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OB-GYN Terms and more

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Answer
adnexa   appendages or accessory structures of an organ  
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the four bones of the pelvis that make up the lower part of the trunk of the body; serves to support the upper body and protect the pelvic organs   bony pelvis  
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intrauterine position of a fetus in which the buttocks or feet present first   breech  
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cesarean section   a surgical procedure in which the abdomen and uterus are incised to deliver a baby  
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a small mass of yellow-colored tissue that develops on the ovary and that grows within the ruptured ovarian follicle after ovulation; responsible for secreting progesterone to maintain the high level of vascular supply to the uterine endometrium for the p   corpus luteum  
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cephalopelvic disproportion an obstetric complication in which the pelvis/birth canal is too small for a vaginal delivery or the baby's head is too large to pass through the birth canal   CPD  
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curettage   removal of tissue with a blunt or sharp curette by scraping the surface; performed to remove abnormal tissue, to obtain tissue for examination and diagnostic purposes, or to remove tissue from infected areas  
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DUB   dysfunctional uterine bleeding abnormal uterine bleeding that is not due to a tumor, pregnancy, or infection, and occurs when menstruation is not taking place  
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dystocia   difficult labor due to various reasons, such as cephalopelvic disproportion, fetus size, or condition or position of fetus  
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the surgical incision of perineum to enlarge the vaginal opening and prevent tearing of the perineum and muscles during delivery   episiotomy  
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exenteration   refers to the total removal of; usually used in reference to the surgical procedure of total pelvic exenteration, which involves the removal of the vagina, uterus and cervix, fallopian tubes, ovaries, bladder, and rectum for surgical treatment of cancer  
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finger-like structures that form on an edge, such as the fimbria of the fallopian tubes   fimbria  
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abnormal communication between two normally separate internal structures, or an abnormal communication between an internal structure and the body surface   fistula  
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gravida   refers to the pregnant female; the first pregnancy is referred to as gravida I; additional pregnancies are numbered sequentially  
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loop electrosurgical excision surgical procedure that uses the electrosurgical unit coupled to a loop electrode on the cautery pencil; used to excise a cone of tissue to remove an area of neoplasia   LEEP  
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ligament   a band of fibrous tissue composed of collagen that connects bone to bone  
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incision of a closed cavity with the suturing of the open edges to the wall of the wound to form an open wound that will heal by second intention   marsupialization  
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a benign fibroid tumor of the uterus   myoma  
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occiput anterior   the most common relationship between the presenting fetal part and the maternal body pelvis  
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parity (para)   the classification used to indicate the number of live and stillborn births that a female has delivered at more than 20 weeks of gestation  
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perineum   the area between the posterior portion of the vagina or scrotum and the opening to the anus  
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surgical transverse incision made in the lower abdomen; usually employed when performing a c-section   Pfannenstiel  
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an opening that serves as the entrance to a passageway, such as the vestibule of the vagina   vestibule  
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what is the fornix   the annular recess created by the cervical-vaginal junction  
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describe the locations of the internal and external cervical os   the internal os is the aperture of the junction between the corpus uteri and the cervix the external os is where the cervix opens into the vagina  
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list the 3 layers of the uterine wall   endometrium myometrium visceral peritoneum  
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where are the Bartholin's glands located and what is their function   located bilaterally at the posterior end of the vestibule they secrete a lubricating mucoid substance  
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list the structures contained within the broad ligament   fallopian tube, round ligament, ovarian ligament, blood vessels, nerves, lymphatics  
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what are the other two names for fallopian tubes   uterine tubes oviducts  
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describe the location of the ovaries   either side of the uterus in the ovarian fossa of the lateral pelvis wall  
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name the two hormones from the anterior pituitary that stimulate the ovarian cycle   luteinizing hormone (LH) follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)  
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name the two hormones that are produced by the ovary   estrogen progesterone  
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what is the main muscle of the pelvic floor   levator ani muscle  
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what are the 3 components of the levator ani muscle   iliococcygeal pubococcygeal puborectalis  
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branches of which nerve and artery provide sensation and blood flow to the perineum and external genitalia   clitoral, perineal, and inferior hemorrhoidal branches of the pudendal artery and nerve  
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what structure is rounded prominent longitudinal flaps   labia majora  
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what structure is the area between the vaginal opening and anus   perineum  
