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Multiple Choice NSG
All of the "Medical Terminology in a Flash" multiple choice questions.
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition? a) Ambi-: against b) An-: with c) Pan-: without d) Bi-: two | d) Bi-: two |
| The prefixes hemi- and semi- mean: a) Both, both sides b) Twice, two, double c) Half d) Whole | c) Half |
| Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition? a) Infra-: above b) Pro-: beyond c) Re-: behind, back d) Ultra-: after | c) Re-: behind, back |
| Which of the following prefixes means bad or inadequate? a) Mal- b) Eu- c) Tox- d) Auto- | a) Mal- |
| The prefix auto- means: a) New b) Poison c) Self d) None of these | c) Self |
| The suffix -pexy means: a) widening, stretching, expanding b) Surgical fixation c) Surgical puncture d) Measurement | b) Surgical fixation |
| Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition? a) -phoria: fear b) -phobia: feeling c) -dynia: pain d) -algia: sound | c) -dynia: pain |
| Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition? a) -edema: eating b) -lith: loosening c) -malacia: softening d) -megaly: measurement | c) -malacia: softening |
| Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition? a) -paresis: pregnancy b) -partum: partial c) -plegia: pain d) -pnea: breathing | d) -pnea: breathing |
| All of the following suffixes mean pertaining to EXCEPT: a) -ar b) -ory c) -itis d) -tic | c) -itis |
| All of the following prefixes mean without, not, or absence of EXCEPT: a) an- b) in- c) uni- d) a- | c) uni- |
| Which of the following prefixes means all? a) pan- b) ambi- c) multi- d) micro- | a) pan- |
| The prefix di- means: a) diagonal b) diagram c) dilate d) None of these | d) None of these |
| The prefixes a-, an-, and in- all mean: a) both, double b) without, not, of c) many, much d) None of these | b) without, not, of |
| Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition? a) mono-: one, single b) multi-: twice c) a-: with d) hemi-: whole | a) mono-: one, single |
| Which of the following prefixes is matched with the correct definition? a) neo-: new b) eu-: good, normal c) dys-: bad, painful d) All of these | d) All of these |
| Which of the following prefixes means bad, painful, or difficult? a) tox- b) eu- c) dys- d) neo- | c) dys- |
| The prefix neo- means: a) self b) bad c) new d) none of these | c) new |
| The suffix -ician means: a) Field of medicine b) Study of c) Specialist d) Physician | c) Specialist |
| Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition? a) -lysis: flow, discharge b) -cele: pregnant woman c) -kinesia: movement d) -uresis: eating, swallowing | c) -kinesia: movement |
| Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition? a) -ology: study of b) -opsy: vision, view of c) -cidal: destroying, killing d) All of these | d) All of these |
| Which of the following suffixes is matched with the correct definition? a) -iasis: illusion b) -necrosis: tissue death c) -oma: hernia d) -oxia: air | b) -necrosis: tissue death |
| All of the following suffixes mean pain EXCEPT: a) -algesic b) -dynia c) -phobia d) -algia | c) -phobia |
| Which of the following terms has been correctly changed to the plural form? a) thorax: thoraces b) diagnosis: diagnoses c) diverticulum: diverticula d) All of these | d) All of these |
| Which of the following prefixes means in, within, or inner? a) endo- b) contra- c) super- d) trans- | a) endo- |
| What term describes the position of the elbow relative to the wrist? a) anterior b) distal c) lateral d) superior | d) superior |
| What term describes the position of the fingers relative to the wrist? a) superior b) medial c) distal d) anterior | c) distal |
| All of the following are types of tissue in the human body EXCEPT: a) staphylococci b) connective c) nervous d) muscle | a) staphylococci |
| Movement away from the body is known as? a) adduction b) abduction c) addiction d) transverse | b) abduction |
| What term describes the position of the mouth relative to the nose? a) superior b) dorsal c) proximal d) inferior | d) inferior |
| Where is the right lung, in reference to the heart? a) anterior b) proximal c) lateral d) ventral | c) lateral |
| Which of the following statements is true? a) Squamous cells are cube shaped. b) Cuboidal cells are cylindrical in shape. c) Columnar cells are cube shaped. d) None of these | d) None of these |
| Which of the following terms is not paired with the correct meaning? a) erythr/o: red b) xanth/o: white c) melan/o: black d) cyan/o: blue | b) xanth/o: white |
| Which of the following abbreviations is not paired with the correct meaning? a) Bx: biopsy b) Tx: treatment c) PE: physical examination d) FA: family history | FA: family history |
| Which of the following pathology terms is not paired with the correct meaning? a) abrasion: scraping away of skin b) contusion: bruise c) macule: small, raised spot or bump on the skin d) cellulitis: bacterial skin infection | c) macule: small, raised spot or bump on the skin |
| Which of the following terms is not paired with the correct meaning? a) comedo: blackhead b) cyst: fluid or solid containing pouch in or under the skin c) postule: small pus filled blister d) fissure: surgical cut in the flesh | d) fissure: surgical cut in the flesh |
