CDC 3S051B
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| When is an A1C considered fully qualified for promotion to SrA? | 20 months TIG, 36 months TIS, and recommended by the commander.
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| What is the PES code for an Airman with an Article 15 suspended reduction that prevents the Airman from being promoted until the PES code is changed to a date on or after the PES date in the MILPDS? | A
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| When an Airman will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the commander's written notice must include the reasons for the non-recommendation, inclusive dates of the non-recommendation action, and | the Airman's acknowledgment.
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| When are individuals considered for BTZ promotion to SrA? | The month prior to the quarter in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion.
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| In the WAPS, what two weighted factors account for 44 percent of the total point value? | SKT and PFE.
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| In the WAPS, time-in-grade is computed at the rate of | one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years.
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| What is the EPR conversion factor? | 27
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| A TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt after becoming a 7 level, | having 24 months TIG, and 8 years TAFMS.
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| What is the minimum total points a record can be assessed if all three panel members in a central CMSgt promotion evaluation board score the record as 18? | 270
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| Under the STEP program, no Airman may be promoted more than once during any 12 month period under any combination of promotion programs except | SrA.
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| In which situation does a member remain eligible for promotion consideration and selection but, if selected, is prevented from assuming the higher grade? | Awaiting a decision on an application as a conscientious objector.
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| A promotion is withheld when an Airman's name is removed from a promotion selection list and the Airman is | serving in the grade of TSgt and has not completed the Command NCO Academy
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| Which officer grouping is not considered a competitive promotion category? | Rated Officer Corps
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| Based on their current grade and date of rank, what are the three promotion zones that active duty officers fall into? | Below, in, and above.
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| When a promotion board is considering active duty officers for promotion to Colonel, the Board President must be in the grade of | Major General.
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| What constitutes a significant difference in the scores given to a particular record by a promotion board? | Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record.
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| Removal of an officer's name from a list of those selected for promotion to Captain is officially confirmed by | the Senate.
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| The MPF Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster is manually posted throughout the duration of a promotion cycle to | provide a current reference in determining a member's promotion status.
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| When Career Enhancement or the CSS schedules personnel for WAPS testing, they do so by annotating the | Unit Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster.
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| Which phase of the promotion process begins when promotion selections are actually made at Headquarters AFPC? | Initial
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| Monthly increment products are produced automatically upon receipt of the monthly promotion increment transactions that flow from AFPC before the promotion effective date and on or about the | 15th of the month.
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| Approved board results for the officer promotion program are confirmed in the system via transactions from | AFPC to servicing MPFs and MAJCOMs.
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| Which brief is a one-page, computer-generated extract of selected data from the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) MPF that is used by all officer selection boards? | OSB
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| When a promotion board is to convene within 14 days, how does the MPF notify Headquarters AFPC of erroneous data on an OPB? | By message.
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| An EPR is not required when the ratee is | an A1C or below, has 20 or more months TAFMS, has had an initial report, and has not had a report for at least 1 year.
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| When the additional rater is not at least a MSgt but there is a civilian equivalent as the next official in the rating chain, the civilian equivalent becomes the endorser. In this situation, the civilian must be at least a | GS-7.
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| What individual may assume the responsibility of the rater if the rater is missing in action? | Additional Rater
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| For a member already serving in the grade of CMSgt, the AF Form 911, Senior Enlisted Performance Report (MSgt through CMSgt), is used to make a recommendation for | increased responsibilities.
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| The purpose of the commander's review on both the AF Form 910, Enlisted Performance Report and the 911, Senior Enlisted Performance Report is to | make sure the evaluation report does not have exaggerations or unrealistic ratings.
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| Mandatory AF Form 77 Letter of Evaluation Sheet, is prepared for | enlisted members participating in the WCAP.
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| Which officers require feedback sessions? | Lieutenants through Colonels.
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| How many days before the selection board can PRF be completed by the senior rater? | 60
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| The AF Form 709, Promotion Recommendation Form (PRF), recommendation section covers the entire record of performance and provides key performance factors from the officer's | entire career.
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| A ratee's (Officer or Airman) comments to the evaluator named in the referral letter must | not reflect on the integrity of the evaluator unless fully substantiated.