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what structure is the external female genitalia   vulva  
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what structure is the cavity between the labia minora containing the urethral meatus   vestibule  
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what structure secretes lubrication   Bartholin's glands  
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what structure is a rounded prominence over symphysis pubis   mons pubis  
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what structure is the erectile structure of the female anatomy   clitoris  
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what structure is two flat cutaneous flaps containing sebaceous glands   labia minora  
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what structure is the rectal orifice   anus  
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what structure is a thin fold of membrane just inside the vaginal orifice   hymen  
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T/F: the uterus is pear-shaped with a fundus, body, and cervix   True  
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T/F: the ligaments connecting to the pelvic wall include the cardinal, ovarian, and broad   False  
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T/F: the posterior vaginal wall is longer than the anterior vaginal wall   True  
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T/F: the normal cervix lies anterior to the fundus of the uterus   False  
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T/F: the junction between the cervix and vagina is called the cul de sac of Douglas   False  
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T/F: the Graafian follicle releases the oocyte   True  
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T/F: the corpus luteum is responsible for releasing estrogen to maintain endometrial lining   False  
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T/F: the pituitary gland releases LH and FSH to stimulate the development of an oocyte or ovum   True  
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T/F: blood flow is supplied to the uterus via branches of the internal iliac artery   True  
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T/F: the isthmus of the fallopian tube is important in the prevention of endometriosis   True  
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are Braxton-Hicks contractions an indication that delivery of the fetus is imminent   No---False Labor  
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what is used for the prevention of perineal lacerations   episiotomy  
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what is the term for when the fetus' head is too large for maternal birth canal   CPD  
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what is the term for the mother and infant relationship   bonding  
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what is the term for the largest diameter of head encircled by vulvular ring   crowning  
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what is the term for the number of times giving birth   para  
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what is the term for the descent of presenting part of fetus in relation to ischial spines   station  
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what is the term for the opening of the cervix   dilation  
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what is the term for fetal part overlying pelvic inlet   presentation  
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what is the term for when the cervis softens and thins   effacement  
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what is the term for the number of pregnancies   gravida  
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what is stage one of a vaginal delivery   begins with the onset of true labor and is considered complete when the cervix is fully dilated  
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what is stage two of vaginal delivery   begins with complete dilation of the cervix and terminates with the birth of the infant  
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what is stage three of a vaginal delivery   begins with the birth of the infant and ends when the placenta is delivered  
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what is stage four of a vaginal delivery   begins after placenta is delivered and is completed when the mothers condition has stabilized  
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what surgical intervention is commonly done during a normal vaginal delivery and what type of suture is used   episiotomy absorbable--chromic or vicryl  
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cord blood is collected routinely with every delivery--why   to check cord gases (placenta also sent) collect stem cells determine infant blood type  
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what does fetal distress mean   sustained low heart rate  
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what is the most common reason for performing a cesarean section   cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)  
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what is a cystocele   prolapse of the bladder into the vaginal vault  
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what are two reasons a cystocele may occur   congenital defect multipara (multiple deliveries)  
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what procedure is commonly performed with a colposcopy--what condition can be diagnosed   biopsy, cervical cancer  
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list the possible sites for ectopic pregnancy   fallopian tube, peritoneal cavity, ovary, cervix  
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what is meant by the term incompetent cervix   the cervix is weakened and begins to dilate before the full-term of the pregnancy  
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what procedure is performed to treat an incompetent cervix during pregnancy   cervical cerclage  
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define leiomyoma   benign lesions of the uterus  
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what are the symptoms of endometriosis   dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation) dyspareunia (difficult or painful sex) dyschezia (constipation)  
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is ultrasound useful in diagnosing a malignancy   yes  
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what is the most common symptom of uterine cancer   abnormal vaginal bleeding  
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what are two placental conditions that may necessitate a cesarean section   placenta previa placental abruption  