| Which of the following terms is not paired with the correct meaning? a) eczema: inflammatory skin disease b) scabies: contagious skin disease transmitted by the itch mite c) Impetigo: patchy loss of skin pigmentation d) Tinea: Fungal skin disease | c) Impetigo: patchy loss of skin pigmentation |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) Adip/o: acne b) Cutane/o: cell c) Necr/o: dead d) Myc/o: macule | c) Necr/o: dead |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) seb/o: sweat b) son/o: shape c) cyan/o: cause d) xanth/o: yellow | d) xanth/o: yellow |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) dermat/o: dead b) cyt/o: cell c) idi/o: cause d) leuk/o: large | b) cyt/o: cell |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) xer/o: white b) albin/o: hardening c) chromat/o: cornea d) erythr/o: red | d) erythr/o: red |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) hidr/o: water b) morph/o: malignant c) onych/o: nail d) rhytid/o: hair | c) onych/o: nail |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) SCC: subcutaneous b) Bx: treatment c) ID: incision and drainage d) Ung: ointment | d) Ung: ointment |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) cirrh/o: blue b) xer/o: dry c) melan/o: malignant d) trich/o: treatment | b) xer/o: dry |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) PE: probable etiology b) Sx: treatment c) FH: hair fungus d) MM: malignant melanoma | d) malignant melanoma |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) lip/o: skin b) eti/o: unknown c) hydr/o: sweat d) pil/o: hair | d) pil/o: hair |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) kerat/o: cyst b) dermat/o: skin c) path/o: papule d) scler/o: scales | b) dermat/o: skin |
| Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of nail softening? a) cyanoderma b) onychomycosis c) hyperhidrosis d) none of these | d) none of these |
| The term hyperrhytidosis means: a) disease of the skin b) abnormal condition of excessive wrinkles c) dry skin d) none of these | b) abnormal condition of excessive wrinkles |
| A patient is most likely to visit a dermatologist to undergo dermaplaning for which of the following disorders? a) acne b) alopecia areata c) carbuncle d) cyst | a) acne |
| Which of the following is a malignant condition? a) actinic keratosis b) bulla c) folliculitis d) basal cell carcinoma | d) basal cell carcinoma |
| Which of the following is the result of accidental injury? a) callus b) melasma c) paronychia d) abrasion | d) abrasion |
| All of the following are related to excess pressure EXCEPT: a) corn b) callus c) fissure d) decubitis ulcer | c) fissure |
| All of the following are infections of the skin EXCEPT: a) petechiae b) furuncle c) impetigo d) pustule | a) petechiae |
| All of the following procedures involve removal of tissue except: a) biopsy b) dermaplaning c) dermabrasion d) botox | d) botox |
| Which of the following helps to remove fine lines or wrinkles? a) laser resurfacing b) microdermabrasion c) dermaplaning d) all of these | d) all of these |
| Which of the following is done to aid in diagnosis? a) microdermabrasion b) botox c) biopsy d) none of these | c) biopsy |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) cephal/o: brain b) gangli/o: glue, gluelike c) narc/o: nerve d) ton/o: tension | d) ton/o: tension |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) thalam/o: strength b) myel/o: meninges c) phas/o: speech d) cerebr/o: cranium | c) phas/o: speech |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) lex/o: word, phrase b) radicul/o: reflex c) mening/o: brain d) ventricul/o: vertebrae | a) lex/o: word, phrase |
| Which disorder is caused by lesions or abnormalities of the brain arising in the early stages of development? a) ALS b) Bell Palsy c) Huntington Disease d) Cerebral Palsy | d) Cerebral Palsy |
| Which of the following causes progressive confusion? a) delerium b) dementia c) TIA d) cerebral concussion | b) dementia |
| Which of the following causes an acute form of progressive paralysis? a) GBS b) Bell Palsy c) Huntington Disease d) Spinal Stenosis | a) GBS |
| A chronic, progressive, degenerative neuromuscular disorder that destroys motor neurons of the body is: a) ALS b) MS c) Parkinson Disease d) Spina Bifida | a) ALS |
| Which of the following causes temporary memory loss? a) MS b) TIA c) TGA d) OCD | c) TGA |
| Delerium is: Know this definition - the choices are too long for the 256 character max allowed in the flash card. | a) an acute, reversible state of agitated confusion marked by disorientation, hallucinations, or delusions |
| A collection of blood between the dura and the arachnoid is known as: a) a cerebral concussion b) a subdural hematoma c) a cerebral contusion d) spina bifida | b) a subdural hematoma |
| A serious disease associated with asprin use by children in viral illnesses is: a) trigeminal neuralgia b) tetanus c) reye syndrome d) cerebral palsy | c) reye syndrome |
| Which of the following abbreviations refers to a diagnostic procedure? a) CVA b) ICP c) LP d) LOC | c) LP |
| All of the following abbreviations indicate diagnostic procedures EXCEPT: a) CT b) EEG c) EMG d) PNS | d) PNS |
| Which of the following terms means brain tumor? a) Cephaloma b) Encephaloma c) Ganglioma d) Maningioma | b) Encephaloma |
| Which of the following terms means pertaining to a seizure (episode) of sleepp or stupor? a) narcoleptic b) tonic c) glial d) neuralgia | a) narcoleptic |
| Which of the following terms means bad, painful, or difficult speech? a) dysphagia b) euphasia c) dysphasia d) aphasia | c) dysphasia |
| The term rediculitis indicates inflammations of the: a) Ganglion b) Brain c) Thalamus d) none of these | d) none of the above |
| A term that indicates a condition of muscle weakness is: a) Myasthenia b) Myalgia c) Myosclerosis d) None of these | a) Myasthenia |
| A term that indicates hardening of the brain is: a) cerebroma b) encephalotome c) cephalodynia d) none of these | d) none of these |
| A term that indicates inflammation of the brain and meninges is: a) cerebritis b) neuroencephalitis c) cerebellitis d) encephalomeningitis | d) encephalomeningitis |
