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Biochemistry

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Question
Answer
What are the fat soluble vitamins   A, D, E, K  
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What do fat soluble vitamins depend on for absorption   pancreatic enzymes and ileum  
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Which vitamin is Thiamine   B1  
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Which vitamin is Riboflavin   B2  
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Which vitamin is Niacin   B3  
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Which vitamin is Pantothenic acid   B5  
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Which vitamin is Pyridoxine   B6  
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Which vitamin is Cobalamin   B12  
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What is B1(thiamine) used for   Thiamine Pyrophosphate (TPP)  
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What is TPP used for   Pentose Phosphate Pathway/HMP shunt (transketolase), oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-ketoacids  
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What are examples of alpha keto acids   pyruvate and alpha ketoglutarate  
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What is the clinical sign of wet beri beri   Dilated Cardiomyopathy, edema  
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What is the clinical sign of dry beri beri   polyneuritis, symmetrical muscle wasting (foot drop, wrist drop)  
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Which vitamin def. causes beri beri   B1  
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What vitamin def causes Wernicke-Korsakoff   B1  
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What causes Bitot's spots   Vit. A def (retinal spots)  
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What causes Cheilosis and Corneal vascularization   B2 def.  
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Which vitamin is used in FMN and FAD   B2  
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Which vitamin is made from tryptophan   B3 (niacin)  
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B3 (niacin) requires what other vitamin for its synthesis   B6(pyridoxine)  
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What causes Pellegra   B3 def.  
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What is Pellegra symtoms   3 D's (diarrhea, dementia, Dermatitis)  
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What vitamin is used in to make NAD   B3 (niacin)  
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How many ATP do you get from NADH and FADH2   FADH2- 2 NADH-3  
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What is hartnup dz   decreased tryptophan absorption  
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patient has malignant carcinoid syndrome what vitamin def. are they at risk for and why   B3 because this dz causes increased tryptophan metabolism and tryptophan is used in B3 synthesis  
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What vitamin def. is a/w Isoniazid   B6 is reduced but this also causes B3 reduction since B6 is used to make B3.  
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Which vitamin is used in CoA   B5  
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What vitamin def causes dermatitis, enteritis, alopecia, adrenal insuff.   B5  
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What vitamine causes Convulsions, hyperirritability and peripheral neuropahthy   B6  
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What drugs inhibit B6   Isonizad and Oral Contraceptives  
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What vitamin is used to make Pyridoxal Phosphate   B6  
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What is pyridozal phosphate used for   transamination decarboxylation Rxs ( e.g. ALT and AST)  
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Which vitamin is required for heme synthesis   B6 (pyridoxine)  
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Which vitamin causes Macrocytic/Megaloblastic anemia   B12(cobalamin) and Folic Acid  
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What does B12 do   required in Homocysteine methylation to Methionine and also in Methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl-Coa rx  
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What is wrong if methionine is decreased and methylmalonic acid is increased   B12 def  
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What is the schilling test for   B12 def.  
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What vitamin def is a/w diphyllobathrium latum   B12(cobalamin)  
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what vitamin requires intrinsic factor   B12 (cobalamin)  
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Which vitamin absorption is inhibited due to Crohn's Dz   B12 (cobalamin)  
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Where is intrinsic factor made   gastric parietal glands  
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Where is B12 (cobalamin) absorbed what does it require   absorbed in terminal ileum and requires intrinsic factor  
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what is pernicious anemia   lack of intrinsic factor leading to def of Vitamin B12 causing a megaloblastic/macrocytic anemia  
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What is the most common vit def in the US   folic acid  
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what vitamin def is a/w neurological symptoms (optical, paresthesia)   B12  
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What vitamin is a/w Neural Tube Defects   Folic acid  
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Where does folate come from in diet   Green leafy vegetables  
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Where does b12 come from in diet   meats  
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what is B12 used for in body   methylates homocysteine to methionine for DNA/RNA synthesis  
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What vitamin def is a/e raw egg ingestion and why   Biotin, gets bound by avidin in egg whites  
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what is biotin used for   pryuvate ->OAA; ACetyl CoA->Malonyl Coa; Propionyl Coa-> methylmalonyl CoA (carboxylation Rxs)  
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What dz presents with swollen gums, brusing, anemia, and poor wound healing   scurvy (vit. C def.)  
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what vit is used for proline and lysine hydroxylation   vit. C  
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how does vit. C effect Iron   facilitates absorption by keeping it in Fe2+ (ferrous) state  
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which vitamin is required for dopamine-> NE   Vit. C  
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What vitamin is needed for Beta-hydroxylase, what does this enzyme do   Vit. C, converts dopamine to Norepinephrine  
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What is ergocalcigerol   D2 (form of Vit. D in Milk)  
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What is Cholecalciferol   D3 (form of Vit. D from sun exposure)  
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What vit. excess is a/w sarcoidosis and why   Vit. D, epitheloid macrophages have 1-alpha hydroxylase and these convert Vit. D to active form  
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what is the storage form of Vit D.   25-OH D3  
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what is tocopherol   Vit E  
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What vit def. is a/w erythrocyte fragility   Vit. E  
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What does Vit E do   antioxidant and protects RBCs from hemolysis  
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What is phylloquinone, menaquinone or menadione   Vit. K  
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which coag. factors are vit. K dependent   II, VII, IX, X  
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What drug inhibits Vit. K formation   warfarin (inhibits epoxide)  
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What does Vit. K do   gamma-carboxylates glutamic acid residues on proteins (coag. factors in liver)  
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Which vit are neonates given at birth to prevent hemorrhage   K  
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What mineral def. is a/w delayed wound healing   Zinc  
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pt presents with hypogonadism and decreased pubertal hair what def are you thinking   zinc  
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What does disulfiram do   inhibits acetaldehyde DeHase, used in ETOHism, causes hangover symptoms  
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What does Fomepizole do   inhibits alcohol DeHASE, used in ETOHism  
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what is the limiting reagent in ethanol metabolism (choices   FAD, NAD, Ethanol, ATP)  
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What two products are made from ethanol metabolism   first you get acetaldehyde which then gets converted to acetate  
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what two enzymes are used in ETOH metabolism   alcohol DeHASE and Acetaldehyde DeHASE  
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Where does the alcohol DeHASE rx occur   cytoplasm  
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where does the Acetaldehyde DeHASE rx occur   mitochondria  
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What type of half life kinetics does Alcohol DeHASE follow   zero order kinetics  
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Why does ethanol cause hypoglycemia   ETOH metabolism causes NADH production, this causes pyruvate-> lactate and OAA->malate and thus inhibits gluconeogenesis.  