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what is placenta previa   when the placenta partially or totally covers the cervix  
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what is placental abruption   when the placenta peels away, partially or totally, from the inner wall of the uterus  
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amenorrhea is the condition of   absence of menstruation  
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what is a pedunculated lesion   a small wound connected to the underlying tissue by a small stalk  
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in what position will the patient be placed to accomplish a D&C---in addition to the basic position, which position may be used to enhance the surgeon's view of the anatomy   lithotomy, trendelenburg  
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explain the usefulness of the trendelenburg postion during pelvic surgery   moves abdominal organs out of the way to enhance visualization  
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describe the complications that the patient may experience from an undiagnosed or improperly closed perineal laceration   postpartum hemorrhage, sepsis, fistulas, coital pain  
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name two types of suction devices that may be used to clear a neonate's airway   baby bulb syringe, DeLee suction  
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what are the advantages of a "classic" approach for a cesarean section   more room for delivery (fetal size or position problems) to deliver extremely premature baby  
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name the three approaches that are available for tubal sterilization   vaginal colpotomy abdominal minilaparotomy laparoscopy  
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what solution stains abnormal tissue white   acetic acid  
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what medication is used for the prevention of adhesions   10% Dextran 70  
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what solution is used for the Schiller test where abnormal tissue isn't stained   Lugol's solution  
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what medication causes uterine contractions   methergine/Pitocin  
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what solution is a hemostasis agent   Monsel's solution  
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what is used for cryotherapy to remove a lesion   Nitrous oxide or CO2  
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what is used to manipulate the vaginal mucosa during the anterior colporrhaphy   Allis-Adair  
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what are the advantages of the LAVH approach   better visualization of internal structures  
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why is a Foley catheter placed prior to a cesarean section   to prevent bladder distension and possible injury  
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list the structures that will be removed during a total pelvic exenteration   vagina, uterus and cervix, fallopian tubes, ovaries, bladder, rectum  
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what safety measures must be implemented when a laser is in use   wearing laser safety goggles  
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list the drape components that are necessary to drape a patient in the lithotomy position (in order)   buttocks drape,leggings, towels, lithotomy drape  
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what structure/s are removed during a TAH   uterus and cervix  
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list three transverse incisions used for gynecological surgery   Pfannenstiel, Maylard, Cherney  
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what procedure is done for microsurgical reanastomosis with dextran   tuboplasty  
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what procedure is done for the excision of fibroids to preserve uterus for conception   myomectomy  
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what procedure is done to repair a rectocele   posterior colporrhaphy  
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what procedure is done to treat a Bartholin's cyst   marsupialization  
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what procedure is done to treat incomplete spontaneous abortion or menorrhagia   D&C(dilation and curettage)  
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what procedure is performed for someone who desires sterilization   colpotomy tubal ligation  
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what procedure is done for endometrial visualization   hysteroscopy  
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what procedure is done for external genitalia with in situ neoplasia   vulvectomy  
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what procedure is done for incompetent cervical os   Shirodkar cerclage  
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what procedure is done for endocervical suspicious lesions or dysplasia   cold conization  
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what procedure is done to repair a cystocele   anterior colporrhaphy  
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what procedure is done for a ruptured ectopic pregnancy   emergency salpingotomy  
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what is the false pelvis   region between the flared portions of the ilium bones  
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what is the true pelvis   region below the pelvic brim  
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what makes up the bony pelvis or pelvic girdle   iliac crest pubic bone ischium sacrum  
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another name for external female genitalia is   vulva  
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what is the mons pubis   adipose tissue on pubic bone  
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what is another name for Bartholin's glands   vestibular glands  
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where and what is the fourchette   inferior portion or boundary of vagina transverse fold of mucous membrane  
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what pH is the normal flora of the vagina   acidic  
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blood supply for the vagina comes from   branches of the internal iliac arteries  
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blood supply for uterus   uterine arteries derived from internal iliac arteries  
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nerves for uterus   ovarian and hypogastric plexuses  
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what are the four ligaments of the uterus   cardinal, uterosacral, broad, round  