| Which of the following disorders does not involve an interface in blood flow? a) ischemia b) myocardial infarction c) mitral stenosis d) arrhythmia | d) arrhythmia |
| Which of the following does not involve the heart rhythm? a) v-tach b) PAC c) v-fib d) TIA | d) TIA |
| Which of the following abbreviations stands for the name of chamber of the heart? a) BP b) EKG c) RA d) PCP | c) RA |
| All of the following refer to a part of the heart EXCEPT: a) RA b) RV c) MI d) LV | c) MI |
| Which of the following may cause temporary strokelike symptoms? a) CHF b) TIA c) LA d) CPR | b) TIA |
| Which of the following tems is matched to the correct definition? a) angi/o: thick, fatty b) hem/o: heart c) arteri/o: aorta d) Phleb/o: vein | d) Phleb/o: vein |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) atri/o: atria b) vascul/o: valve c) hemo/o: thrombus d) ventricul/o: blood vessel | a) atri/o: atria |
| All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: a) aort/o: aorta b) cardi/o: heart c) hemat/o: blood d) vas/o: vascular | d) vas/o: vascular |
| Which of the following abbreviations represents a test or a procedure? a) MR b) INR c) Bpm d) MVP | b) INR |
| Which of the following abbreviations represents a dosing schedule? a) Bpm b) Bid c) PTT d) P | b) Bid |
| Which of the following abbreviations represents a type of heart disease? a) DVT b) ASHD c) PT d) PVC | b) ASHD |
| Which of the following is a type of heart rhythm abnormality? a) cardiomyopathy b) atrial fibrillation c) murmur d) thromboanglitis obliterans | b) atrial fibrillation |
| Coronary artery disease includes which of the following components? a) murmur and bruit b) athersclerosis and arteriosclerosis c) heart failure and malignant hypertension d) mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis | b) athersclerosis and arteriosclerosis |
| Which of the following is related to incompetent valves? a) hypertension b) varicose veins c) myocardial infarction d) myocarditis | b) varicose veins |
| A surgeon performing a CABG will need to include which of the following? a) angiorrhaphy b) aortimalacia c) valvuloplasty d) hematemesis | a) angiorrhaphy |
| Dr. Shu is studying a piece of paper with the patient's heart-rhythm strip on it. the paper she is studying is an: a) electrocardiography b) electrocardiogram c) electocardiograph d) electrocardiogravida | b) electrocardiogram |
| The process of dissolving or destroying a blood clot is called: a) thrombocytosis b) thrombosclerosis c) thrombolytic d) thrombolysis | d) thrombolysis |
| A term that indicates the surgical puncture of a vein is: a) ventoplasty b) phlebocentesis c) vasopexy d) arteriotripsy | b) phlebocentesis |
| Which of the following means bursting forth of blood? a) hemolysis b) hemorrhage c) hematoma d) hematogenesis | b) hemorrhage |
| An instrument used to cut the heart may be called a: a) cardiotomy b) cardiotome c) cardiostomy d) cardiectomy | b) cardiotome |
| As an aortic aneurysm develops, the following occurs: a) aortomalacia b) aortodilation c) aortopexy d) aortodesis | b) aortodilation |
| A test to examine heart vessels is: a) a CABG b) an angiography c) an arterioplasty d) a coronometry | b) an angiography |
| Which of the following terms means creating disease? a) pathogenic b) pathology c) pathologist d) pathogen | a) pathogenic |
| Which of the following is a type of cancer? a) hodgkin disease b) CHF c) DVT d) TIA | a) hodgkin disease |
| A disorder that causes the slow onset of muscle weakness and pain in the muscles of the trunk, and progresses to affect the muscles of the neck, shoulders, back and hip is: a) polymyositis b) scleroderma c) sjogren syndrome d) Systemic lupus erythemat | a) polymyositis |
| Which of the following is responsible for causing acquired immunodeficiency syndrome? a) HIV b) RV c) CAD d) LV | a) HIV |
| Which of the following is related to a vitamin B deficit? a) Pernicious anemia b) hodgkin disease c) polymyositis d) Graft-versus-host-disease | a) Pernicious anemia |
| Which of the following means pertaining to bone-marrow cells? a) lymphocytic b) myelogenous c) myelocytic d) lymphangiocyte | c) myelocytic |
| Which of the following terms means tumor of a lymphatic vessel? a) lymphangioma b) lymphadenoma c) lymphadenopathy d) angiomyoma | a) lymphangioma |
| Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of lymph cells? a) lymphogenesis b) lymphocytosis c) adenopathy d) lymphokinesis | b) lymphocytosis |
| Which of the following terms menas hernia of the spinal cord and meninges? a) myeloma b) myelomeningoma c) myelomeningocele d) myelomalacia | c) myelomeningocele |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) tox/o: disease b) angi/o: vessel c) path/o: poison d) aden/o: adeniod | b) angi/o: vessel |
| All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: a) vas/o: vessel b) ser/o: spleen c) myel/o: bone marrow d) lymphangi/o: lymphatic vessel | b) ser/o: spleen |
| Which of the following has been called the kissing disease? a) EBV b) EIA c) ESR d) SLE | a) EBV |
| Which of the following abbreviations stands for the name of a test used to monitor disorders that cause inflammation in the body? a) EBV b) EIA c) ESR d) SLE | c) ESR |
| Which of the following abbreviations represents the name of a disorder that may affect transplant patients? a) AIDS b) KS c) PCP d) GVHD | d) GVHD |
| Which of the following abbreviations is related to cancer? a) MET b) Ag c) EIA d) Ab | a) MET |
| A disorder in whoch a deficiency of platelets results in abnormal blood clotting, marked by tiny purple bruises that form under the skin is: a) ITP b) CFS c) SS d) SLE | a) ITP |
| A group of autoimmune diseases that cause inflammatory and fibrotic changes to skin, muscles, joints, tendons, cartilage and other connective tissue is: a) sjorgen syndrome b) scleroderma c) systemic lupus erythematosus d) polymyositis | b) scleroderma |
