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micro bio the end
a review FOR FUTURE RNS
Question | Answer |
---|---|
Peripheral Nervous System | This system carries messages from sensory receptors to the central nervous system and from the central nervous system to muscles and glands |
How many cranial nerves are there | 12 pairs of cranial nerves |
How many spinal nerves are there | . 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and their branches |
What are the cranial and spinal nerves located | The peripheral nervous system |
Purpose of CSF | Protect the brain and spinal cord by acting like a cushion to absorb the shock impact of a fall or a blow to the head |
What is CSFs job in the body? | Circulates nutrients within the CNS and acts as a water remover, detoxifying the environment of the CNS |
How much CSF is produced daily? | 500 ml every 24 hours |
How long does it take to replace CSF? | It replaces every 8 hours |
What is the color of CSF? | clear to cloudy |
If CSF is turbid, what disease is most likely occurring? | meningitis |
What are the causes of turbid CSF? | Bacteria, amoebae, brain abscess |
What is a common cause of Encephalitis? | Most common cause: herpes simplex (HSV) |
What is inflammation of the brain called? | Encephalitis |
What is menigoencephalitis? | Inflammation of the brain and meninges |
Haemophilus influenzae is commonly found where in the body? | Pharynx, bronchi, lungs. |
How is Haemophilus influenzae transmitted? | inhalation of respiratory droplets |
When is HIB vaccine given? | 2 months old and followed by 3 or 4 boosters |
Pneumococcal is a | diplococci chains |
Infection of the middle ear is caused by? | Pneumococcal |
What is Pneumococcal associated with? | pneumonia, but may cause infection in other organs such as the brain (pneumococcal meningitis) and blood stream (pneumococcal septicemia otitis media |
What is the treatment of choice for pneumoccocal? | PCN, Ceftriaxone |
What people are at risk for pneumococcal infections and need to be vaccinated? | Pt with sickle cell anemia, Pt with splenectomy, Pt with chronic organ failure, Resident in nursing home or long term care facility |
-Listeria Meningitis is especially at risk for what type of people? | in elderly and immunocompromised persons |
Food-borne illness—can spread to CNS Lives inside macrophages—capable of multiplying in macrophages can cross placenta? | Listeria monocytogenes |
Listeria Meningitis in its late onset occurs during? | child birth |
Newborns infected with listeria and die are in which type onset? | Earlyonset |
Treatment of choice for listera meningitis? | PCN/ampicillin/gentamycin |
Monocytes produce what white blood cells for the immune system? | Macrophages |
What do Macophages stimulate lymphocytes to do? | react to pathogens (innate immunity) defense and are able to innitiate specific cell-mediated immunity. |
What is the role of a phagocyte? | engulf and digest cell debris or pathogens (the process is called phagocytosis), Macrophages also |
What is phagocytosis? | the process to engulf and digest cell debris or pathogens |
What is produced in bone marrow? | Leukocyte |
Monocytes | high count indicates that a problem is present are a type of leukocyte or white blood cell which play a role in immune system function. |
How much does monocytes make up of the total white blood cells in the body? | 1% to 3% |
What is a good count for monocyte? | low |
What is the Phagocytosis process? | white blood cell envelopes and digests debris and microorganisms to remove them from the blood. |
How does tetani spread throughout the body? | The organism releases toxins |
Does tetani spread from the site of infection? | No |
How are tetani toxins spread throughout the body? | peripherial nerves and bloodstream to the CNS |
Tetain toxins inhibit? | the release of neurotransmitters by the spinal-cord neurons |
What do neurotransmitters regulate? | relaxation of muscle fibers |
What is Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease? | Human prion disease, a rare degenerative fatal brain disorder. |
When do Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease symptoms generally occur? | around age of 60years |
What ways are implemented to diagnose Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease? | biopsy or autopsy |
What are the 3 major categories of Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease? | sporadic CJD, hereditary CJD, acquired CJD |