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| When the MPF Commander determines who is qualified to provide counseling on evaluation appeal procedures, who must conduct the appeal counseling? | Someone at a level no lower than the NCOIC, Career Enhancement.
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| What statement best describes being discharged in conjunction with reenlistment? | Before reenlisting, an Airman must be discharged; this discharge is conditional because it is predicated on the member's immediate reenlistment.
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| When disapproving a SSgt's waiver for reenlistment request, the unit commander must then ensure that the SSgt | acknowledges receipt of the disapproval.
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| Who is allowed to execute an extension of enlistment? | A Career Airman who has not previously extended their current enlistment and needs 48 months retainability for an overseas assignment.
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| How does an extension of enlistment compare to a reenlistment? | Once the extension has been entered into, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistment.
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| First-term airmen who enlist for 6 years may apply for a CJR as early as the first duty day of the month after they complete how many months on their current enlistment? | 59
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| CJR cancellation procedures apply only to | approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs.
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| A CJR cannot be canceled when an Airman | is on the CJR waiting list and does not request separation.
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| An Airman with an approved or suspended CJR or CJR waiting list position that was canceled can request that a CJR be reinstated if the Airman | had a CJR waiting list position that was canceled for reasons other than personal request.
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| What activity can reinstate approved CJRs for Airmen rendered ineligible to reenlist due to RE code 4K (medical disqualification)? | Headquarters AFPC
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| For first-term airmen serving in SRB skills, the AF Form 545, Request for CJR/Selective Reenlistment Bonus Authority, serves a dual purpose as both | a request for a CJR and a request for SRB authorization.
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| What restriction does not apply to the SRB program? | The maximum SRB payment to Air Force personnel is $45,000 for an entire military career.
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| A MPF commander will not authorize accelerated payment of a SRB when documented | expected circumstances have created an extreme financial hardship.
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| A recoupment action to recover a SRB is not initiated when | a SSgt's incapacitating injury is not the result of his own misconduct.
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| What achievement award is given to enlisted personnel every 3 years for exemplary conduct on active duty? | AFGCM
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| To remain eligible for the award of the AFGCM, individuals must demonstrate | a positive attitude toward the Air Force and their jobs.
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| Who endorses an awards package sent through command channels when a major command (MAJCOM), field operating agency, or direct reporting unit commander is not available? | Vice Commander
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| It is imperative that recommendations for decorations be restricted to the recognition of meritorious service, outstanding achievement, and acts of heroism in order to | preserve the integrity of decorations
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| A reconsideration for a decoration is contingent upon | the presentation of credible evidence that the recommendation was officially placed in military channels.
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| Until the awarding authority announces its final decision, the fact that a person has been recommended for a decoration is considered | For Official Use Only.
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| What activity does the Survey Control Officer notify upon receipt of an unauthorized survey? | Headquarters AFPC
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| A LOD and misconduct determination is required when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has a disease or injury that results in | the likelihood of permanent disability.
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| What method of determination is used when a member's death is of a natural origin, does not involve misconduct, and was not caused by drug or alcohol abuse? | Administrative
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| Which officer normally serves as the appointing authority in processing a LOD determination? | Group commander in the chain-of-command over the immediate commander.
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| The findings of a LOD determination are used by the Air Force to determine eligibility for all of the following except | determining creditable service for non-disability retirement compensation.
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| AFPC automatically computes the TAFMSD and pay date for member, then distributes an AF Form 1613 on enlisted personnel in all of the following categories except | members with less than 12 years of TAFMS if a statement has already been prepared previously.
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| An officer may submit a SPTC to obtain more active duty retainability to serve all of the following except | excess leave.
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| Which special pay category is payable in an annual lump sum for Medical an Dental Corps officers who are not undergoing internship? | ASP
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| Which of the following entitles a Medical Corps officer to (special pay) MSP? | Having at least 8 years of creditable service.
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| The total amount of the aviator continuation pay is based on an annual rate determined by the aviator's | TAFCS.