| Which of the following terms means skin (disease caused by) poison? a) toxicoderma b) dermopathy c) dermatomycosis d) toxicopathy | a) toxicoderma |
| Which of the following terms means suturing of the spleen? a) splenorrhexis b) splenodesis c) splenocentesis d) splenorrhaphy | d) splenorrhaphy |
| Which of the following terms means condition of a good (healthy) thymus? a) Dysthymic b) euthymia c) neothymia d) endothymic | b) euthymia |
| Which of the following terms means study of serum? a) serologist b) serous c) serology d) seroma | c) serology |
| A course, gurgling sound heard with a stethoscope in the lungs, caused by secretions in the air passages, is known as: a) crackles b) stridor c) rhonchi d) wheezes | c) rhonchi |
| Which of the following tests provides an indirect measure of the level of arterial-blood oxygen saturation? a) pulse oximetry b) arterial blood gasses c) vital capacity d) sputum analysis | a) pulse oximetry |
| Which of the following terms indicates a condition of low oxygen? a) apnea b) hypoxia c) dyspnea d) eupnea | b) hypoxia |
| Which of the following terms means mouthlike opening in the trachea? a) tracheotomy b) thracheotome c) tracheostomy d) tracheoscopy | c) tracheostomy |
| Mrs. Yachinich sleeps propped up on three pillows so she can breathe better. Which of the following terms describes this condition? a) orthopnea b) aerophagia c) pneumonplegia d) aerophobia | a) orthopnea |
| Which of the following terms is matched with the correct definition? a) coni/o: dust b) chondr/o: cancer c) Phon/o: pharynx d) Spir/o: sinus | a) coni/o: dust |
| All of the following terms are matched with the correct definition EXCEPT: a) chondr/o: cartilage b) rhin/o: nose c) stomat/o: mouth d) pleur/o: lung | d) pleur/o: lung |
| Which of the following is related to coryza? a) CWP b) URI c) AFB d) ARDS | b) URI |
| Which of the following indicates a surgical procedure? a) T & A b) PPD c) PND d) MDI | a) T & A |
| All of the following refer to abnormal breathing sounds except: a) crackles b) stridor c) orthopnea d) wheexe | c) orthopnea |
| Which of the following terms indicates the surgical removal of a portion of a lung? a) pneumothorax b) pleurocentesis c) pneumotomy d) lobectomy | d) lobectomy |
| If the surgeon places a drainage tube through the patient's chest cavity, it may be described as: a) pneumatic b) transthoracic c) intrapleural d) lobar | b) transthoracic |
| What word describes the normal location of pleural fluid? a) interpleural b) endotracheal c) contralateral d) circumoral | a) interpleural |
| A patient who is breathing normally may be described as demonstrating: a) hyperpnea b) eupnea c) dyspnea d) tachypnea | b) eupnea |
| An artificial opening in the neck which helps a person breathe is: a) tracheostomy b) tracheotomy c) tracheotome d) none of these | a) tracheostomy |
| Which of the following indicates a sense of urgency? a) CPAP b) CXR c) Stat d) R | c) Stat |
| Which of the following conditions involves infection? a) hemothorax b) empyema c) epistaxis d) hemoptysis | b) empyema |
| Which of the following involves abnormal tissue growths? a) nasal polyps b) histoplasmosis c) pneumoconiosis d) silicosis | a) nasal polyps |
| Which of the following conditions involves birds? a) histoplasmosis b) asbestosis c) coryza d) legionellosis | a) histoplasmosis |
| Which of the following might cause a person to belch more frequently? a) bronchitis b) aerophagia c) contosis d) dysphonia | b) aerophagia |
| Which of the following conditions is most likely to block a patient's airway? a) pneumonitis b) anthracosis c) epiglottedema d) thoracentesis | c) epiglottedema |
| All of the following involve the collection of a substance within the intrapleural space EXCEPT: a) hemothorax b) pneumothorax c) empyema d) emphysema | d) emphysema |
| Which of the following is done to cause the two membranes covering the lungs to adhere to each other? a) oximetry b) pleurodesis c) angiography d) sputum analysis | b) pleurodesis |
| Which of the following is most useful in measuring the patient's lung capacity? a) pulmonary function test b) mantoux test c) postural drainage d) sputum analysis | a) pulmonary function test |
| Mr. Green is a 63 year-old man with heartburn (GERD). When it flares up, he experiences: a) gastromegaly b) esophagoplegia c) esophagodynia d) gastromalacia | c) esophagodynia |
| 2) Mr. Smith has come into the clinic with symptoms that are consistent with heartburn (GERD). Which of the following will accurately diagnose this condition? a) laparoscopy b) upper endoscopy c) esophagectomy d) enteropathy | b) upper endoscopy |
| Ms. Diaz is a 47 year-old woman with a bowel obstruction caused by a portion of he bowel twisting upon itself. this condition is known as: a) intussusception b) ulcerative colitis c) volvulus d) cirrhosis | c) volvulus |
| Which of the following terms is not related to a part of the small intestine? a) duoden/o b) jujen/o c) colon/o d) ile/o | c) colon/o |
| To obtain multiple three-dimensional images of a body structure, the physician will order: a) a barium swallow b) a CT scan c) an ERCP d) a UGI | b) a CT scan |
| Mr. Washington, a 27 year-old man, has a sore throat caused by inflammation. Which of the following is the correct medical term for this condition? a) pharyngitis b) phayngostenosis c) colitis d) stomatitis | a) pharyngitis |
| Which of the following terms means bad, difficult, or painful swallowing? a) dyspepsia b) dysphagia c) dysphasia d) dyspnea | b) dysphagia |
| Which of the following tests most accurately detects the cause of gastric ulcers? a) gastroccult b) H. pylori test c) laparoscopy d) ultrasound | b) H. pylori test |