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What causes fatty liver change (heppatocellular steatosis) in chronic alcoholics   increased NADH production from ETOH metabolism-> less glycolysis and more fatty acid synthesis  
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How can you tell the difference between Kwashiorkor and marasmus   Kwash has edema from protein def. see a child with swollen belly. Marasmus is muscle wasting and loss of fat due to calorie def. diet  
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What are the subunits of of a histone octomer   H2a, H2b, H3 and H4 (all x2)  
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which histone subunit is not in the octomer, where is it?   H1 linker protein between octomers  
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what is a nucleosome   octomer of histone subunits  
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what is difference between heterochromatin and euchromatin (which is condense and which is transcriptionally active)   hetero is condense and inactive, Euch is less condense and active  
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what is the difference btw nucleotides and nucleosides   tides(base+ribose+phosphate) side(base+ribose)  
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which AA's are required for DNA base sythesis   GAG (gylcine, aspartate, glutamine)  
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What bond is used in DNA backbones   3'-5' phosphodiester bonds  
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which DNA bases use double bonds? Triple Bonds?   Double (A  
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What is ribonucleotide reductase   converts ribonucleotides into deoxyribonucleotides  
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Deamination of which nucleotide base makes uracil   Cytosine  
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Which nucleotide bases have double rings   A,G  
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Which nucleotide bases have single rings   C, U, T  
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What are made from IMP precursors   purines  
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Wahat are made from orotate precursors   pyrimidines  
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What is transition vs. transversion   sition is purine for purine or pyrimidine for pryimidine, version is purine for pyrimidine  
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What is the start codon   AUG  
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What does the start codon encode for   Methionine  
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what is missense mutation   changed AA  
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What is nonsense mutation   early stop codon made  
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What is meant by degenerage coding   when 1 amino acid has multiple codons  
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which amino acid is not degenerate   methionine (AUG only)  
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What does DNA polymerase III do   most of the work in DNA replication except gap filling and RNA primer removal  
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What does DNA polymerase I do   Gap filling and RNA primer removal in DNA replication  
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Which DNA polymerases work in DNA replication   I and III  
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What is DNA gyrase   type of topoisomerase in prokaryotics.  
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what drug inhibits DNA gyrase   fluotoquinolones  
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Which direction is DNA synthesized   5' -> 3'  
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Which RNA is the longest? Most abundant? Smallest?   mRNA-longest (Massive), rRNA- abundant (Rampant), tRNA- smallest (tiny)  
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which end is the triphosphate? hydroxsyl group? (in DNA)   triphos is 5' and hydroxsyl is 3'  
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which direction is protein synthesis   N to C  
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Compare Nucleotide excision and base excision repair for DNA   nucleotide is when an endonuclease removes a segment of damaged DNA and then polymerase fills gap. Base excision is when a glycosylase removes a single base only leaving behind the sugar and phosphate, this is followed by endonuclease removal of the remai  
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How does mismatch repair work   uses unmethylated strand to know daughter strand, checks it for mismatches, removes them and fills the gap.  
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what is nonhomolougous end joining   repair mechanism that allows two separated doubled stranded pieces of DNA to be rejoined, even without homology.  
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What are the stop codons   UGA, UAA, UAG  
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What does AUG code for in prokaryotes? Eukaryotes?   Pro formyl-methionine(f-met) Euk methionine  
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What is the difference btw a promoter and enhancer site on DNA   Promoter are where RNA polymerase and other transcription factors bind close to transcription initiation site, usually in form of TATA box or CAAT box. Enhancer are also located on DNA near gene of interest but these increase the level of transcription ra  
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What is a cis and trans acting element   cis is on the DNA so enhancer regions, trans are away from the DNA strand so any transcription factors are examples.  
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How does the lac operon work, which organism is it mainly found in   e.coli, it is a series of genes in a row that encode proteins that metabolize lactose, but the gene requires lactose to bind and inhibit the transcription inhibitor before transcription can start.  
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Which RNA polymerase makes each type of RNA in eukaryotes and prokaryotes   eukaryotes - rRNA I, mRNA II, tRNA III prokaryotes- all polmerases make all 3 kinds of RNA.  
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alpha amanintin inhibits which RNA polymerase   II  
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where is alpha amanintin found   death cap mushrooms  
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T or F, RNA polymerase has proof reading capabilities   false  
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What processing occurs to RNA after its formed in eukaryotes   5' G Cap and 3' Poly "A" tail and intron splicing  
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what is heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)   RNA before it is processed by nucleus (before tail and cap)  
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What is the significance of AAUAAA   part of 3' end that signals for poly "A" tail to be placed on that end of RNA  
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what enzyme adds the poly "A" tail to RNA   poly-A polymerase  
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What proteins are used to splice out an intron   snRNPs form a spliceosome  
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How are tRNA's charged with A.A.'s   use the enzyme aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase which requires ATP and verifies correct A.A.  
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What happens if tRNA is charged with wrong A.A.   anticodon will still bind proper spot leading to misplaced A.A. (missense mutation)  
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How many aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases are there per A.A.   just 1  
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What is meant by tRNA wobble   only first two nucleotides in codon need to match to get the right A.A.  
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which ribosome subunits are found in eukaryotes   80S (60S + 40S)  
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Which ribosome subunits are found in prokaryotes   70S (50S + 30S)  
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How is protein synthesis initiated   GTP is used along with eLFs (initiation factors) to assemble the 40S ribosome. The 40S subunit has initiator tRNA already bound (methionine in P site), which when mRNA binds gets removed.  
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Which ribosomal site (E,P,A) does methionine get bound initially in translation   P site  
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what enzyme cataylzes the peptide bond formation in translations   peptidyltransferase  
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What happens in the ribosome A site   where new tRNA binds mRNA codon  
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What happens in the ribosome P site   where growing polypeptide is kept  
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What happens in the ribosome E site   where the empty tRNA gets relased.  
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What role does GTP play in translation   causes translocation from A->P->E sites  
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how many ATPs are needed to charge the tRNA   2  
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how many ATPs/GTPs are needed for translation of 2 codons   4 (2 ATP for charging tRNA, 1 GTP for initiation, 1 GTP for translocation)  
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What happens in S phase and G phase of cell cycle   S is synthesis and G is growth or gap  
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What is the amount of DNA (ploidy) of each cell cycle phase (G1, G2, S, Mitosis)   G1 2N, S 3N, G2 and mitosis 4N  
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what cell cycle stages comprise interphase   G1, S, G2  
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What controls the cell cycle   proteins called CDKs and cyclins.  
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How do CDKs and cyclins work   cyclin are activated during certain phases of cell cycle, they bind and activate always present CDKs for their kinase activity.  
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which CDKs and Cyclins are present during which cell cycle phases (g1, S, G2, M)   G1-cyc D, CDK2, 4, 6 S- cyc E, A CDK 2 G2- cyc A, E CDK 2 M- cyc B CDK1  
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what are permanent cells and examples   always stay in G0, regenerate from stem cells (neurons, skeletal and cardiac muscle cells, RBCs)  
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what are stable (quiescent) cells, and examples   enter G1 from G0 when stimulated (hepatocytes and lymphocytes)  
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what are labile cells and examples   never go to G0, divide rapidly with a short G1 (bone marrow, gut epithelium, skin, hair)  
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What is a nissl body, where can they be found, what do they make   RER found in neurons and make NTs and enzymes(ChAT)  
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What happens at the smooth ER   steroid synthesis and detox of drugs and poisons.  
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What role does mannose-6-phosphate play in the golgi   when added to proteins it targets it for the lysosome  
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which A.A. does the golgi add O-oligiosaccharides to   serine and threonine residues in proteins  
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which A.A. does the golgi modify N-oligiosaccharides   asparagine  
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what is I-cell dz   inability to put mannose-6-phosphate onto lysosomal enzymes in golgi, leading to those enzymes to extracellular space.  
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Pt presents with coarse facial features, clouded corneas, restricted joint movement and high plasma levels of lysosomal enzymes, what do they have   I-cell dz or mucolipidosis II.  
