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Path exam 2
Rush patho exam #2 flash cards
| Question | Short Answer | Long Answer |
|---|---|---|
| What chemical mediators cause fever? | IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha, IFN-beta | Pyrogens are chemical mediators that cause fever. IL-1 (interleukin-1) is a cytokine secreted by macrophages. TNF-alpha (Tumor necrosis factor) is produced primarily by macrophages in response to infection with gram-negative bacteria. IFN-beta (interfero |
| What is the outcome of chronic inflammation? | Outcome is tissue loss, scar formation, tissue destruction. | (blank) |
| What WBC's will you see in chronic inflammation that you won't see in acute inflammation? | Lymphocytes, which consist of B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells. | (blank) |
| What are some differences between acute and chronic inflammation? | Acute is short, chronic is long, lasting weeks or longer. Different mediators are present. There is no edema in CI. | Outcome of acute inflammation is resolution, abscess, or chronic inflammation. Outcome of chronic inflammation is tissue loss and destruction and scar formation. |
| What are cytokines? | Low-molecular weight proteins secreted by various cells, that regulate the intensity and duration of immune response, and mediate cell to cell communication. | Interferons, interleukins, TNF (Tumor necrosis factor), CSF (colony stimulating factor) |
| What are the types of acute inflammation? | Classic, allergic, serous, catarrhal, fibrinous, necrotizing, membranous, supporuative. | Classical Music Always Seems Serious, Not Fun or Cool |
| What kinds of tissue injury do intracellular organisms inflict? | Cell necrosis, cell swelling, latent infection, giant cell formation. | Cell necrosis: Lytic viruses like HIV and hep B destroy the host cell as they replicate and leave. Cell swelling, which is reversiblek . Latent infection: some viruses, like varicella, can remain latent for long periods of time, and reemerge later. Giant |
| What kinds of tissue injury do extracellular organisms inflict? | Bacteria release enzymes, local vasculitis, Remote-acting enzymes. | (blank) |
| What are the antibodies associated with Type I hypersensitivity reactions? | IgE | (blank) |
| What are the antibodies associated with Type II hypersensitivity reactions? | IgG and IgM | (blank) |
| What are the antibodies associated with Type III hypersensitivity reactions? | IgG and IgM | (blank) |
| What are the antibodies associated with Type IV hypersensitivity reactions? | No antibody | The second exposure invokes a secondary response of T cells which directly attack the invader or lymphokine release. |
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction is tissue specific? | Type II. | Examples are transfusion reactions or erythroblastosis fetalis. |
| What kind of hypersensitivity reaction is a transfusion reaction? | Type II | (blank) |
| What complement proteins make a hole in the cell membrane in order to lyse the cell? | C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9. | These proteins are also called MAC, for Membrane attack complex. |
| What type of reaction is Graves disease? | A type II hypersensitivity. | In Graves disease, IgG binds to the TSH receptor on the thyroid cell. This stimulates the thyroid to produce more T3 and T4. TSH level is low when measured. |
| What is an example of Type IV hypersensitivity? | Poison ivy, poison oak, discolored skin from cheap jewelry. | There is a DELAY between the signs and symptoms of a Type IV reaction. Only T cells are involved. |
| In acute inflammation, is the ESR higher or lower? | ESR is higher | ESR is the rate in mm/hour that the RBC's settle to the bottom of a tube. In acute inflammation, the proteins in the plasma cause the RBCs to clump up and settle faster. |
| In acute inflammation, what is the level of C-reactive protein? | High in acute inflammation. | C-reactive protein is produced by the liver |
| What kind of blood can a recipient with type O receive? | O only | Type O blood has antibodies for both A and B blood types, so they can only receive type O blood. |
| What kind of blood can a recipient with type A receive? | A or O. | O has no antigens, so the antibodies in the recipient blood will not react with it. |
| What kind of blood can a recipient with type B receive? | B or O. | Type B blood has A antibodies in it. So, you can't give A blood, or the recipient's antibodies will react with it. |
| What kind of blood can a recipient with type AB receive? | A, B, or O. | AB is considered the universal recipient. |
| What happens during a first pregnancy when an Rh- mother is carrying an Rh+ child? | Nothing. | The blood of mom and baby will not mix until birth, when the placenta separates. By then, the baby has been delivered. However, the second pregnancy could be dangerous. |
| What happens during a second pregnancy when an Rh- mother is carrying an Rh+ child? | The mother's antibody against Rh+ blood can pass through the placenta, causing erythroblastosis fetalis. | If the first pregnancy was an Rh+ baby, the mother's blood now has antibody against the Rh+ blood. This antibody can cross the placenta, and destroy the baby's RBCs, causing anemia or death in utero. |