What measures are taken to cure CJD? | There is no Tx to cure or control CJD; current Tx is to alleviate symptoms of pain and to relieve involuntary muscle movements. |
What are some initial Bacterial meningitis symptoms? | Nausea, Vomiting, Sleepiness, Confusion, Light sensitivity |
Meningitis condition may progress to? | convulsion and coma |
Name 4 types of Botulism? | Food-borne, Infant, Wound, Inhalation |
List the structure of the female reproductive system. | External genitalia, Uterus, Vagina, Fallopian tubes, cervix, ovaries |
Describe the uterus. | pear-shaped organ that protects the baby while it is growing. The lining of it sheds once a month when a woman is not pregnant. |
Define cervix. | a flap of tissue between the vagina and the uterus that closes when a woman is pregnant. |
Where would one find the vagina? | the entrance to the uterus. |
What is the fallopian tubes job? | carry the eggs from the ovaries to the uterus. |
What happens if the egg is fertilized? | it will attach itself to the lining of the uterus. |
What happens if the egg is not fertilized? | it will be expelled from the body through the vagina. |
What is considered the egg-shaped storehouses for the ovum eggs? | ovaries |
A baby girl is born with all the eggs she will use for her entire life. About how many? | 800,000 |
What factors cause overgrowth of normal flora in the female reproductive system? | Use of antibiotics, Compromised immune system, Pregnancy, Use of contraceptives, Menopause, any change that changes the pH of the vagina |
List bacteria commonly cause vaginitis. | Gardnerella vaginalis, Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus |
These are classified for emergence. | Diseases that are newly identified in a population, Diseases that existed but have changed,Can be caused by viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoans, or helminths |
The establishment and further spreading of the pathogen within the new host population. | Adoption, inclusion, Appearance |
Bacterial vegetative cells, most fungal spores and hyphae, yeast, enveloped viruses, protozoan trophozoites | Least resistant organisms |
Endospores and prions, are considered? | Highest resistance organisms |
Destruction of endospores results in? | destruction of all other organisms |
Permanent loss of all vital activities is? | microbial death |
The effects of radiation depend on what? | Time of exposure Distance from source, Shielding—the penetrating power of the radiation wavelengths |
How do ionizing gamma rays work? | Deep penetration but requires long exposure for sterilization |
-what influences antimicrobial effectiveness? | Population size, longer period of time required to kill or reduce large population, Population composition Duration of exposure, Local environment Formation of biofilm Concentration of the chemical agent,Temperature, Organic matter |
The reduction or removal of chemical or biological agents is? | Decontamination |
Mechanical removal of most of the microbes in a limited area is? | Degermation |
When all forms of microbial life, including endospores and prions, are eliminated? | Sterilization |
Destruction of vegetative microbes via chemical or physical methods is? | Disinfection |
Disinfection is for | inert substances |
Disinfection of living tissues is | antisepsis |
Reduction of microbes in significant numbers to prevent infection, disease, and transmission of infection and disease | Sanitization |
e.g., sanitization of glassware, tableware, etc. | |
Using heat to kill vegetative bacteria and reducing the number of microbes that have potential for food spoilage | Pasteurization |
Treating food with ionizing radiation; killing bacteria and parasites that would otherwise cause foodborne disease is called. | Irradiation |
and can be stored at room temperature without microbial spoilage | Ultrahigh-temperature pasteurization |
Odorless gas used in doctor’s offices is? | Ethylene oxide (ETO) |
this protein is produced by plasma cell | antibody |
the main functions of the immune system is to | produce antibodies |
The smallest part of an antigen molecule that can be bind with an antibody | epitope |
Epitope is also known as | antigenic determinant. |
All antigens have one or more what? | epitopes |
Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids all can | antigens under given circumstances |
Any agent that is capable of specifically binding to components of the immune system Lymphocytes, macrophages, and anti-bodies is? | antigen |