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What is COP I and COP II   proteins put on trafficking vesicles. I causes retrograde transport from cis-Golgi to RER, II causes transfer from RER to cis-Golgi  
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What is the order of the parts of the golgi apparatus (layers)   Cis Golgi Network (closest to RER), cis, medial, trans, Trans golgi network (closest to cell membrane)  
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When clathrin is added to vesicles in the cell where does it transport them to   trans-Golgi -> lysosomes or plasma membrane -> endosomes (receptor mediated endocytosis)  
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What are the subunits of microtubules   alpha and beta tubulin dimers  
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each dimer of a microtubule has 2 __?__ attached to it?   GTP  
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where are microtubules used   mitotic spindles, cilia, flagella, slow axoplasmic transport in neurons.  
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Describe the structure of cilia   9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules. Use Dynein and Kinesin for movement  
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What is Dynein   causes sliding of microtubules in cilia and flagella towards the negative end of the microtubule.(is actually an ATPase)  
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What is Kinesin   causes sliding of microtubules in cilia and flagella towards the positive end of the microtubule  
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What is Kartagener's Syndrome   immotile cilia due to dynein arm defect. Causes infertility (immotile sperm), bronchiectasis and recurrent sinusitis (can't get bacteria out of system).  
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What syndrome is a/w situs inversus   kartagener's syndrome  
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what molecules are responsible for cytokinesis   actin/myosin  
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what molecules are responsible for microvilli formation   actin/myosin  
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how does a long saturated fatty acid content of the cell membrane effect membrane fluidity   decreases it  
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what is dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine (DPPC)   surfactant  
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If we stain for desmin what does it show us   muscle  
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if we stain for vimentin what does it show us   connective tissue  
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if we stain for cytokeratin what does it show us   epithelial cells  
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if we stain for GFAP(glial fibrillary acid proteins) what does it show us   neuroglia  
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How much Na and K are exchanged with Na/K pump   3 Na+ out 2 K+ in  
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what drug inhibits Na/K exchanger   Ouabain (binds to K+ site), Glycosides (digoxin, digitoxin)  
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What are the effects of Cardiac Glycosides   inhibit Na/K pump which increases cardiac contractility  
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What is the most abundant protein in the human body   Collagen  
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WHich type of collagen makes up 90% of all collagen   I  
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Where do we find type I, II, III and IV collagen   I-bone, tendons, skin, cornea; II- Cartilage (hyaline), nucleus pulposus, vitreous body; III- skin, blood vessels, uterus, fetal and granulation tissue; IV- Basement membranes  
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What are the steps in collagen formation   translate mRNA to make alpha chains of preprocollagen -> hydroxylation of proline and lysine - glycosylation of alpha chain which makes procollagen (triple helix)-> exocytosis of procollagen leaves fibroblast-> terminal ends cleaved which makes tropocolla  
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what does hydroxylation of proline and lysine require   vit C  
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What type of collagen is mostly effected with ehlers-danlos   III  
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pt presents with hyperextensible skin, bleeding tendency (easy bruising), and hypermoble joints, what does he have   Ehlor-Danlos syndrome  
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Elher's Danlos is a/w what secondary complication   berry aneurysms  
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Patient presents with blue sclerae, what is this, what causes it   osteogenesis imperfectacauses abnormal type I collagen-> translucent CT over chroid  
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Pt presents with multiple fractures, blue sclerae, hearing loss and dental imperfections what do they have   osteogenesis imperfecta  
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Why do Osteogenesis Imperfecta cause hearing loss   abnormal middle ear bone  
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What enzyme inhibits elastase   Alpha 1 antitrypsin  
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What A.A. are rich in elastin   proline and glycine  
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What holds elastin in a scaffolding   fibrillin  
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Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficieny cause what dz   emphysema  
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Where does fatty acid oxidation take place(part of cell)   mitochondria  
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Where does acetyl CoA production take place(part of cell)   mitochondria  
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Where does the Krebs cycle take place(part of cell)   mitochondria  
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Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place(part of cell)   mitochondria  
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Where does glycolysis take place (part of cell)   cytoplasm  
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Where does fatty acid synthesis take place (part of cell)   cytoplasm  
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Where does Pentose pathway take place (part of cell)   cytoplasm  
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Where does steroid synthesis take place (part of cell)   SER/Cytoplasm  
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Where does Heme synthesis take place (part of cell)   mitochondria and cytoplasm  
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Where does the Urea cycle take place (part of cell)   mitochondria and cytoplasm  
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Where does gluconeogenesis take place (part of cell)   mitochondria and cytoplasm  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in de novo pyrimidine synthesis   Aspartate transcarbamylase (ATCase)  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in de novo purine synthesis   Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in glycolysis   Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in Gluconeogenesis   fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (FBP-1)  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in TCA cycle   isocitrate dehydrogenase  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in glycogen synthesis   glycogen synthase  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in glycogenolysis   glycogen phosphorylase  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in the HMP shunt   glucose-6-phosphate deHASE (G6PD)  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in Fatty acid synthesis   acetyl CoA carboxylase (ACC)  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in Fatty acid oxidation   Carnitine acyltransferase I  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in Ketogenesis   MHG-COA synthase  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in Cholesterol syntheis   HMG-CoA reductase  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme Heme synthesis   ALA synthase  
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What is the rate limiting enzyme in the urea cycle   carbamoly phosphase synthase I  
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during dieting where does glucose come from   80% glycerol from triglyceride/fat break down  
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during starvation where does glucose come from   80% A.A. degradation  
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How many ATP are made per glucose during anaerobic glycolysis   2  
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What sugar makes up ATP   ribose  
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How many ATP are produced via malate-aspartate shuttle in aerobic metabolism   32  
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How many ATP are produced via glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle during aerobic metabolism   30  
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which cell types do we find the malate-aspartate shuttle   heart and liver  
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which cell types do we find the glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle   muscle  
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What molecule does biotin transport/carry   CO2  
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What molecule carries 1-carbon units   tetrahydrofolates  
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What does SAM do   carries CH3 groups  
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What does TPP do   carries aldehydes  
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how is SAM made   ATP + methionine  
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regeneration of methionine and SAM are dependent on?   vit. B12 and folate  
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what drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase   methotrexate  
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what does dihydrofolate reductase do   converts dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate  
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what are the universal electron acceptors   NAD+, NADP+, FAD+  
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what makes NADPH   Pentose phosphate pathway  
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what processes use NADPH   Anabolic (steroid/fatty acid synthesis), respiratory burst, and p-450  
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what type of processes use NAD+   catabolic  
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what are the steps of o2 dep. respiratory burst   O2 -> O2 radical->H2O2->HOCl radical-> destroy bacteria  
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what is used to convert O2 to O2 radical in the respiratory burst(oxidative)   NADPH/ NADPH oxidase  
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what dz has a def. of NADPH oxidase   chronic granulomatous dz  
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what dz gives a negative nitroblue-tetrazolium test   Chronic granulomatous dz  
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what unique organisms are a/w chronic granulomatous dz   serrtia, aspergillus  
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what happens to extra H2O2 from oxidative burst   gets reduced to water by catalase/glutathione peroxidase using glutathione  
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what enzyme catylzes O2 radical to H2O2   superoxide dismutase  
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what enzyme catylzes H2O2 to HOCL radical   myeloperoxidase  
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what is HOCl radical A.K.A?   bleach  
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where is hexokinase found compared to glucokinase   hexo-everywhere but the liver, gluco- liver and beta cells of pancreas  
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compare the Km and Vmax for hexokinase and glucokinase   hexo- low Km and low Vmax (binds a lot but works slowly) gluco- high Km and high Vmax (binds little but works fast)  
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what does hexokinase and glucokinase do   makes glucose6-phosphate from glucose  
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what is the purpose of hexokinase and glucokinase   hexo- keeps glucose in cell for glycolysis, gluco- sequesters extra glucose in liver after meals.  