| To detect gastrointestinal bleeding, the physician may order which of the following? a) barium enema b) lower endoscopy c) stool culture d) Fecal occult blood test | d) fecal occult blood test |
| Which of the following abbreviations refers to measurement of the patient's pulse, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and temperature? a) VS b) N & V c) CA d) LFT | a) VS |
| Which of the following abbreviations involves the pancreas? a) GERD b) BRP c) ERCP d) EGD | c) ERCP |
| Which of the following abbreviations involves a procedure? a) IBS b) IBD c) PUD d) UGI | d) UGI |
| Which of the following indicates a route of medication administration? a) PO b) C/O c) GI d) Q | a) PO |
| Which of the following disorders involves dilation and expansion of the lower esophagus due to pressure from food accumulation? a) cholelithiasis b) achalasia c) esophageal varices d) ascites | b) achalasia |
| The definition of pseudomembranous enterocolitis isL a) accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity b) inflammatory condition of the bowels that results in severe, watery diarrhea c) edema deep into the tracts of the lining of the GI tract | b) inflammatory condition of the bowels that results in severe, watery diarrhea |
| Which of the following is not a common cause of bowel obstruction? a) volvulus b) intussusception c) adhesions d) hernia | d) hernia |
| All of the following disorders involve the large intestine EXCEPT: a) celiac disease b) pseudomembranosus enterocolitis c) ulcerative colitis d) diverticulosis | a) celiac disease |
| The term enterobiliary means: a) abnormal condition of the cheek and esophagus b) pertaining to the small intestine and bile c) disease of the bowel d) within the small intestine | b) pertaining to the small intestine and bile |
| The term gingivostomtitis means a) inflammation of the tongue and mouth b) inflammation of the teeth and gums c) inflammation of the gums and mouth d) inflammation of the cheek and throat | c) inflammation of the gums and mouth |
| The term glossolabial means: a) pertaining to the gums and teeth b) pertaining to the gallbladder and liver c) pertaining to the cheek and gum d) pertaining to the tongue and lips | d) pertaining to the tongue and lips |
| which of the following terms means inflammation of the salivary gland? a) steatitis b) sialadenitis c) stomatitis d) lymphadenitis | b) sialadenitis |
| Which of the following terms means enlargement of the liver and spleen? a) hepatosplenomagaly b) lingoustomatomalacia c) macrosplenism d) microlipolysis | a) hepatosplenomegaly |
| Which of the following terms means suturing of the rectum? a) protorrhaphy b) rectostenosis c) anoptosis d) sigmoidosurgery | a) protorrhaphy |
| Which of the following terms means cutting instrument for the pharynx? a) pharyngoscopy b) pharyngoscope c) pharyngotome d) pharyngotomy | c) pharyngotome |
| Which of the following terms means cutting into or incision of the abdomen and spleen? a) pylorosplenotome b) laparosplenotomy c) splenomalacia d) hepatopexy | b) laparosplenotomy |
| An involuntary leakage of urine while laughing, coughing or sneezing are symptoms of what disorder? a) enuresis b) polyuria c) stress incontinence d) nocturia | c) stress incontinence |
| A KUB is an x-ray procedure that specifically looks at the: a) kidney, uterus, and bowel b) kidney stones, urine and blood c) kyphosis, uremia, and bones d) kidney, ureter and bladder | d) kidney, ureter and bladder |
| A noncancerous enlargement of the prostate is abbreviated by: a) TURP b) BPH c) RP d) IVP | b) BPH |
| Chronic inflammation of the bladder lining that antibiotics will not affect is called: a) Urinary retention b) Interstitial cystitis c) interstitial nephritis d) uremia | b) Interstitial cystitis |
| Which of the following terms means a measuring instrument for urine? a) urogram b) urinoscopy c) urinometer d) urotome | c) urinometer |
| Which of the following terms means involuntary urination during sleep? a) enuresis b) diuresis c) glycosuria d) uremia | a) enuresis |
| A patient with which of the following conditions will typically complain of pain? a) neurogenic bladder b) renal colic c) diuresis d) enuresis | b) renal colic |
| Which of the following conditions involves inflammation or infection? a) bacterial cystitis b) pyelonephritis c) glomerulonephritis d) all of these | d) all of these |
| Which of the following conditions involves a disruption of urine flow? a) glomerulonephritis b) phimosis c) hydronephrosis d) wilms tumor | c) hydronephrosis |
| All of the following abbreviations indicate a procedure except: a) HD b) IVP c) VCUG d) BNO | d) BNO |
| All of the following abbreviations indicate a urinary tract disorder EXCEPT: a) ATN b) BUN c) VUR d) UTI | b) BUN |
| Which of the following procedures involves microscopic examination of the urine? a) AGN b) UA c) TURP d) PKD | b) UA |
| A patient with kidney stones may benefit from which of the following tests or procedures? a) culture and sensitivity b) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy c) urinary catheterization d) voiding cystourethrography | b) extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy |
| Which of the following tests will most accurately help with the diagnosis of urinary retention? a) bladder ultrasound b) blood urea nitrogen c) hemodialysis d) intravenous pyelogram | a) bladder ultrasound |
| Which of the following means blood in the urine? a) bacteriuria b) hematuria c) pyuria d) oliguria | b) hematuria |
| Which of the following terms means sugar in the blood? a) glycosuria b) glucogenesis c) glumerulosis d) glycemia | d) glycemia |
| Which of the following indicates absence of urine? a) oliguria b) anuria c) polyuria d) nocturia | b) anuria |