Immune response, Usually not harmful.Can cause hypersensitivity reactions.i.e.:Pollen,Mold, dust,Cat dander,Food, insect bites, and many more are? | allergen |
A substance that stimulates the production of specific antibodies by the immune system | immunogens |
Like self-antigen__________ are tolerated by the immune system. However, if the molecular weight or form of a________ changes, it can become immunogen | Tolerogen |
Specific molecules on a cell surface that allows the body’s immune system to recognize it as a normal host component | Self-antigens |
These molecules; usually proteins are interpreted by the immune system as nonself-antigens, such as in the case of autoimmune diseases. Under normal circumstances these antigens would be accepted (tolerated) and not targeted by the immune system | autoantigens |
-What are vaccines examples of? | Live Attenuated, Inactivated, Subunit, Toxoid and Conjugate, DNA, and Recombinant Vector Vaccines |
Contain a version of the living microbe that has been weakened in the lab so it can’t cause disease. | live attenuated vaccines |
They elicit strong cellular and antibody responses and often confer lifelong immunity with only one or two doses | live, attenuated vaccine |
Scientists produce ________ by killing the disease-causing microbe with chemicals, heat, or radiation. | inactivated vaccines |
Such vaccines are more stable and safer than live vaccines. | Inactivated vaccines |
When dead microbes can’t mutate back to their disease-causing state. These vaccines usually don’t require refrigeration, and they can be easily stored and transported in a freeze-dried form, which makes them accessible to people in developing countries. | Inactivated vaccines |
Instead of the entire microbe, _____include only the antigens, that best stimulate the immune system. | Subunit Vaccines |
In some cases, these vaccines use epitopes—the very specific parts of the antigen that antibodies or T cells recognize and bind to. | Subunit Vaccines |
Because _____contains only the essential antigens and not all the other molecules that make up the microbe, the chances of adverse reactions to the vaccine are lower. | Subunit Vaccines |
When the immune system receives a vaccine containing a harmless toxoid, it learns how to fight off the natural toxin;what type of vaccine is need there. | Toxoid Vaccines |
Vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus are examples of | toxoid vaccines |
These are found in body secretions? | antibodys’ |
The vaccine scientists use to link antigens or toxoids from a microbe that an infant’s immune system can recognize to the polysaccharides. The linkage helps the immature immune system react to polysaccharide coatings | Conjugate Vaccines |
The vaccine that protects against Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) is? | conjugate vaccine. |
A Vaccine Against West Nile Virus is? | DNA Vaccines . |
Once the genes from a microbe have been analyzed, scientists could attempt to create a? | DNA vaccine |
Still in the experimental stages, these vaccines show great promise, and several types are being tested in humans. Taking immunization to a new technological levels are. | DNA Vaccines |
These vaccines dispense with both the whole organism and its parts and get right down to the essentials: the microbe’s genetic material. In particular, DNA vaccines use the genes that code for those all-important antigens. | |
This form of experimental vaccine is similar to DNA vaccines but they use an attenuated virus or bacterium to introduce microbial DNA to cells. | Recombinant Vector Vaccines |
The virus or bacterium used as the carrier is known as. | vector |
Attenuated bacteria also can be used as? | vectors. |
Antibody’s found in body secretions: | IgG, IgD, IgM, IgE |
IgG | Major antibody in the circulation;Can cross the placenta |
IgA | In secretions—tears, saliva, etc.;Provides local protection |
IgM | Largest of the Igs—first response |
IgD | Surface of B cells;Plays role in B-cell activation |
IgE | Implicated in allergic reactions |
Major antibody in circulation | IgM |
Antibodies that function in allergic responses | IgE |
Antibody synthesized by infant after birth? | IgG |
-functions of lymphatic vessels | |
The _____carry lymph from the tissues through the lymph nodes, where lymphocytes neutralize or kill and macrophages consume pathogens, then deliver the cleansed fluid to the blood. | lymph vessels |
Microscopic blind-ended vessels in capillary beds of tissues | lymph vessels |
Absorb excess extracellular fluid. | lymph vessels |