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which enzyme is induced by insulin (hexokinase or glucokinase)? Uninduced?   hexo-uninduced, gluco-induced  
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What are the net products of glycolysis   2 pyruvate + 2 ATP + 2 NADH + 2[H+] + 2[H2O]  
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which two steps of glycolysis require ATP   hexo/glucokinase and PFK-1  
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what reaction does PFK-1 catylze   Fructose 6-P to fructose 1,6 bisPhosphate  
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which of the follow inhibits PFK-1? Stimulates? (ATP, AMP, citrate, Fructose-2,6BP, alanine, NADH, Acetyl CoA)   inhibits- ATP, citrate stimulates-AMP, fructose-2,6BP (everything else has no effect)  
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Which steps of glycolysis produce ATP   Phopshoglycerate Kinase and pyruvate kinase  
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what does phosphoglycerate kinase do   catylzes 1,3-BPG to 3-PG (phosphoglycerate)  
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what does pyruvate kinase do   converts phosphoenolpyruvate(PEP) to pyruvate  
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what enzyme converts pyruvate to acetyle CoA   pyruvate deHASE  
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what inhibits pyruvate kinase   ATP and Alanine  
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what stimulates pyruvate kinase   fructose 1,6-BP  
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what inhibits pyruvate deHASE   ATP, NADH, and acetyl-CoA  
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what type of enzyme is required to reverse the ATP steps of glycolysis during gluconeogenesis   phosphatases  
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what is the most common glycolytic enzyme def.   pyruvate kinase  
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what is the consequence of having a glycolytic enzyme def.   hemolytic anemia from decreased Na/K pump activity causing lysis of RBCs.  
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Why are RBCs most vulnerable to glycolytic problems   no mitochondria and therefore can only use glycolysis.  
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what is PFK-2   enzyme that makes fructose 2,6 bisphosphate from fructose 6-phosphate. This enzyme is active in fed states but in fasting states it acts in reverse as a phophatase and helps with gluconeogenesis.  
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what are the 5 required cofactors of pyruvate deHASE   the first four B vitamins(B1-TPP, B2-FAD, B3-NAD, B5-CoA) and lipoic acid  
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what is the reaction of pyruvate deHASE   pyruvate + [NAD+] + CoA-> acetyle CoA + NADH + Co2  
🗑
what stimulates pyruvate deHASE   exercise (causes increased ADP , Ca2+, and NAD/NADH ratio)  
🗑
what inhibits lipoic acid   arsenic  
🗑
pt presents with vomiting, rice water stools and garlic breath, what might be the source of their poisoning   arsenic  
🗑
what other enzyme complex is similar to pyrivate deHASE   alpha-ketoglutarate  
🗑
What typically causes pyruvate deHASE def.   congenital or ETOH->B1 def.  
🗑
what are the only purely ketogenic amino acids   lysine and leucine  
🗑
what is the result of pyruvate deHASE def.   backup of substrate(pyruvate/alanine) leading to lactic acidosis  
🗑
Where does alanine act as a substrate in glucose metabolism   can be a substrate for pyruvate deHASE  
🗑
where does alanine come from when its used as a substrate for metabolism   muscle-> liver  
🗑
what enzyme catylzes pyruvate to OAA   pyruvate carboxylase  
🗑
what converts pyruvate to lactate   lactate deHASE  
🗑
what is required to convert pyruvate to lactate   NADH (which occurs with ETOHism)  
🗑
what is the cori cycle   allows lactate to made during anaerobic metabolism to undergo liver gluconeogenesis to supply muscles/RBCs  
🗑
how does the cori cycle work   lactate from muscle enters liver, lactate deHASE converts it to pyruvate which can enter gluconeogenesis to make glucose that goes back to muscles/RBCs and makes more lactate.  
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How much ATP is required for the Cori cycle   4 ATP (net loss)  
🗑
what cofactors does alpha ketoglutarate require for its reaction   B1, B2, B3, B5 and lipoic acid.  
🗑
what are the products of the Kreb cycle   Acetyl-Coa-> Citrate-> Isocitrate-> alpha-ketoglutarate-> succinyl CoA-> succinate-> fumerate-> malate-> OAA  
🗑
what are the end products of the Kreb Cycle   3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2 Co2, 1 GTP  
🗑
Which step in Krebs makes GTP   succinyl-CoA-> succninate  
🗑
which step in Krebs makes NADH   isocitrate deHASE alpha-KG deHASE, malate deHASE  
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which step in Krebs makes FADH2   succinate to Fumarate  
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what is complex II in the electron transport chain   succinate deHASE  
🗑
where is the proton gradient formed in Electron Transport Chain   cytoplasm side of inner mitochondrial membrane  
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What carries electrons from complex I and II to complex III in the electron transport chain   Coenzyme Q  
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what is complex III in the electron transport chain   cytochrome b/c  
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what happens at complex IV in the electron transport chain   o2 is reduced to water  
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how many ATPs are made from NADH? FADH2?   NADH-3ATP FADH2- 2ATP  
🗑
what molecules inhibit complex I, IV, and ATPase   I-rotenone and barbituates, II-CO, CN-, azide ATPase- oligiomycin  
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What does 2,4-Dinitrophenol do to the electron transport chain   decouples it, making inner membrane permeable to H+ causing gradient to decrease, no ATP made but electron chain still works and O2 consumption increases.  
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What effect does aspirin have on the electron transport chain   decouples it, making inner membrane permeable to H+ causing gradient to decrease, no ATP made but electron chain still works and O2 consumption increases.  
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What is complex V in the electron transport chain   ATPase  
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what is thermogenin   a decoupler of the electron transport chain, destroying the proton gradient but not stopping the chain. This only works in brown fat.  
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At what point does glycolysis/Kreb Cycle enters the mitochondria, How?   pyruvate, but also OAA gets made into malate that uses malate shuttle and is converted back to OAA  
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which steps of gluconeogenesis require separate enzymes from glycolysis   pyruvate carboxylase (pyruvate -->OAA), PEP carboxykinase (OAA-->PEP), Fructose 1,6-Bisphosphatase (Fruct1,6BP-->Fruct 6-P), Glucose 6-Phosphatase (Glucose6P--> glucose)  
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which gluconeogenesis enzyme require GTP   PEP carboxykinase  
🗑
what does pyruvate carboxylase require to run reaction   biotin, ATP and pyruvate  
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where are the gluconeogenesis enzymes found (which cell types)   liver, kidney, intestinal epithelium  
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T or F, muscle can participate in gluconeogenesis?   F  
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T or F, def. of gluconeogenesis causes hypogylcemia   T  
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T or F, even chained Fatty acids can metabolize and enter gluconeogenesis? Odd chained?   Only odd, it forms propionyl-CoA where as even chains make only acetyl-CoA which can't participate in gluconeogenesis  
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What is the purpose of the pentose phosphate pathway   makes NADPH (used in F.A. sythesis and glutathione reducation in RBCs)  
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T or F, the pentose phosphate pathway requires ATP   F  
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how does pentose phosphate pathway work?   Two parts(oxidative and nonoxidative) oxidative: glucose 6-P is added to NADP+ and the enzyme G6PD and some other steps make NADPH and ribose 5-P. The ribose can go onto the nonoxidative part or it can go directly to nucleotide synthesis. Nonoxidative: ri  
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What cofactor is needed for transketolases to work   B1 (thiamine)  
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what type of inheritance pattern is seen with G6PD def.   x-linked recessive  
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what type of alterations to RBCs are seen with G6PD def.   Heinz bodies and Bites cells  
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what are heinz bodies, when are they seen?   clumping of hemoglobin, seen in G6PD and sometimes in thalassemias  
🗑
What are bite cells, when are they seen   when phagocytes "bite" a chunk out of RBCs to remove Heinz bodies, seen in G6PD  
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what things set off G6PD attacks   anti-malaria and sulfonamide(antibiotics), fava beans, mothballs, anti-TB drugs.  
