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BR-Immunology

5/30/06

QuestionAnswer
What part of the L and H chain recognizes antigens? the variable part
What part of the H chain of IgM and IgG fixes complement? the constant part
Which chain contributes to Fc and Fab fractions? the heavy chain
Which part contributes only to the Fab fraction? the light chain
Stuff to remember about Fc: (4) Constant, Carboxy terminal, Complement binding (IgG and IgM only), Carbohydrate side chains
What is antibody opsonization? antibodies promote phagocytosis
What is antibody neutralization? antibody prevents bacterial adherence
What is antibody complement activation? it forms a Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) where antibody activates complement which enhances opsonization and lysis
IgG isotype Most abundant; main antibody in 2* response; fixes complement, crosses PLACENTA, opsonizes bacteria, neutralizes bacterial TOXINS and viruses
IgA isotype Found in Secretions; Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes, does not fix complement; Picks up secretory component from epithelial cells before secretion; monomer or dimer
IgM isotype Antigen receptor on surface of B cells; Produced in 1* response to antigen; fixes complement, but does not cross placenta; monomer or pentamer
IgE isotype Lowest [ ] in serum; Mediates Immediate Type I Hypersensitivity by inducing release of mediators from mast cells and basophils when exposed to antigen; Mediates immunity to WORMS
Allotype (polymorphism) Ig epitope that differs among members of SAME SPECIES; can be on heavy or light chain
Isotype (IgG, IgA, etc) Ig epitope common to a single class of Ig (ex: 5 classes all determined by HEAVY chain); iso = same class
Idiotype (specific for a given antigen) Ig epitope determined by antigen-binding site; idio = unique; HYPERVARIABLE region
MHC consists of: 3 Classes if I genes (A, B, C) and 3 Classes of II genes (DP, DQ, DR)
All nucleated cells have what type of MHC protein? MHC I; a single polypeptide with a beta2-microglobin
What type of MHC protein is the main determinant of organ rejection? MHC II; 2 polypeptides with an alpha and beta chain
What type of cells have MHC II proteins? macrophages, dendritic cells
Where does MHC I antigen loading occur? in the RER; they pick up VIRAL antigens
Where does MHC II antigen loading occur? in acidificed endosomes
Th 1 cells produce _ and _ which activate _ and _ IL-2 and interferon-gamma; MQs and cytotoxic T cells
Th 2 cells produce _ and _ which help... IL-4 and IL-5; B cells make antibody
Antibody/humoral-mediated immunity B cells; host defense against infection (opsonize bacteria, neutralize toxins and viruses); Allergies (ex: hay fever); Autoimmunity
Cell-mediated immunity T cells; host defense against infx (esp M. tuberculosis, virus-infected cells and fungi); Allergies (ex: poison oak); Graft and tumor rejection; Regulation of antibody response (help and suppression)
Adjuvants (ex: vaccines containing aluminum hydroxide or lipids) nonspecific stimulators of the immune response; not immunogenic alone; these are given with a weak immunogen to enhance response
Helper T cells have CD4, which binds to... MHC II on APCs
Cytotoxic T cells have CD8, which binds to... MHC I on any virus-infected cell in the body
CD3 Complexes clusters of polypeptides a/w a T cell receptor; they are important for signal transduction
Which cells are Antigen Presenting Cells? MQs, Bcells, Dendritic cells
Activation of T helper cells (4 steps) 1. foreign body phagocytosed by APC; 2. Foreign antigen presented on MHC II and recognized by TCR on Th cell; 3. "Co-stimulatory signal" is given by interaction btw B7 & CD28; 4. Activated Th cell produces IL-2 and IFN-gamma
IL-2 specifically activates... cytotoxic cells (CD8)
Interferon-gamma (from helper T cells) specifically activates macrophages
What activates a naive (Th0) cell to differentiate? IL-12 (from MQ) and IL-4 (from some human cell); IL-12 induces Th1 (CD8 path) and IL-4 induces Th2 (B-cell path)