| Which of the following terms means pertaining to the bladder and urethra? a) cytoureteral b) vesicourethroid c) cholecystic d) none of these | d) none of these |
| All of the following combining forms indicates sugar EXCEPT: a) gluc/o b) glyc/o c) glumerul/o d) glycos/o | c) glumerul/o |
| Which of the combining forms refers to pus? a) pyel/o b) peritone/o c) py/o d) none of these | c) py/o |
| Which of the following forms means stone? a) lith/o b) azot/o c) cyst/o d) none of these | a) lith/o |
| Which of the following combining forms means deficiency? a) nephr/o b) vesic/o c) pyel/o d) olig/o | d) olig/o |
| The term urostasis means: a) absence of urination b) cessation or stopping of urine c) movement of urine d) resembling urine | b) cessation or stopping of urine |
| The term ureteroscope means a) visualization of the ureathra b) viewing instrument for the ureter c) mouthlike opening into the ureter d) none of these | b) viewing instrument for the ureter |
| The term nephrocentesis means: a) surgical puncture of the kidney b) hernia of the kidney c) behind the kidney d) none of these | a) surgical puncture of the kidney |
| Ms. Andretti came to the clinic today complaining of severe menstrual pain and cramping. Which of the following medical terms best describes her complaint? a) menitis b) vaginorrhea c) dysmenorrhea d) cervicitis | c) dysmenorrhea |
| Removing an ovarian cyst and the ovary using a small endoscope is a procedure known as: a) laparoscopic oophorectomy b) colposcopic oophorectomy c) vaginoscopic salpingo-oophorectomy d) laparoscopic hysterectomy | a) laparoscopic oophorectomy |
| Mr. Smith had to be circumcised due to chronic banaitis. He had: a) a continual prostate infection b) constant inflammation of the testes c) constant inflammation of the glans penis d) continual pain of his vas deferens | c) constant inflammation of the glans penis |
| Mrs. Brown is 6 months pregnant and sees her physician each month for care. This type of care is known as: a) prenatal care b) perinatal care c) postnatal care d) circumnatal care | a) prenatal care |
| Which of the following combining forms does not mean testis? a) test/o b) orchi/o c) orchid/o d) oophor/o | d) oophor/o |
| The term android means: a) resembling female b) resembling amnion c) resembling male d) none of these | c) resembling male |
| The term salpingolysis means: a) the process of recording sound b) pertaining to the destruction of sperm c) destruction of a tube d) none of these | c) destruction of a tube |
| The term uteropexy means: a) surgical fixation of the uterus b) suturing of the uterus c) slight or partial paralysis of the uterus d) none of these | a) surgical fixation of the uterus |
| The term balanic means: a) condition of the penis b) pertaining to the glans penis c) disease of the prostate d) none of these | b) pertaining to the glans penis |
| The term sonography means: a) process of recording sound b) record of sound c) instrument used to record sound d) none of these | a) process of recording sound |
| All of the following abbreviations indicate a type of sexually transmitted infection EXCEPT: a) HPV b) GC c) Trich d) TSS | d) TSS |
| All of the following are matched with the correct definition except: a) ♀: male b) PMS: premenstrual syndrome c) TSS: toxic shock syndrome d) ED: erectile dysfunction | a) ♀: male |
| Which of the following statements is true? a) the abbreviations STI and STD mean the same thing b) EDC is a type of contraceptive device c) The abbreviation OC stands for ovarian cyst d) FHR stands for female hormone | a) the abbreviations STI and STD mean the same thing |
| Which of the following abbreviations pertains to the male reproductive system? a) TSE b) BSE c) D&C d) PID | a) TSE |
| Which of the following abbreviations pertains to the femal reproductive system? a) PSA b) HRT c) DRE d) TURP | b) HRT |
| All of the following indicate a type of procedure EXCEPT: a) AB b) TAH c) GU d) DRE | c) GU |
| All of the following abbreviations indicate a type of disease or disorder EXCEPT: a) PID b) BPH c) STI d) OC | d) OC |
| Balanoposthitis is: a) Inflammation caused by blockage of one or both of the bartholin glands b) protrusion of the uterus through the vaginal opening c) inflammation of the glans penis and foreskin d) pain in the lower abdominal and pelvic area, femal | c) inflammation of the glans penis and foreskin |
| Which of the following procedures destroys the entire surface of the endometrium and superficial myometrium? a) cryosurgery b) ablation c) dilation and curettage d) none of these | b) ablation |
| Which of the following procedures involves freezing of tissue? a) cryosurgery b) needle biopsy c) ablation d) prostate-specific antigen | a) cryosurgery |
| Which of the following combining forms means sound? a) salping/o b) son/o c) semin/o d) none of these | b) son/o |
| Which of the following combining forms means vulva? a) adnr/o b) episi/o c) colp/o d) none of these | b) episi/o |
| The combining form phall/i means: a) hidden b) amnion c) fetus d) none of these | d) none of these |
| A test to find the average blood glucose level over a 3 to 4 month period is called? a) TSH b) GTT c) Hb Alc d) fasting blood glucose | c) Hb Alc |
| Which of the following is NOT one of the three "poly"s, the classic signs of diabetes? a) polyphagia b) polydipsia c) polyphasia d) polyuria | c) polyphasia |
| A blood glucose level of 172 (average being 60 to 99) is called: a) hypercalcemia b) hyperglycemia c) hyperkalemia d) hypernatremia | b) hyperglycemia |
| Blood potassium below normal is called: a) hyponatremia b) hypocalcemia c) hypokalemia d) hypoglycemia | c) hypokalemia |
| Blood sodium level higher than normal is called: a) hypernatremia b) hypercalcemia c) kyperkalemia d) hyperglycemia | a) hypernatremia |