🗑
What causes Fructose intolerance   def. of Aldolase B  
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What two enzymes are required for Fructose metabolism   Fructokinase and Aldolase B (fructose->Fructose-1-P --> DHAP and Glyceraldehyde)  
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where does Fructose enter glycolysis?   DHAP or glyceraldehyde 3-P  
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What is essential fructosuria   defect in fructokinase which inhibits its metabolism so it enters blood and urine, but is beign condition.  
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Where is lactase found   brush border of intestine  
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signs of lactase def.   bloating, cramps, diarrhea(osmostic)  
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What causes galactosemia   absence of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase.  
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Why is galactosemia more severe than fructose in blood?   excess galactose forms toxic metabolites (galactitol)  
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what enzymes are required for galactose metabolism   galactokinase and uridyl transferase (galactose--> galactose 1-P --> glucose 1-P)  
🗑
what sugars make up lactose   galactose and glucose  
🗑
which step of galactose and fructose metabolism require ATP   fructokinase and galactokinase.  
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Patient presents with cataracts, hepatosplenomegaly, mental retardation, and elevated galacititol, what is wrong   galactose-1-P uridyl transferase def.  
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What step of the electron transport chain does antimycin A inhibit   complex III  
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What are the essential amino acids   phenylalanine, Valine, tryptophan, threonine, isoleucine, methionine, histidine, arginine, leucine, lysine (PVT TIM HALL)  
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which essential A.A.'s are purely glucogenic   Methionine, Histidine, arginine, valine  
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which essential A.A.'s are both glucogenic and ketogenic   Isoleucine, phenylalanine, tryptophan, threonine.  
🗑
what two molecules does the body use to transport ammonia to the liver for urea cycle   alanine and glutamate  
🗑
how does the body transport ammonia to the liver for urea cycle   deaminase reactions that transfer NH3 group from A.A. to alpha keto-glutarate or pyruvate which make glutamate or alanine, respectively. These then travel to the liver, lose the amino group the urea cycle and then recycle.  
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most common def. of the urea cycle   ornithine transcarbamoylase  
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what does def. of ornithine transcarbamoylase cause   hyperammonemia leading to tremor, asteraxis, vomiting, blurring of vision and inihibits the TCA cycle  
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patient presents with asteraxis, vomiting, cerebral edema, blurring of vision, and tremor, what might be wrong   ornithine transcarbamoylase def. and hyperammonemia  
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what is the treatment of hyperammonemia   benzoate or phenylbutyrate  
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how does the urea cycle work   NH4 plus CO2 --> carbamoyl phosphate--> citrulline--> argininosuccinate--> fumarate or arginine--> urea--> ornithine  
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what amino acid adds an ammonia group during the urea cycle to make urea   aspartate  
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what TCA metabolites can be formeed during the urea cycle   fumarate  
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What amino acid is used to make tyrosine   phenylalanine  
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what is made from tyrosine   Dopa--> dopamine--> NE--> Epi  
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what amino acid is used to make throxine   tyrosine  
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what amino acid is used to make melanin   tyrosine, dervived from dopa  
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what amino acid is used to make niacin   tryptophan  
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what amino acid is used to make serotonin   tryptophan  
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what amino acid is used to make melatonin   tryptophan, derived from serotonin  
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what amino acid makes histamine   histidine  
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what amino acid makes porphyrin   glycine  
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what amino acid is used to make creatine   arginine  
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what aminoacid is used to make urea   arginine  
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what amino acid is used to make nitric oxide   arginine  
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what amino acid is used to make GABA   glutamate  
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what amino acid is used to make glutathione   glutamate  
🗑
what is phenylketonuria   when the body lacks phenylalanine hydroxylase or tetrahydrobiopterin cofactor and it can't convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. This makes tyrosine essential and leads to phenylalanine buildup and loss in urine.  
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pt presents with musty body odor, eczema, retardation, what do they have   phenyletonuria(PKU).  
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why do pts with PKU have musty odor   build up of phenylketones which are aromatics and have odor.  
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what is the treatment for pKU   decrease phenylalanine and increase tyrosine in diet.  
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where is phenylalanine found in the diet   artificial sweetners (aspartame)  
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What is alkaptonuria   def. of homogentisic acid oxidase, which is used to degrade tyrosine. This causes alkapton bodies to building up and causes urine to turn black.  
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pt presents with urine that turns black upon standing, debilitating arthralgias, and dark connective tissue   alkaptonuria  
🗑
what causes albinism   inability to make melanin  
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why can't the body make melanin during albinism   lack of tyrosinase, defective tyrosine transporters, lack of neural crest cell migration  
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what is homocystinuria   inability to metabolize homocystine leading to its accumulation and making cysteine essential.  
🗑
what are the possible causes of homocystinuria   lack of cystathionine synthase(converts it to cysteine), decreased affinity of cystathionine synthase for B6, homocysteine methyltransferase def.(converts it to methionine)  
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treatment for homocystunuria   decrease methionine and increase cysteine and B12 in diet.  
🗑
what causes cystinuria?   defective transporter in PCT of kidney  
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the transporter that is defective in cystinuria also transport what substances in the kidney PCT   ornithine, lysine, and arginine.  
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What is the consequence of cystinuria   cystine kidney stones  
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Treatment for cystinuria? MOA?   acetoazolaminde to alkalinize the urine.  
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what causes maple syrup urine dz   lack of slpha ketoacid deHASE which metabolizes Isoleucine, leucine, and valine.  
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what are the consequences of maple syrup urine dz   maple syrup smelling urine(duh), CNS defects, retardation and death.  
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what is lesch-nyhan syndrome   absence of HGPRT resulting in excess uric acid-->gout, retardation, self-mutilation, choreoathetosis  
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pt presents with gout, retardation, self-mutilation, choreoathetosis   Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (def. of HGPRT)  
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what causes SCID   adenosine deaminase def.  
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what is SCID   severe combined immunodeficiency, lack of T and B cells  
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what are the steps of purine degradation   Purine-> Inosinic ACcid-> inosine-> hypoxanthine-> xanthine-> uric acid  
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what enzyme converts hypoaxnathine to xanthine to uric acid   xanthine oxidase  
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what drug inhibits xanthine oxidase   allopurinol  
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what enzyme converts purines to phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate   PRPP  
🗑
what enzyme converts pures to their acid form   HGPRT  
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1 carbohydrate is equal to how much protein? kCal?   1 g of protein and 4 kcals  
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1 gram of fat is equal to how many kcals   9 kcals  
🗑
where is insulin made   Beta cells of pancreas  
🗑
what stimulates insulin release from Beta cells   ATP made from glycolysis acting on ATP sensitive potassium channel, leading to depolarization and insulin release.  