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| Under the EQUAL rotation assignment advertising system, how many times a year are matches done for members returning from OS? | Four
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| What are the primary reporting months for an enlisted member whose OS cycle schedule determines allocation in October, advertises openings in November, and the member is matched for an assignment in December | July/August/September
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| OS returnees are aligned into three groups within each grade and AFSC. Which of the following best describes Group Two? | Members returning from a tour of 17 months or less, family members are authorized, and the Airmen selected an unaccompanied tour.
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| Who places requirement advertisements on the EQUAL Plus listing? | AFPC Assignment OPR
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| CMSgt and CMSgt-selects volunteer for requirement listed on the EQUAL-Plus by | contacting their assignment NCO at the Chief's Group
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| Which of the following action can an enlisted member take to make himself ineligible for an assignment after an assignment selection date has been established? | Request retirement under 7 Day Option provisions.
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| The AF established TOS requirements to improve the quality of life for AF members and their family members and to | enhance unit operational readiness.
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| What is the minimum retainability requirement for a CONUS to CONUS humanitarian permanent change of station? | 6 Months
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| When more than one AAC applies to a member, the one that is used to preclude assignment reconsideration is the one with the | longest period of deferment.
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| Within how many calendar days must a unit commander notify a member of an assignment that is within 90 days of the report NLT date? | 3
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| Which activity prepares a relocation folder when an official assignment notification of a member's selection for reassignment is received? | PRE
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| Once a member is notified of selection for an assignment, the PRE conducts an initial relocation interview | ASAP but NLT 15 calendar days after official notification.
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| When AF form 1466, Request for Family Member's Medical and Education Clearance for Travel, has been completed by the MTF, how does the MPF handle the original and a copy? | Files the original in the UPRG and files a copy in the member's relocation folder.
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| SSgt Goodall walks up to your desk with a driver qualification memorandum in hand asking for assistance; with this information, you have SSgt Goodall report to the | Base Vehicle Operations (Licensing) Office
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| After the initial relocations interview, the PRE forwards a security requirement memorandum to the member's unit commander whenever the assignment requires any of the following except | a security line badge.
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| How are port calls established for members who must perform 30 days or more TDY at another location en route to their OS reassignment? | TDY unit establishes flight reservations.
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| The AF Form 907 for a member going PCS from a GSU with a personnel function and authorization to publish orders is accomplished by the | GSU
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| A GSU that has a personnel function and is authorized to publish orders must fully document the disposition of the completed AF Form 907 and all related documents in the | GSU and MPF support agreement.
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| In what section of the AF Form 907, Relocation Preparation checklist, are personnel processing instructions annotated? | III
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| When does the Personnel Journeyman date and sign the AF Form 907 in section IV? | Final out-processing interview (individually or en masse).
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| When are PCS orders normally published? | At least 60 days before the member's projected departure date.
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| When is the PRE authorized to publish PCS orders directing a member who is on leave or TDY to depart PCS before he or she returns to the current duty station? | After you confirm that the member would not incur a personal financial loss.
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| What information is included in block 14 of the PCS order to indicate that this is a joint spouse assignment? | Spouse's name, social security number, and pay grade.
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| When can First Term Airmen apply for a BOP assignment? | When selected under the Selective Reenlistment Program.
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| How long must Career Airmen wait to reapply for a BOP, after their prior request is disapproved? | They can reapply immediately when requesting different locations.
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| When can members assigned to isolated locations apply for reassignment? | NET 11 months before their DOA.
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| Members eligible to apply for HB or FO assignment consideration must do so within 15 days of the | Initial Relocation Briefing.
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| What condition would cause cancellation of a member's FO assignment? | Military couple relocated their dependents to a location other than the FO location.
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| Members can apply for an EFMP reassignment or deferment if they | have contacted the EFMP officer for a complete evaluation, assessment, and enrollment.
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| What is the period of PCS and involuntary TDY deferment for members granted a humanitarian or EFMP reassignment? | 12 months from DAS.
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| Which of the following reasons in support of a humanitarian assignment or deferment would most likely result in disapproval of the request? | The condition existed or was reasonably foreseeable before entry on active duty.
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| A request for an expanded permissive reassignment is normally approved when | manning at the losing base meets the established CONUS-wide level.