| Which of the following combining forms means poison? a) thyr/o b) thym/o c) toxic/o d) thyroid/o | c) toxic/o |
| Which of the following combining forms means extremities? a) kal/i b) calc/o c) acr/o d) none of these | c) acr/o |
| Which of the following combining forms means sodium? a) natr/o b) kal/i c) acr/o d) none of these | a) natr/o |
| Which of the following combining forms means same, unchanging? a) thym/o b) hydr/o c) aden/o d) none of these | d) none of these |
| Which of the following combining forms refers to the adrenal gland? a) aden/o b) thyroid/o c) adren/o d) acr/o | c) adren/o |
| Which of the following abbreviations is related to body size? a) BMR b) BS c) BMI d) none of these | c) BMI |
| Which of the following abbreviations represents a hormone? a) GH b) HRT c) DI d) DKA | a) GH |
| All of the following abbreviations represent electrolytes EXCEPT: a) Na b) K c) T3 d) Ca | c) T3 |
| Which of the following tests might be done to measure a patient's current blood sugar? a) DM b) Fsbs c) TSH d) ADH | b) Fsbs |
| An individual suffering from a low hormone level may be administered: a) CA b) FBS c) HRT d) IDDM | c) HRT |
| A severe form of hypothyroidism that develops in the older child or adult and causes nonpitting edema in connective tissue is: a) myxedema b) addison disease c) cushing disease d) hirsutism | a) myxedema |
| A condition of thyroid hormone deficiency characterized by arrestes physical and mental development and formerly known as cretinism is: a) congenital hypothyroidism b) hashimoto disease c) acromegaly d) dwarfism | a) congenital hypothyroidism |
| a condition of severe hyperglycemia potentially leading to coma is: a) diabetes mellitis b) diabetes insipidus c) diabetic ketoacidosis d) nondiabetic hypoglycemia | c) diabetic ketoacidosis |
| A tumor of the adrenal medulla that is likely benign but may cause fluctuation of stress hormones like adrenaline is: a) exophthalmos b) pheochromocytoma c) goiter d) thyrotoxicosis | b) pheochromocytoma |
| Which of the following terms means excessive sensation in the extrmities? a) acroanesthesia b) adrenalodynia c) anacusis d) hyperacroesthesia | d) hyperacroesthesia |
| Which of the following terms means creation of sugar? a) glycolysis b) glucogenic c) glycogenesis d) glucokinesia | c) glucogenesis |
| The term adenopathy means: a) disease of a gland b) pertaining to the adrenal gland c) abnormal condition of a gland d) none of these | a) disease of a gland |
| The term hyperkalemia means: a) condition of excessive calcium in the blood b) condition of excessive potassiumin the blood c) condition of excessive sodium in the blood d) condition of excessive iron in the blood | b)condition of excessive potassium in the blood |
| Breakdown by the body of water molecules may be called: a) hydrogenesis b) hydrolysis c) hydrokinesis d) hydrophobia | b) hydrolysis |
| Which of the following conditions is caused by compression of the median nerve, resulting in pain or numbness in the wrist, hand, and fingers? a) herniated disk b) myasthenia gravis c) gout d) carpal tunnel syndrome | d) carpal tunnel syndrome |
| Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune motor disorder that causes progressive muscle fatigue and weakness? a) myasthenia gravis b) gout c) carpal tunnel syndrome d) kyphosis | a) myasthenia gravis |
| Martha Snyder has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. She most likely has which of the following complaints? a) arthralgia b) osteoplegia c) patelloptosis d) metacarpotome | a) arthralgia |
| The application of cold, such as with ice compresses, to decrease inflammation and pain is known as: a) arthrography b) cryotherapy c) dual-energy absorptiometry d) transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation | b) cryotherapy |
| Ilka Heidrick has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following is she most likely to experience? a) increased energy level after exercise b) progressive dementia c) arthralgia d) progressive fatigue | d) progressive fatigue |
| Which of the following means treatment using movement? a) kinesiotherapy b) kyphoplasty c) tarsokinesia d) tetrakinesis | a) kinesiotherapy |
| Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of pus in the vertebrae? a) vertebromyelosis b) spondylopyosis c) pubovertebrosis d) pyelospondylosis | b) spondylopyosis |
| Which of the following terms means drooping or prolapse of the tarsus? a) dystocia b) tarsatrophy c) throacopexy d) tarsoptosis | d) tarsoptosis |
| Which of the following terms means pertaining to muscle and skin? a) dermatomycosis b) myelocutaneous c) sternomyosis d) none of these | d) none of these |
| Which of the following terms means pertaining to the sternum and around the heart? a) sternopericardial b) retrosternocardial c) transcardiac d) anticardiosternal | a) sternopericardial |
| The term lordosis indicates: a) back pain of the lower back b) a pathological condition of the upper back c) an abnormal condition of the cervical and lumbar areas of the back d) inflammation of the cervical and lumbar areas of the back | c) an abnormal condition of the cervical and lumbar areas of the back |
| The term meniscocyte indicates: a) a condition of fungus b) softening of the cartilage c) a hernia of the meniscus d) none of these | d) none of these |
| The term puboprostatic means: a) pertaining to the back of the pelvis b) pertaining to behind the patella c) pertaining to the pubis and prostate d) pertaining to disease of the prostate | c) pertaining to the pubis and prostate |
| Scoliokyphosis is: a) a pathological condition of back curvature b) an abnormal condition involving crookedness and a hump c) a condition of crooked movement d) none of these | b) an abnormal condition involving crookedness and a hump |