🗑
where are GLUT1 found   RBCs and brain  
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Where are GLUT2 found   Beta cells, liver, and kidney  
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Where are GLUT3 found   brain  
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where are GLUT4 found   adipose tissue, skeletal muscle  
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where are GLUT5 found   Fructose transport in gut epithelium  
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what is serum c-peptide   stored with insulin in beta cell granules and so act as a good measure of endogenous insulin in the blood stream because it is less effected by liver metabolism  
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which cells require insulin for glucose uptake   muscle and fat cells  
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what does insulin's structure look like   alpha and beta chain connected with disulfide bonds  
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how does insulin effect glycogen sythesis   increases it  
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how does insulin effect Na+ rentention in the kidneys   increase  
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how does insulin effect protein synthesis   increases  
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how does insulin effect K+ uptake in cells   increases  
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T or F, glycogen synthase is activated upon phosphorylation   false, inactivated  
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is glycogen synthase active during fed or fasting states, why?   fed, because activated by insulin and it wants to store excess glucose.  
🗑
What molecules inactivate glycogen synthase   glucagon, epinephrine  
🗑
True or False, glycogen phosphorylase is activated upon phosphorylation   true  
🗑
what activates glycogen phosphorylase in muscle cells   AMP and epinephrine  
🗑
what activates glycogen phosphorylase in liver cells   glucagon and epinephine  
🗑
what deactivates glycogen phosphorylase in muscle cells   ATP and insulin  
🗑
what deactivates glycogen phosphorylase in liver cells   insulin  
🗑
what types of bonds are found in glycogen   alpha 1-4 glycosidic(long chains) and alpha 1-6 glycosidic (branches)  
🗑
how is glycogen formed   glucose 6-P is converted to glucose 1-P that then forms UDP-glucose and combines with other glucose to make bonds.  
🗑
How is glucose broken down   debranching enzmye removes 1-6 bonds, glycogen phosphorylase cleaves 1-4 bonds  
🗑
what enzymes are used to make glycogen   UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase makes UDP-glucose, glycogen synthase makes the 1-4 bonds, and branching enzyme makes the 1-6 bonds  
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what enzyme breaks down some glycogen via lysosomes   alpha 1-4 glucosidase  
🗑
what are the 4 glycogen store dz's   Van Gierke's(I), Pompe's(II), Cori's(III), McArdle's (V)  
🗑
which enzyme is def. in each glycogen storage dz   I- Glucose-6 Phosphotase, II- Lysosomal 1-4 glucosidase, III- Debranching enzyme, V- Skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase  
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Pt presents with severe hypoglycemia, and increased blood lactate levels and hepatomegaly, which storage dz does he have   I-Van Gierke's  
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Pt has cardiomegaly and liver dz, which glycogen storage dz does he have   II-pompe's  
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Pt has high fasting glucose, normal lactate levels and hepatomegaly, which storage dz does he have   III-Cori's  
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Pt has muscle cramps and myoglobinuria with exercise, which storage dz do they have   V-McArdles  
🗑
how does fatty acid metabolism work   acetyl coa made from TCA has to get into cytoplasm of mitochondria(its formed in matrix), it uses the citrate shuttle where it gets converted to malonyl-CoA and then "polymerized" into fatty acids.  
🗑
How does fatty acid degradation work   fatty acids broken down to acyl-CoA and uses the carnitine shuttle to get into matrix where beta oxidation occurs. where it made into acetyl coa groups to form ketone bodies or enter the TCA cycle.  
🗑
what happens if we have carnitine def   inability to break down fatty acids leading to toxic accumulation  
🗑
what happens if we have acyl-CoA deHASE def.   we have an increase in dicarboxylic acids and decreased ketones and glucose (messes up fatty acid degradation)  
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what metabolite inhibits the carnitine shuttle, why?   malonyl CoA, because it is a product of fatty acid synthesis and so if we have a lot of it we need to be making F.A. rather than breaking them down and the carnitine shuttle is part of the F.A. degradation pathway.  
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what are the two most common ketone bodies   acetoacetate and beta-hydroxbutyrate  
🗑
where are ketone bodies used   brain and muscles  
🗑
why do ketone bodies form   TCA cycle is stalled from lack of OAA either due to starvation(no glucose) or ETOH which converts it to malate, causing glucose and free F.A.s to make ketone bodies.  
🗑
which ketone body is undetectable in urine   Beta-hydroxybutyrate  
🗑
what does HMG-COA reductase do   converts HMG-CoA to mevalonate and is rate limiting step of cholesterol formation  
🗑
T or F, 1/3 of plasma cholesterol is esterified by LCAT   F, 2/3 of it is  
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what are the essential fatty acids   linoleic and linolenic (arachidonic if linoleic is gone)  
🗑
What does apo A1 do   activates LCAT  
🗑
What does apo B-100 do   Binds LDL recepter, mediates VLDL secretion  
🗑
What does apo B-48 do   mediates chylomicron secretion  
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What does apo E do   mediates liver uptake of LDL  
🗑
what does apo C-II do   Cofactor for LPL  
🗑
What does LCAT do   catalyzes esterification of Cholesterol  
🗑
What does CTEP do   mediates transfer of cholesterol esters to other lipoprotein particles  
🗑
What does Hormone sensitive lipase do   degradation of Trigylcerides stored in fat cells  
🗑
What does Hepatic lipase do   degrades Trigylcerides in IDL  
🗑
What does LPL do   removes Triglycerides from LDL and VLDL  
🗑
what digestive enzyme is needed to digest triglycerides in small intestine   pancreatic lipase  
🗑
which apolipoproteins are found on chylomicrons   pretty much all of them (B-48, C, A, and E)  
🗑
pt presents with lipemia retinalis, pancreatitis, and eruptive xanthomas what's wrong   excess chylomicrons  
🗑
what is lipemia retinalis   creamy apperance of blood vessels in retina during excess chylomicrons  
🗑
which apo proteins are found on VLDL   B-100, C, and E  
🗑
where do VLDL and chylomicrons pick up apo E and C   HDL  
🗑
which type of lipoprotein causes atherosclerosis   LDL  
🗑
what is type 1 dyslipidemia   hyperchylomicronemia (increased TG and Cholesterol)  
🗑
What causes type i dyslipidemia   increased chylomicrons results from either def. LPL or no ApoC-II  
🗑
What is type IIa dyslipidemia   hypercholesterolemia (increased LDL)  
🗑
what causes type IIa dyslipidemia   increased LDL results from decreased LDL receptors  
🗑
What is type IV dyslipidemia   hypertriglyceridemia (increased VLDL)  
🗑
what causes type IV dyslipidemia   increased VLDL results from hepatic over production of VLDL or defective LPL  
🗑
Lead poisoning causes what effect to heme synthesis   inhibition of ALA dehydratase and Ferrochelatase which are the first and last steps of heme proporphyrin synthesis  
🗑
what are the steps of heme synthesis   Glycine + Succinate + B6-->porphobiliogen-> uroporphrinogen-> coproporphyrinogen-> protoporphyrin + Fe--> heme  
🗑
Which step of heme synthesis is affected in AIP   Porpho-> Uroporphyrin  
🗑
Which step of heme synthesis is affected in PCT   Uroporphyrin--> Copro  
🗑
How can you tell the difference btw AIP and PCT   PCT has skin problems and tea colored urine.  
🗑
Pt presents with increased uroporphyrin which dz does he have   PCT  
🗑
what are the products of heme catabolism   Heme-> biliverdin-> bilirubin (bound to albumin and removed by liver.). Bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronate and excreted in bile.  