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| What PCS cost identifier do you include on the special orders to indicate that the PCS is at no cost to the government? | M
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| Which is not a designated base under the VSBAP? | Socorro AFS, New Mexico
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| What TOS criteria must a member meet to volunteer under the VSBAP? | Must have at least two years, five months TOS to apply and at least 36 months before departure.
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| An AF member has received initial assignment notification and accepted an unaccompanied tour. Before the departure date, the member acquires dependents and is eligible to move the family at government expense to the OS location. In this situation, when is | ASAP
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| Before family member orders can be published, which agency must certify medical and educational clearance on the AF Form 1466, Medical and Educational Clearance for Dependent Overseas Travel? | Base MTF
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| The Gaining MPF has determined that special educational needs cannot be met, and has sent a message to the losing facility and Relocations. The AF Form 1466 is annotated appropriately. What activity reviews the AF Form 1466 in this situation? | MAJCOM
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| Within how many duty days of the official assignment or training notification must HQ AFPC prepare all AF Forms 63 and fax them to the MPF? | 5
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| What activity updates the military personnel data system for all ADSCD and reason codes (except for health profession and judge advocate officers) | AFPC
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| Funding for category 1 training must be obtained from | Major Force Program Eight Resources
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| The training or education of individual military members in formal courses conducted by AETC falls into which category? | 2
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| The education and training activities conducted by MAJCOMS and their operational units are referred to as | Category 2
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| What is the duty status of personnel who must attend two or more courses of 20 weeks or more duration at one location? | PCS
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| When preparing a TDY class project folder, which statement is correct? | Create a relocation folder for each member.
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| When a member visits a particular site in order to perform operational or managerial activities, the purpose of the TDY is categorized as | site visit.
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| Women who have MSO and are otherwise qualified for transfer to the Reserve are discharged if | the reason for separation is pregnancy and they request discharge.
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| Prior to ETS, separation is a concern at all levels of responsibility because any separation before the completion of an obligated period of service results in the loss of substantial investment in recruiting, training, and equipping Airmen and | leads to a need for more accessions.
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| When determining whether a member should be discharged, isolated incidents and events that are remote in time | have little value.
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| Regular officers who desire discharge or release on completion of all ADSC may | tender their resignation.
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| The Personnel Journeyman responsible for ensuring completion of all required relocation preparation actions must do all of the following except | arrange transportation for all household pets.
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| What First Term Airman would not be entitled to transportation on the AF Form 100, Request and Authorization for Separation? | involuntary separated for reasons of misconduct, for service characterized as under other than honorable conditions.
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| What grade is not authorized to sign an AF Form 100? | GS-4
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| An AF Form 973, Request and Authorization for Change of Administrative Orders is published as an amendment to the AF Form 100, Request and Authorization for Separation, in order to | change pertinent data that affects an entitlement.
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| Which of the following factors is not required on a member's request for a waiver of restriction based on hardship? | How civilian employment or business opportunity would alleviate hardship.
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| Members who want to take terminal leave should apply for retirement at least 120 days in advance of the requested date plus the number of days leave desired | to allow enough time to process a retirement application and issue retirement orders.
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| Under HYT guidelines, a SMSgt's retirement must be effective NLT the first day of the month following the month in which the member will complete | 28 years service.
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| When age is the reason for mandatory retirement, the retirement date for any officer in the grade of Captain or above will be the first day of the month after the month the officer turns | 62 years old.
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| Which of the following military decorations does not automatically qualify an enlisted member for award of a 10 percent increase in retirement pay based on extraordinary heroism? | Distinguished Flying Cross
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| The PRE must maintain a retirement relocation preparation folder to ensure all actions required in processing a retirement have been finalized. Which of the following documents is not included in the relocation folder? | DD Form 363AF, Certificate of Retirement
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| Under which of the following separation actions, is a DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, not issued? | Removal from the temporary disability retirement list.
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| Copy 4 of the DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, is invaluable as an official record because it shows a separating member's | change from cadet status to commission as a regular officer.
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| What type of discharge certificate is issued to member whose service characterization is under honorable conditions? | DD Form 214, General Discharge
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| the Air Force military personnel classification system groups related work requirements on similarity of functions and requirements for all of the following except | personal desires.