| The term costochondrosis indicates: a) a painful condition of the ribs b) surgical puncture of the skin and ribs c) cancer of the carpus d) an abnormal condition of the ribs and cartilage | d) an abnormal condition of the ribs and cartilage |
| Which of the following tests will most likely identify the presence of inflammation? a) erythrocyte sedimentation rate b) creatine kinase c) electromyogram d) rheumatoid factor | a) erythrocyte sedimentation rate |
| Which of the following tests is most likely to identify osteoporosis? a) bone marrow aspiration b) dual energy absorptiometry c) bone scan d) arthrography | b) dual energy absorptiometry |
| Which of the following conditions causes a loss of range of motion in the shoulder? a) crepitation b) hallux rigidus c) adhesive capsulitis d) osteitis deformans | c) adhesive capsulitis |
| All of the following disorders involve the feet EXCEPT: a) gout b) plantar fasciitis c) hallux valgus d) ganglion cyst | d) ganglion cyst |
| All of the following disorders involve the shoulder or arm EXCEPT: a) carpal tunnel syndrome b) adhesive capsulitis c) kyphosis d) rotator cuff tear | c) kyphosis |
| Which of the following abbreviations indicates a location on the lower extremities? a) AP b) AK c) BE d) AS | b) AK |
| Which of the following abbreviations indicates an anatomical location? a) DTR b) IM c) UE d) OT | c) UE |
| All of the following abbreviations indicate a surgical procedure EXCEPT: a) TKR b) ADL c) AKA d) ORIF | b) ADL |
| All of the following abbreviations indicate a disease or disorder EXCEPT? a) ROM b) DJD c) HNP d) Fx | a) ROM |
| All of the following abbreviations pertain to a type of arthritis EXCEPT: a) OA b) RA c) JRA d) BKA | d) BKA |
| Which of the following conditions does not result in vision loss? a) presbycusis b) diabetic retinopathy c) retinal detachment d) glaucoma | a) presbycusis |
| Which of the following conditions results in an abnormal curbature of the cornea, distorting the visual image? a) presbycusis b) astigmatism c) cataract d) hordeolum | b) astigmatism |
| Albert Mills is an elderly man who experiences diminished hearing because of advanced age. This condition is known as: a) photophobia b) glaucoma c) presbycusis d) hordeolum | c) presbycusis |
| A type of blindness caused by diabetes is known as diabetic ________: a) retinopathy b) cataract c) macular degeneration d) meniere disease | a) retinopathy |
| Onset of blindness caused by increased intraocular pressure is known as: a) cataract b) macular degeneration c) hordeolum d) glaucoma | d) glaucoma |
| Which of the following terms means absence of smell or odor? a) anosmia b) anacusia c) anopia d) none of these | a) anosmia |
| Which of the following terms means excision or surgical removal of the tear gland? a) dacryotome b) dacryoadenectomy c) lacrimotomy d) lacrimostomy | b) dacryoadenectomy |
| Which of the following terms means disease of the lens? a) phakopathy b) phacopathy c) both a and b d) none of these | c) both a and b |
| Which of the following terms means specialist in the study of sound? a) acoustic b) audiology c) otonasorhinologist d) none of these | d) none of these |
| Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of hardening of the ear drum? a) myringostenosis b) tympanosclerosis c) salpingoconstriction d) otodilation | b) tympanosclerosis |
| Which of the following means sudden involuntary contraction of the eustachian tube? a) tympanostenosis b) salpingospasm c) myringosclerosis d) irostomy | b) salpingospasm |
| The patient who needs a vision examination will visit an: a) ophthalmology b) optician c) ocular d) otologist | b) optician |
| The term hemiopia means: a) half vision b) double vision c) far or beyond vision d) good or normal vision | a) half vision |
| the term dysosmia means: a) much thirst b) abnormal vision c) bad, painful, or difficult smell or odor d) bad, painful, or difficult feeling | c) bad, painful, or difficult smell or odor |
| The term microblepharism means: a) condition of farsightedness b) abnormal condition of large eyes c) having same or equal eyelids d) condition of small eyelids | d) condition of small eyelids |
| The term dacryoid means: a) resembling double b) resembling tears c) resembling sound d) none of these | b) resembling tears |
| The term diplopia means: a) near image b) far view c) double vision d) two eyes | c) double vision |
| All of the following abbreviations pertain to conditions that cause vision loss or impairment EXCEPT: a) Glc b) MD c) EOM d) RD | c) EOM |
| Which of the following abbreviations refers to a procedure that improves vision? a) AS b) LASIK c) CAT d) VA | b) LASIK |
| All of the following abbreviations refers to the eyes EXCEPT: a) ENT b) EM c) RK d) RD | a) ENT |
| Which of the following is a disorder in which the brain disregards images from a weaker eye and relies on those from the stronger eye? a) amblyopia b) astigmatism c) chalazion d) ectropion | a) amblyopia |
| Which of the following is an infection of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid? a) hordeolum b) keratitis c) cholesteatoma d) labyrinthistis | a) hordeolum |
| Which of the following is a feeling of spinning or moving in place? a) vertigo b) tinnitus c) otosclerosis d) meniere disease | a) vertigo |
| An error in refraction is: a) myopia b) hyperoptism c) presbyopia d) hypopia | a) myopia |
| Glaucoma has which of the following effects on the eye? a) cloudiness of the lens b) inflammation of the lid and eyelash follicles c) increased intraocular pressure d) loss of central vision | c) increased intraocular pressure |
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