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where do the cardinal (transverse cervical) ligaments connect   cervix and lateral parts of fornix to lateral walls of pelvis  
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where do the uterosacral ligaments connect   superiorly and slightly posteriorly from the sides of the cervix to the middle of the sacrum separated by straight tag  
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where to the round ligaments connect   lateral aspect of the uterus, passing anteriorly through the broad ligament, inserting into the labia majora separated with curved tag  
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where do the broad ligaments connect   sides of the uterus to the lateral walls and floor of the pelvis  
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where do the fallopian tubes open   uterine os (cornu) and abdominal os (fimbria)  
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what is the function of the ovaries   production and expulsion of oocytes/ova/eggs release of the hormones estrogen and progesterone  
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what ligament connects the ovary and uterus   suspensory (ovarian) ligament  
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what are oxytocics used for and what are examples   hemostasis, uterine contractions pitocin and cinatocin  
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what is Lugol's solution used for   identifying abnormal tissue  
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when Lugol's solution is used what is it called and what do the results mean   Schiller's test tissue stained brown is normal tissue with no stain is abnormal  
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acetic acid is used for and the results mean   remove mucous on the cervix during colposcopy stains lesions white  
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what are Hyskon, Dextrose, and Dextran used for   hysteroscopic exams visualizations, prevents adhesions in abdomen  
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what are 3 other drugs used for hemostasis in OB/GYN   hemabate, ergotrate, methergine  
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what does hemabate do   makes uterus contract and cervix dilate used for non-viable pregnancies  
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what does ergotrate and methergine do   control hemorrhage by uterine muscle contraction  
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what is Monsel's solution   ferrous sulfate put on cervix to help with hemostasis  
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what are methylene blue and indigo carmine used for   to check patency of fallopian tubes if tubes are patent, blue comes out of fimbria  
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how do you prevent adhesion formation (which can affect getting pregnant)   remove powder from gloves copious intraop irrigation gentle tissue handling  
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meconium is   first intestinal discharges of a newborn DeLee suction apparatus used  
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what is a cervical/Shirodkar's/McDonald's cerclage   close an incompetent cervix to prevent sponatneous abortion 5 Mersilene pursestring stitch  
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what is the Papanicolaou (Pap) test   swab to rule out cervical dysplasia (abnormal changes in tissue covering cervix)  
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what is a colposcopy   visualization of cervix and vagina  
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what is hysteroscopy   visualization of internal uterus to check for adhesions, polyps, tumors, fibroids need irrigation to prevent adhesions  
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what is a cervical biopsy   evaluating abnormal cervical tissue after positive pap smear use Lugol's solution cold steel = #11 hot steel = connected to ESU  
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what does EUA stand for   exam under anesthesia  
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what is endometrial ablation   destruction of endometrial tissue because of abnormal/excessive bleeding  
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what is TAH   total abdominal hysterectomy--removal of uterus and cervix  
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what is myomectomy   excision of uterine fibroids complication--adhesion formation  
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what is uterine radiation seeding   radiation therapy for endometrial cancer  
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what is oophorectomy   removal of ovaries  
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what is salpingectomy   removal of fallopian tubes  
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what is tuboplasty   reconstruction of fallopian tube to restore patency anastomosis of tubes open procedure  
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what is a labioplasty   reduce size of labia sexual enhancement, trauma  
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what is vulvectomy   removal of external female genitalia (clitoris, mons pubis, labia majora/minora) to treat cancer  
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what is ablation of condyloma   obliteration of vaginal warts not a sterile procedure  
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what is marsupialization of Bartholin's glands (cystectomy)   conversion of a closed cavity to create an open pouch...open obstructed duct I&D, culture  
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what is wertheim procedure   radical hysterectomy pelvic lymph nodes, wide removal of uterus, tubes, ovaries, ligaments, upper vagina removed  
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Braxton-Hicks   "false" labor; normal contractions not associated with progressive cervical dilation  
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"bloody show"   a term used to describe a small amount of blood-tinged mucus flowing from the vagina; may herald the onset of labor  
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extension rotation   rotation of the fetal head back to its original position as the head passes over the perineum  
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flexion   a change in the relative position of the cervical spine bring the fetal head toward the chest  
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number one reason for cesarean section   failure to progress  
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what does menorrhagia mean   excessive bleeding during menses  
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what does metrorrhagia mean   active uterine bleeding at times other than menses  
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