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| Which of the following positions of an AFSC denotes the career field subdivision for the Personnel Journeyman (AFSC 3S051)? | Third position-0
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| How does a "capper" AFSC differ from other AFSCs? | Fifth position of a capper AFSC will always be a "0"
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| When classifying a member into a specific AFSC, what factor is not taken into consideration? | Assignment volunteer status
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| In addition to upgrade on-the-job training, how are knowledge requirements for award of a skill level accomplished? | CDCs
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| Which of the following factors is not taken into consideration when determining Officer and Airmen primary AFSC? | Civic and fraternal membership.
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| A member serving in the grade of MSgt will normally not be used outside a CAFSC during any 12-month period | for a period not to exceed 130 days without approval from the MPF commander
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| Which of the following media will Air Force use to provide AFSC revisions and conversion instruction to MPFs? | Change summary and conversion guide.
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| When conversion actions are not accomplished by the conversion effective date, MPFs are authorized to award AFSCs based on conversion instructions for how many days after the effective date? | 30
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| For which of the following reason would an AFSC downgrade be appropriate? | Reduction in grade
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| RIs are important to the personnel employment element because they identify | positions, personnel, or both not otherwise identifiable in the military classification system
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| What type of duty does RI 9T000 indicate? | An Airman in Basic Military Training.
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| How are SDI designated in the individual's personnel records? | Awarded Specialties
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| SDIs identify manpower positions and individuals performing duties | unrelated to any specific career field.
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| What action agency periodically reviews SEIs to determine validity and usefulness? | Air Force Personnel Center
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| In concert with manpower management officials, who reviews manpower authorizations to determine if positions are coded with the appropriate SEI or if one is required? | AFSC Functional Managers
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| In which of the following databases is the retraining advisory located? | MILPDS
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| When can Airmen on the CJR waiting list apply for CAREERS retraining? | No later than 120 days before the date of separation.
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| Which of the following is a disqualification factor for retraining? | Not recommended for upgrade training.
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| Within how many days of receiving a completed retraining application must the Personnel Employment element process the application? | 3 working days.
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| When are retraining applications submitted using supplemental messages? | When no special processing is required.
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| How often is the unit commander required to verify that only the minimum number of positions are consistent with operational PRP requirements? | Annually
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| Why must an individual's behavior be constantly monitored even after the individual has been judged reliable? | To detect any signs of unreliable performance before any compromise can occur.
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| Which type of certification states that a member is qualified for a projected assignment requiring PRP duties? | Administrative
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| What is not required for all PRP certifications? | An S-4 physical profile.
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| What is the maximum number of days a certifying official can extend the period of temporary decertification from PRP duties? | 270 in 30 day increments.
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| What document is used for permanent decertification of a PRP member when the certifying official must document the specific circumstances surrounding the decision to decertify the individual? | AF Form 286A
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| What would be the ODSD for a member who has never had an overseas assignment or temporary duty an who has a Total Active Federal Military Service Date of 4 February 2000? | 4 February 2000
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| How is the STRD established for an Airman who came on active duty on 2 February 2000 and has never served an overseas short tour? | It is established to equal the TAFMSD.
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| If an overseas tour is curtailed and no entitlement to tour credit accrues, the ODSD or STRD is | adjusted by the number of days served in the overseas area.
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| When an Airman's PCS orders show a member elected to serve an accompanied tour, but the member arrives overseas unaccompanied, an initial DEROS is established based on the | accompanied tour, regardless of the fact the member arrived unaccompanied.
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| What action is taken to a member's overseas duty history, when they perform TDY from the CONUS to overseas, and serve 2 days or more? | Adjust the current overseas duty selection date and short tour return date by adding the number of days served.
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| How is the tour completion date of the first tour updated when a member selected for a COT travels to the CONUS before arriving at the new assignment? | The date the member arrived at the CONUS port.
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| In the event a PCS departure certification is missing when a member in-processes, what activity is responsible for initiating a new one? | Gaining MPF
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| When information is entered on the IDA Worksheet, the appropriate element must | verify the data and coordinate on the worksheet.
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| What does the Noncommissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC/Assistant NCOIC) of Personnel Employment use to verify the data on the IDA? | IDA Worksheet
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