Cytotoxic Tcell activation occurs when... endogenously synthesized (viral or self) proteins are presented on MHC I and recognized by TCR on Tc cel; IL-2 from Th cell activates Tc to kill virus infected cell
What is Anergy? A state of non-responsiveness to aT or B cell's specific antigen, even in optimal conditions of stimulation
How can I remember important cytokines? "Hot T-bone stEAk"
what does "Hot T-bone stEAk" stand for? IL-1 (hot; fever); IL-2 (T cells); IL-3 (bone marrow); IL-4 (IgE); IL-5 (IgA)
IL-8 function chemotactic for NEUTROPHILS
TNF-alpha secreted by MQs; increases IL-2 receptor synthesis by helper T cells; Increases B cell production; Attracts and activates PMNs
TNF-beta secreted by activated T lymphos; similar function to TNF-alpha (inc IL-2 synth, inc Bcell proliferation, attracts/activates PMNs)
What kind of markers are on a T helper cell? CD4, TCR, CD3, CD28
What kind of markers are on a Cytotoxic T cell? CD8, TCR, CD3
What kind of markers are on a B cell? IgM, B7, CD19, CD20
Which markers are on MQs? MHC II; CD14
Which markers are on NK cells? receptors for MHC I, CD16
What is the only cell type in the body that doesn't express MHC I? mature RBCs
Which cytokines are responsible for initiating the Acute Phase Response? IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha
What is activated in an Acute Phase Response? Bcells (Abs), Tcells (cytotoxicity), PMNs (phagocytosis), Liver (acute phase reactants/compl/opsoniz), BM (colony stim/leukocytosis); Hypothalamus (inc temp); Fat/muscle (energy/temp); APCs (TNF-a for migration to nodes/adaptive response)
Increased body temperature does what in an Acute Phase Response? increases specific immune response, increases antigen processing, decreases viral and bacterial replication
Complement defends against what type of pathogen? Gram-negative bacteria
What activates complement 's CLASSIC Pathway? IgG or IgM; "GM makes Classic cars"
What activates complement's ALTERNATE Pathway? molecules on the surface of microbes (especially ENDOTOXIN)
Complement Function: C1, C2, C3, C4 Viral neutralization
Complement Function: C3b Opsonization
Complement Function: C3a, C5a Anaphylaxis
Complement Function: C5a Neutrophil chemotaxis
Complement Function: C5b-C9 Cytolysis by MAC (membrane attack complex)
Deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor leads to: Hereditary Angioedema d/t overactive complement
Deficiency of C3 leads to: Severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections
Deficiency of C6-C8 leads to: Neisseria bacteremia
Deficiency of Decay-Accelerating Factor (DAF) leads to: Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoblobinuria (PNH)
Inferferons (alpha, beta, gamma) are proteins that... Interferes with viral protein synthesis (put uninfected cells in an antiviral state; they induce the production of a 2nd protein that inhibits viral protein synthesis by degrading its mRNA)
alpha and beta interferons inhibit viral ptn synthesis
gamma-interferon increases expression of: MHC I and II and antigen presentation in all cells AND activates NKs to kill virus infected cells
Type I hypersensitivity anaphylactic and atopic; Ag x-links IgE on presensitized mast cells & basophils triggering release of vasoactive amines; rapid rxn d/t preformed Ab; ex: anaphylaxis, asthma, hives, local wheal and flare
Type II hypersensitivity Cytotoxic; IgM & IgG bind Ag on "enemy" cells, cause lysis (by complement) or phagocytosis; Ex: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Rh dz, Goodpasture', Rheumatic fever, Graves dz, bullous pemphigoid); Ab + Complement = MAC (membrane attack complexes)
Type III hypersensitivity Immune Complex (Ag-Ab-Complement), Serum Sickness (5 days post drug exposure, immune complexes are deposited in membranes, fix complement & causing tissue damage), or Arthus reaction (intradermal local edema, necrosis, complement activation)
What are some symptoms of serum sickness (type III hypersensitivity)? fever, urticaria, arthralgias, proteinuria, lymphadenopathy; all developing 5-10 days after antigen exposure
Type IV hypersensitivity delayed (cell-mediated) type; sensitized T cells encounter Ag and then release lymphokines leading to MQ activation; Ex: Transplants, TB tests, Touching (contact dermatitis)