🗑
Why are bruises blue-green in color   biliverdin  
🗑
what is urobilinogen   an intestinal intermiediate of bilirubin that can be reabsorbed into blood and excreted as urobilin in urine giving it its yellow color.  
🗑
patient presents with Abdominal pain, pink urine, polyneuropathy, psychological problems , what's wrong   porphria  
🗑
Which lysosomal storage dz is x-linked   fabry's  
🗑
which mucopolysaccharidoses is x-linked   hunter's  
🗑
Excess ceramid trihexoside   Fabry's dz  
🗑
excess glucocerebroside   gaucher's dz  
🗑
most common lysosomal storage dz   gaucher's  
🗑
excess sphinomylelin   niemann pick dz  
🗑
excess GM2 ganglioside   Tay-Sachs dz  
🗑
excess galactocerebroside   Krabbe's dz  
🗑
excess cereborside sulfate   metachromatic leukodystrophy  
🗑
def. of alpha galactosidases A   fabry's dz  
🗑
def. of beta-glucocerebrosidase   Gaucher's dz  
🗑
def. of sphingomyelinase   Niemann Pick dz  
🗑
def. hexosaminidase A   Tay-Sachs  
🗑
def. Galactocerebrosidase   Krabbe's dz  
🗑
def. of Arylsulfatase A   metachromatic leukodystrophy  
🗑
Excess Heparan Sulfate or dermatan sulfate   hurler's or hunter's  
🗑
def. of alpha-L-iduronidase   hurler's  
🗑
def. of iduronate sulfatase   hunter's  
🗑
pt presents with gargoylism, airway obstruction, developmental delay   hurler's  
🗑
pt presents with aggressive behavior, airway obstruction, developmental delay   hunter's  
🗑
globoid cells   krabbe's dz  
🗑
cherry-red spots, lysosomes with onion skin   tay-sachs  
🗑
cherry-red spots, foam cells   niemann pick dz  
🗑
macrophages that look like crumpled paper   gaucher cells/ gaucher dz  
🗑
which lysosomal storage dz presents with aseptic necrosis if the femur   gauchers  
🗑
which lysosomal storage dz presents with peripheral neuropathy, angiokeratomas and cardiac/renal dz   fabry's  
🗑
which lysosomal storage dz presents with optic atrophy   krabbe's  
🗑
which lysosomal storage dz presents with central and peripheral demyelination with ataxia and dementia   metachromatic leukodystrophy  
🗑
which state of hemoglobin has high affinity for O2   relaxed  
🗑
which state of hemoglobin has low affinity for O2   taut  
🗑
Which of the follow favors T form of hemoglobin? R state? (increased Cl-, decreased H+, increased pH, Increased CO, decreased 2,3-BPG, decreased temperature)   T- increased Cl-, increased CO R- decreased H+, increased pH, decreased 2,3-BPG, decreased temp  
🗑
which direction is the heme binding curve shifted if T form is favored   right  
🗑
which direction is the heme binding curve shifted if R form is favored   left  
🗑
what form is CO2 that is transported in blood that is not bound to hemogloblin   bicarbonate  
🗑
where does CO2 bind on heme   N terminus amino acids (not to heme)  
🗑
How does CO2 binding to heme affect O2 binding to heme   as CO2 binds it decreases the affinity for O2 (favors T state)  
🗑
what is carboxyhemoglobin   form of hemoglobin bound to CO  
🗑
during anemia which O2 stats change   oxygen content only, (sat. % and PO2 are unaffected)  
🗑
what is PO2   amount of O2 dissolved in blood, not bound to hemoglobin  
🗑
if PO2 decreases how does that effect sat % of hemoglobin   decreases it, because there is less O2 to bind  
🗑
what is methemoglobin   oxidized form of hemoglobin (Fe3+) which has lowered affinity for O2  
🗑
what is the treatment of methemoglobinemia   methylene blue  
🗑
what is the treatment of cyanide poisoning, why?   first give nitrites to convert hemoglobin to methemoglobin which is much more likely to bind CN. Then give thiosulfate to bind CN on heme making thiocyanate that can be excreted by kidneys  
🗑
what are the steps of PCR   DNA denatured->2 strands-> DNA primers bind strands-> DNA polymerases replicate sequence-> repeat multiple times  
🗑
what is southern blot   DNA sample that is electrophoresed on a gel and then transferred to a filter. The filter is exposed to a labeled DNA probe that binds to complimentary strand. The filter is them exposed on film.  
🗑
What is a Northern blot   RNA sample that is electrophoresed on a gel and then transferred to a filter. The filter is exposed to a labeled DNA probe that binds to complimentary strand. The filter is them exposed on film.  
🗑
what is a western blot   protein sample is electrophoresed and then labeled with a specific antibody.  
🗑
what are microarrays   thousands of nucleic acid sequences are arranged in a grid that DNA or RNA probes hybridize to and are detected with a scanner.  
🗑
how does ELISA work   patient is given either an antibody labeled with a color enzyme or an antigen labeled with a color producing enzyme. you use the antibody if you are looking for an antigen and vice versa. The color enzyme makes color if it binds it target.  
🗑
how does FISH work   fluorescent probes are used to bind specific gene sites.  
🗑
What is sanger DNA sequencing   when dideoxynucleotides halt DNA polymerization at each base making ultiple length sequences that can be electrophoresesd and sequenced.  
🗑
what is meant by cloning   production of recombinant DNA molecule that is self-perpetuating.  
🗑
how is DNA cloning done   inserting DNA fragments into bacterial plasmid with antibiotic resistances genes, when grown on agar only those with resistance will survive and those are the ones with the DNA of interest.  
🗑
what is RNAi   dsRNA that is complementary to mRNA sequence of interest that when put in humans, separates and degradates the mRNA of interest.  
🗑
What is codominance   example is blood groups, neither allele is dominant  
🗑
what is meant by variable expression   nature and severity of phenotype varies amoung people  
🗑
what is incomplete penetrance   not all people with the mutation have phenotype  
🗑
what is meant by pleiotropy   1 gene has more than 1 effect on phenotype  
🗑
what is imprinting   mutational effect that has a different phenotype based on whether it came from the mother or father  
🗑
what is anticipation   severity of dz worsens with each generation  
🗑
what is loss of heterozygosity   idea that both tumor supressor genes need to be lost, one at a time before cancer grows.  