Contain lymph—watery, plasmalike, contain white blood cells. | lymph vessels |
Drain lymph into larger lymphatic vessels, then into the | lymph vessels cardiovascular system |
lymph vessels Thoracic duct located | left subclavian vein |
lymph vessels Right lymphatic duct | right subclavian vein |
-what do lymph vessels they act as? | Immune system |
these cells neutralize or kill and macrophages consume pathogens, then deliver the cleansed fluid to the blood | lymphocytes |
They Have capsules of connective tissue that isolate tissue from neighboring tissues. | Lymphatic organs and vessels |
These grape like clusters are Located In cervical, axillary and inguinal regions close to surface; in thoracic, abdominal and pelvis deep in body cavities. | LYMPH NODES |
They guard the entrance to pharynx; and the doctor gives you Ice cream when they are removed. | TONSILS |
The gland between sternum and aortic arch | THYMUS |
She is inferior to diaphragm, dorsolateral to stomach Largest lymphatic organ | SPLEEN |
In response to circulating antibodies, macrophages, B and T lymphocytes are activated to. | eliminate pathogens |
Which of the following organisms is the causative agent for gonorrhea? | neisseria |
The secondary stage of syphilis includes which of the following time periods after the primary stage? | 2 to 10 weeks |
The causative agent for chancroid is? | haemophilus dureyi |
A red-brown rash on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet are typical of? | syphilis |
Which of the following organisms typically causes sexually transmitted toxic shock syndrome? | staphylococcus aureus |
The three types of hepatitis virus that can be transmitted through sexual activity are? | B, C, and D |
Balanitis is a fungal infection of the? | glans penis |
The highly specialized structure that protects the fetus from microorganisms is the? | placenta |
In humans, the embryonic phase of development extends from fertilization to the end of week ________, after which the developing infant is called a fetus? | 8 |
Congenital CMV infections are caused by? | cytomegalovirus |
A fetus infected with rubella virus produces which of the following antibodies that can then be detected in the umbilical cord? | IgM |
The type of antibody that can cross the placenta is? | IgG |
The papillary layer of the skin is part of the: | dermis |
Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of skin infections and toxic shock syndrome? | staphylococcus aureus |
The organism often called “flesh-eating bacteria” is | streptococcus pyogenes |
Acne is caused by | propionibacterium acnes |
Warts are commonly caused by the | human papillomavirus |
Herpes simplex infections on lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by | HSV-1 |
“Athlete’s foot” is referred to as | tinea pedia |
Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the | scalp |
A chronic localized subcutaneous infection characterized by verrucoidlesion on the skin is | chromoblastomycosis |
Variola virus of the orthopoxvirus family cause the acute, highly contagious disease | smallpox |
An example of an infection that results in the death of infected tissue is called | necrotizing fasciitis |
The main organs/structures of the urinary system are the | kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, uretha |
The primary bacterium responsible for most UTIs is | Escherichia coli |
Diagnosis of a UTI is a two-stage process that involves | collecting a urine sample and testing for antibiotic susceptibility of the organism |
Which of the following has not been shown to be preventive against UTIs in women? | taking a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin |
The urinary tract infection involving infection of the urinary bladder is called | cystitis |
A urinary tract infection of the kidneys is called | pyelonephritis |
The most common fungus causing urinary tract infections is | candida albicans |
Glomerulonephritis is also called | bright’s disease |
The presence of bacteria in the urine is called | bacteriuria |
What anatomical features in women can increase the possibility of a UTI? | a shorter urethra, close proximity of the anus to the urethral opening |
The following are typical symptoms of a UTI: | painful urination, cloudy urine |
An effective method for treating a UTI is | regimen of antibiotic amoxicillin |
What organs are responsible for filtering wastes from the blood? | kidneys |
The tissues of the urethra become thinner and more fragile in older women due to a decrease in what? | progesterone and estrogen |