs and the CFETP
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| What contains the fundamental job knowledge required for OJT UGT? | The CDC
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| What is a comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education/training requirements, training support, resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty? | The Career field education and training plan (CFETP)
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| At what skill level can you expect to fill various supervisory and management positions and take courses to obtain added knowledge on management of resources and personnel? | Craftsman (7-skill level)
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| What form is used by supervisors and trainers to maintain a cumulative record of an individual’s training progress? | AF Form 623
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| What type of publications are necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force? | Directive publications
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| What website are publications that are processed by the Air Force Departmental Publishing Office (AFDPO) accessible through? | E-publishing website
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| Which publication provides essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force policy in the field? | Air Force instructions
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| Which publication is separate supporting documents referenced in the basic instruction that provide detailed procedural guidance/steps necessary to accomplish a task/operation? | Checklists
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| What type of publication suggests guidance, which can be modified to fit circumstances? | Nondirective publications
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| When a publication is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new edition is referred to as a? | revision
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| What are two of the most common types of publications you will use in the CP? | checklists and OIs
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| What publication outlines actions to be taken in response to emergencies, abnormal or recurring circumstances, to implement LERTCON actions (i.e., EAMs), or to implement an OPORD or OPLAN requirements? | Checklists
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| How many sets of identical QRCs must be on hand? | A minimum of three complete, identical sets of QRCs
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| What type of checklist is not routine or time sensitive in nature? | Controller basic checklists (CBC)
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| In which checklist would you find the requirement for an emergency lighting test? | Controller shift checklists
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| How are controllers advised of checklist changes? | Controllers are advised of checklist changes by CIF.
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| What type of publication is developed when the situation cannot be completely covered by a QRC? | Operating instructions (OI’s)
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| Who normally appoints a SI monitor to manage the program? | The CP chief
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| How often must the SI be accomplished? | at least semi-annually, not earlier than (NET) 60 days, and not later than (NLT) 30 days prior to a MAJCOM staff assistance visit/functional assistance visit (SAV/FAV).
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| Who must you report all findings during the SI to? | report all findings to the CP management after completion
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| How do you identify the root cause and countermeasures to deficiencies during the SI process? | AF Smart Operations 21 (AFSO21)
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| Where must you keep a current copy of the most recent IG, SAV, and C2R reports (as applicable)? | SI continuity binder
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| Who must train all individuals receiving initial or recertification training? | A certified controller.
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| Who periodically reviews the trainee progress in initial or recertification training and evaluates feedback to ensure training remains effective? | Command post chief or superintendent.
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| Once you have entered initial training, you will also be entered into | upgrade training (UGT).
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| What are the three categories of recurring training? | Formal training, self-study training, and proficiency training.
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| What do training managers use to outline that month’s training requirements based on the annual training plan (ATP)? | Self-study letter.
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| Proficiency training consists of | performance evaluations and scenario training.
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| What months will semiannual performance evaluations be administered to certified personnel? | March and September.
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| Within how many duty days are you retested after failing a monthly written test? | Five.
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| If you receive an “UNSAT” on your performance evaluation, within how many calendar days are you reevaluated for failing an initial performance evaluation? | 10.
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| What training actions are required when controllers have not performed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 or more calendar days? | Receive recertification training.
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| What number of calendar days will controllers be entered into initial or recertification training prior to reporting for duty? | 15.
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| How many calendar days do active duty and air reserve components personnel have to complete initial or recertification training? | 90.
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| What percentage is the minimum passing score for certification tests covering phase 1 (console operations) and phase 2 (emergency actions)? | 90%.
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| Who certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level? | MAJCOM commander.
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| Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect a work center orientation briefing? | 60.
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| Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect an initial training evaluation? | 60.
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| What type of on-the-job training (OJT) does career development courses (CDC) provide? | Job knowledge.
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| Which training plan identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support, resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty? | Career field education and training plan (CFETP).
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| What part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) identifies the most common tasks of an enlisted Air Force specialty (AFS) on which trainees must be trained? | Specialty training standard (STS).
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| What are the categories of Air Force publications? | Directive and nondirective.
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| What type of publications is necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force? | Directive.
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| Which publication provides essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force policy in the field? | Air Force Instructions (AFI).
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| Air Force activities add organization-specific guidance to higher headquarters publications by developing and issuing | supplements.
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| If command post quick reaction checklists (QRC) can prescribe complete actions, an operating instruction (OI) covering that action is | not required.
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| During quick reaction checklist construction, telephone notifications are limited. The maximum number of initial notifications per checklist does not exceed | ten per controller.
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| Shift changeover checklists are developed and maintained to ensure oncoming command post (CP) controllers complete all required actions | prior to assuming duty.
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| What publication contains complete information to accomplish a specific task involved and references all applicable publications and background materials (policy directives, instructions,operator’s manuals, etc.)? | Operating instruction (OI).
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| What program is a formal system that ensures all aspects of administrative, operational, and management programs are being run according to the applicable governing directives? | Self-inspection program.
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| When conducting self-inspections, you must perform major command (MAJCOM)approved self-inspections at least | semi-annually.
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| Define official information. | information owned by, produced by, or subject to control by the US government.
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| Name the two groups of official information. | classified and unclassified
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| What are the three prerequisites in disseminating classified defense information? | need-to-know (NTK), that have been granted a security clearance, and have the proper identification.
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| Who should you ask if you are in doubt as to whether or not someone is eligible for access to classified information? | talk to your supervisor.
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| How are categories of classified items established? | according to their degree of importance.
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| What are the three categories of classified information? | Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential.
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| What is top secret information? | national security information or material that requires the highest degree of protection. Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security.
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| What is secret information? | refers to national security information that requires a substantial degree of protection. Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security.
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| What is confidential information? | refers to national security information or material that requires protection. Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable damage to national security.
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| What are EFTO messages. | Encrypt for transmission only (EFTO); Use this designator on messages to protect unclassified information that doesn’t qualify for security classification but still needs some protection during the transmission process.
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| What are SPECAT messages? | classified messages identified with a special project or subject.
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| NC2-ESI stands for what? | nuclear command and control extremely sensitive information
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| Define controlled unclassified information.official information that does not require security safeguards, but its disclosure may be subject to control for other reasons. Such information includes, | but is not limited to, special orders, Air Force pamphlets (AFPAM), Air Force manuals (AFMAN), and Air Force instructions (AFI).
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| What does FOUO mean? | labeled for official use only (FOUO), and it must be withheld from widespread public distribution.
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| Explain “possible intelligence value.” | Unclassified information that when associated with other unclassified information reveals an insight into (or the specifics of) classified plans, programs, or operations becomes of possible intelligence value.
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| What should you do if you cannot decide whether a piece of unclassified information you are about to reveal is of possible intelligence value? | don’t reveal anything
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