🗑
Does loss of heterozygosity applies to which type of genes   tumor supressors  
🗑
what is a dominant negative mutation   dominant effect where the mutated gene makes a protein that is nonfunctional and prevents the normal gene product from functioning  
🗑
what is linkage disequilibrium   tendency for alleles that are at 2 linked loci to occur together more than often, based on predicted probabilities  
🗑
what is mosaicism   when cells within one person have different genetic makeup  
🗑
what is locus heterogeneity   mutations at different loci can procude the same phenotype  
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what is an example of locus heterogeneity   albinism  
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what is heteroplasmy   presence of both normal and mutated mtDNA, resulting in variable expression of mitochondrial inherited dz  
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what is uniparental disomy   when offspring gets 2 copies of a chromosome from one parent and none from the other  
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what are the assumptions for Hardy weinberg   no mutation, no selection for genotypes, mating is random, and no migration into or out of population  
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what are the hardy weinberg equations   p+q=1 p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1  
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what is the prevalence of an X-linked recessive dz in males using hardy-weinberg? in girls?   q and q^2  
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what causes prader willi syndrome   deletion of normally active paternal allele  
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what causes angelman's syndrome   deletion of normally active maternal allele  
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pt presents with mental retardation, obesity, hypogonadism and inability to stop eatting   prader willi  
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pt presents with mental retardation, inappropriate laughter, ataxia and seizures   angelman's syndrome  
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which genetic dz often present with pleiotropy   autosomal dominant  
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what type of inheritance is seen in leber's hereditary optic neuropathy   mitochondrial  
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what type of inheritance is hypophosphatemic rickets   x-linked dominant  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Adult Polycystic kidney dz   autosomal dominant  
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Name the inheritance pattern:Familial hypercholesterolemia   autosomal dominant  
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Name the inheritance pattern: marfan's   autosomal dominant  
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Name the inheritance pattern: neurofibromatosis (type 1 and 2)   autosomal dominant  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Tuberous sclerosis   autosomal dominant  
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Name the inheritance pattern: von hippel-Lindau   autosomal dominant  
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Name the inheritance pattern: huntington's   autosomal dominant  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Familial adenomatous polyposis   autosomal dominant  
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Name the inheritance pattern:hereitary spherocytosis   autosomal dominant  
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Name the inheritance pattern:achondroplasia   autosomal dominant  
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Name the inheritance pattern: cystic fibrosis   autosomal recessive  
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Name the inheritance pattern: thalassemias   autosomal recessive  
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Name the inheritance pattern: phenylketonuria   autosomal recessive  
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Name the inheritance pattern: sickle cell anemia   autosomal recessive  
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Name the inheritance pattern: glycogen storage dz   autosomal recessive  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Hurler's   autosomal recessive  
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Name the inheritance pattern: infant polycystic kidney dz   autosomal recessive  
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Name the inheritance pattern: hemochromatosis   autosomal recessive  
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Name the inheritance pattern: bruton's agammaglobulinemia   X-linked  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Wiskott-Aldrich   X-linked  
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Name the inheritance pattern: G6PD def   X-linked  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Fragile X   X-linked  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Ocular Albinism   X-linked  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Lesch-Nyhan   X-linked  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Hemophilia A/B   X-linked  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Hunters   X-linked  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Fabry's   X-linked  
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T or F, adult polycystic kidney dz is always bilateral   true  
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What causes adult polycystic kidney dz   mutation of APKD1 gene (Chromosome 16)  
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What are associated problems with adult polycystic kidney dz   berry aneurysms, mitral valve prolapse, polycystic liver dz  
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which dz presents with xanthomas on tendons, mostly on achille's tendon   hypercholesterolemia (type IIA hyperlipidemia)  
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Patient is 20 years old and presents with a Myocardial Infarction   hypercholesterolemia (type IIA dyslipidemia)  
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What causes marfan's   mutation of fibrillin gene--> CT disorder  
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This dz commonly presents with aortic dissections, floppy mitral valves and long extremities   Marfan's  
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What optical problem is a/w Marfan's   lens subluxation  
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what cardiac problem is a/w Marfan's   aortic dissection or incompetence  
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what is von Recklinghausen's dz   Neurofibromatosis type I  
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pt presents with cafe-au-lait spots and pigmented iris?   neurofibromatosis type I  
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pt presents with which chromosome causes neurofibromatosis type I   17  
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what are common a/w symptoms/problems of neurofibromatosis type I   skeletal disorders, pheochromocytomas, neural tumors.  
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What are lisch nodules   pigmented iris hamartomas seen with neurofibromatosis type I  
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What is a/w bilateral acoustic neuromas   neurofibromatosis type II  
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which gene and chromosome are effected in neurofibromatosis type II   NF2 gene on chromosome 22.  
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what dz is commonly a/w juvenile cataracts   neurofibromatosis type II  
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what defect causes achondroplasia   Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3  
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T or F, pts with achondroplasia have normal head and trunk, but short limbs   true  
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what gene and chromosome cause familial adenomatous polyposis   chromosome 5 and APC gene  
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which chromosome causes huntington's   4  
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what defect causes huntington's   triple repeat disorder on huntington's gene  
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which part of the brain does huntington's effect, how?   caudate atrophy, reduces levels of GABA and ACh in brain  
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pt presents with progressive dementia, choreiform movements and in 50s   huntinton's  
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what is von hippel-lindau dz   deletion of VHL gene (a tumor supressor) which causes hemangioblastomas of retina/cerebellum/ medulla and very often bilateral renal cell carcinomas  
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which chromosome causes von-hippel-lindau   3  
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pt presents with facial lesions, hypopigmented spots on skin, retinal hamartomas, mental retardation   tuberous sclerosis  
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what gene causes cystic fibrosis? chromosome   CFTR gene on chromosome 7  
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what is the most common lethal genetic dz of caucasians   cystic fibrosis  
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what is the treatment of cystic fibrosis   N-acetylcysteine (loosen's muscous plugs)  
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common organism seen in cystic fibrosis   psuedomonas  
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Name the inheritance pattern: Duchenne's and Becker's Muscluar dystrophy   X-linked  
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which is worse, becker's or duchenne's   duchenne's  
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what enzyme is affected in becker's and duchenne's MD   dystrophin  
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T or F, CPK is decreased in musclar dystrophy because muscle require more energy   F, its elevated from damage  
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what is seen on muscle biopsy of muscluar dystrophy   loss of dystrophin on stain, and endometrial fibrosis  
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what gene is effected in Fragile X   FMR1 gene  
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what is the most common cause genetic mental retardation? 2nd?   1-down's 2- Fragile X  
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what does a fragile X person look like   large jaw, ears, and testes  
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what is a/w 927.3 break point   fragile X  
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What is the mutation seen with duchenne's   frameshift  
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what is the mutation seen with fragile X   triplet repeat (CGG)  
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What dz are a/w triple repeat mutations   huntington's, fragile x, myotonic dystrophy, friedrecich's ataxia.  
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anticipation is commonly a feature of what type of mutation   triple repeat  
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which gene causes down's syndrom   21  
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what is the most common mutation cause of down syndrome   meiotic nondysjuction  
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Fetus presents with decreased AFP, increased B-HCG and nuchal translucency   Down's  
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what dz's are a/w down's syndrome   ALL and Alzheimer's  
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what type of heart defect is commonly seen with down's syndrome   septum primum defects-> ASD (endocardial cushion problems)  
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this dz presents with simian crease   down's  
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this dz presents with gaps btw the first two toes   Down's  
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what chromosome causes edwards syndrome   18  
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baby born with big head, small jaw and low-set ears   edwards  
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this form of mental retardation presents with clenched hands and rockerbottom feet   edwards  
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what chromosome causes patau's syndrome   13  
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this type of mental retardation is a/w cleft lip/palate   patau's  
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this type of mental retardation is a/w polydactyly and rocker bottom feet   patau's  
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compare the two types of nondysjunction   Anaphase I nondysjuction produces two cells with an extra chromosome and 2 with none, Anaphase II nondysjunction produces two normal cells, 1 with an extra chromosome and 1 with none.  
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what is pericentric chromosomal inversion   when inversion in chromosome involves centromere, but proceeds through meiosis  
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what is paracentric inversion   when the chromosomal inversion does not include the centromere but does not go through meiosis  
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what is Cri-du-chat syndrome   deletion of chromosome 5 segment, causes high-pitched crying/mewing (cat sounds), mental retardation and small head  
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what are the associated signs of a 22q11 syndrome   CATCH (cleft palate, Abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cardiac defects, and hypocalcemia (due to parathyroid aplasia)  
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