Bruton's Agammaglobulinemia (B cell deficiency) XR (Boys); Low levels of all Ig classes; Recurrent Bacterial infxns after 6mo when mom's IgG declines; defective Tyrosine Kinase (BTK)
Selective Immunoglobulin deficiency (B cell deficiency) Selective IgA is most common; Sinus & Lung infections; Deficiency in a specific Ig class (possibly d/t defect in isotype switching);
Thymic Aplasia/DiGeorge Syndrome (T cell deficiency) Failure of 3rd/4th pharyngeal pouches; Presents as Tetany (hypocalcemia); Recurrent viral/fungal infxns; CATCH 22 (cardiac, abnml facies, thymic hypoplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcemia, 22-chrom);
Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis T cell deficiency specifically against Candida albicans; Presents with skin/mucous infxns
Severe Combined Immunideficiency (SCID) Defect in early stem cell differentiation (No B or T cells); Recurrent Viral, Bacterial, Fungal, & Protozoal infxns; may have multiple causes (failure to synthesize MHC II antigens, defective IL-2 receptors, Adenosine deaminase deficiency)
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (T and B cell deficiency) X-linked defect in ability for IgM response to CAPSULAR polysaccharides of bacteria; Elevated IgA, Normal IgE, LOW IgM; Recurrent pyogenic infxns, thrombocytopenic Purpura, Eczema
Ataxia-Telangiectasia (B and T cell deficiency) Defective DNA repair enzymes & IgA deficiency; Cerebellar/ataxic (18mo) problems and Spider Angiomas (school age)
Chronic Granulomatous Disease defect in PMN phagocytosis d/t lack of NADPH oxidase; Susceptible to OPPORTUNISTIC infxns (S. aureus, E. coli, Aspergillus, Salmonella, Nocardia); Dx Confirmed with Negative Nitroblue Tetrazolium dye reduction test
Chediak-Higashi Disease Auto Recessive; vesicle fusion defect/microtubular fxn/lysosomal emptying of phagocytic cells; Recurrent Pyogenic infxns by Staph and Strep; Granulomas affecting many organs
Job's Syndrome Recurrent "cold" (non-inflamed) staph abscesses, eczema, High IgE; Failure of gamma-interferon production by Th cells; PMNs fail to respond to chemotactic stimuli
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency Syndrome Defect in LFA-1 adhesion proteins on Phagocytes; Early life, severe Pyogenic infxns and wound healing problems
Hyper-IgM Syndrome Defect in CD40 Ligand on CD4 Thelper cells leads to inability to class switch; Presents early in life w/Severe Pyogenic infxns; Very High IgM (very low IgE, IgG, IgA); Sores in mouth d/t granulocyte deficiency
IL-12 Receptor Deficiency Presents with Disseminated Mycobacterial Infections (IL-12 needed for activation of Th0 to transform into Th1 cells for MQ/CD8 activation; DO NOT Give BCG vaccine
Active Immunity induced after exposure to foreign Ag; slow onset; long-lasting protection (memory)
Passive Immunity pt's are given preformed Abs "To Be Healed Rapidly" = Tetanus toxin, Botulinum toxin, HBV, or Rabies; Rapid onset; Short lifespan of Abs in pt
Antigen variation: Bacteria Salmonella (2 flagellar variants); Borrelia (relapsing fever); Neisseria gonorrheae (pilus protein)
Antigen variation: Virus Influenza (major = shift (RNA segment rearrangemen); minor = drift)
Antigen variation: Parasites Trypanosomes (programmed rearrangement)
Hyperacute Transplant Rejection Ab-mediated d/t presence of PREFORMED anti-donor antibodies in recipient; occurs w/in MINUTES; Type I hypersensitivity
Acute Transplant Rejection Cell-mediated d/t cytotoxic Tcells reacting against foreign MHCs; occurs weeks after transplantation; reversible with immunosuppressants such as cyclosporin or OKT3; Type IV hypersensitivity
Chronic Transplant Rejection Antibody mediated vascular damage; Fibrionoid necrosis; Occurs months to years after transplantation; IRREVERSIBLE
Graft-versus-host disease Grafted immunocompetent T cells proliferate in irradiated immunocompromised host and reject cells with "foreign" proteins, resulting in SEVERE HOST ORGAN FAILURE; Maculopapular rash, Jaundice, Hepatosplenomegaly, Diarrhea
Created by: bscaryp
 

 



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