| What kind of antibodies are involved in erythroblastosis fetalis? | IgG. | It is a type II hypersensitivity, which involves either IgG or IgM antibodies. |
| What is the prevalence of AIDS globally? | 42 million people | Prevalence is the number of people in the world who have it. |
| What is the incidence of AIDS globally? | 5 million people. | Incidence is the number of people who get it in a year. |
| What is the global mortality rate of AIDS? | 3 million people. | (blank) |
| What substances are included within the capsid of the HIV virus? | RNA, protease, integrase, and reverse transcriptase. | Reverse transcriptase converts viral RNA into DNA. Integrase inserts the new DNA into the cellular DNA. Viral protease aids in the assembly of new virus. |
| What are the 3 strains of HIV? | M-trophic, T-trophic, and dual trophic. | M-trophic has an affinity for macrophages. T-trophic has an affinity for T-lymphocytes. Dual trophic has affinity for both. |
| What is gp120? | Glycoprotein 120 is a molecule on the HIV virus that binds with the CD4 receptor. | (blank) |
| What is gp41? | Glycoprotein 41 is a molecule on the HIV virus that enables fusion of the virus with the membrane of the target lymphocyte. | (blank) |
| What hypersensitivity type is DELAYED? | Type IV | Type IV hypersensitivities have a delay between exposure and the signs and symptoms. No B cells or antibodies are involved, only T cells. Examples are poison ivy and oak. |
| What is an example of type III hypersensitivity? | SLE, Rheumatoid Arthritis | SLE and RA are conditions where immune complexes (made of an antigen and an antibody) are formed in circulation. When the immune complex is deposited in tissue or on vessel walls, they trigger complement activation. |
| What is the normal value for WBCs? | 5,000 to 10,000/mm | (blank) |
| Name this disease! Cough, hypoxia, chest X-ray is either normal or shows interstitial inflitrates. | Pneumocystitis carinii pneumonia | PCP IS THE MOST COMMON opportunistic infection in AIDS |
| Name this disease! Fungal infection that causes meningitis in 10% of AIDS patients | Cryptococcus neoformans | To Dx: do a lumbar puncture (well, not YOU, but maybe the resident) showing increased lymphocytes, and protein, decreased glucose |
| Name this disease! Fungal infection common in AIDS patients, causes oral thrush | Candida albicans | Can also be found in esophagus and bronchi |
| Name this disease! Major systemic bacterial infection of AIDS patients | Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (MAI) | Presents fever, night sweats, diarrhea, elevated liver function tests. Chronic wasting. |
| Name this disease! Lung disease, or chorioretinitis and blindness | Cytomegalovirus | One of the herpes simplex family. |
| What is the co-receptor (besides CD4) that the HIV virus binds to in the M-trophic strain? | CCR5 | (blank) |
| What is the co-receptor (besides CD4) that the HIV virus binds to in the T-trophic strain? | CXCR4 | (blank) |
| What does C3b do? | Opsonization | One of the Complement proteins. |
| What does C3a do? | Mast cell degranulation | (blank) |
| What do C2a and C5a do? | Increased vascular permability. | (blank) |
| What does carcinoma mean? | Malignant tumor of epithelial tissue | (blank) |
| What does sarcoma mean? | Malignant tumor of connective tissue. | (blank) |
| What are the 3 stages of phagocytosis? | REK | Recognition, engulfment, Killing |
| What is the difference between grading and staging in cancer tumor evaluation? | Grading rates according to the cellular characteristics of the tumor. Staging describes the size, nodal involvement, and whether metastasis has occurred. | The most common staging system is the TNM classification system. |
| When is a patient with an HIV infection considered to have AIDS? | When their CDC classification is A3, B3, C1, C2, or C3. | (blank) |
| What is the most potent chemotactic agent in the body | Leukotriene B4 | Produced from Arachidonic Acid metabolism |
| What does Thromboxane A2 do? | Causes vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation | Short name is TXA2, it is a prostaglandin formed during the metabolism of arachidonic acid. |
| What does Prostacylin do? | Causes vasodialtion, inhibits platelet aggregation | Short name is PGI2, it is a prostaglandin formed during the metabolism of arachidonic acid. |
| What do Leukotrienes C4, D4, and E4 do? | Vasoconstriction, bronchospamsm, increased permability | (blank) |
| What do lipoxins do? | Vasodilation | Generated from the metabolism of arachidonic acid |
| What chemical mediators cause pain? | Bradykinin, prostaglandins, leukotrienes | (blank) |
| Where do lung tumors tend to metastasize? | Brain | (blank) |
| Where do breast tumors tend to metastasize? | Bone, lungs | (blank) |
| Where do colorectal tumors tend to metastasize? | Liver and Lungs | (blank) |
| Where do testicular tumors tend to metastasize? | Lungs and liver | (blank) |
| Where do ovarian tumors tend to metastasize? | Diaphragm, peritoneal surfaces | Via direct extension, not through bloodstream or lymphatic system |
| What is angiogenesis? | The development of new blood vessels. | Tmor cells secrete tumor angiogenesis factor, which anables the development of new blood vessels in the tumor. |
| What is oncogenesis? | The mechanism by which normal cells are tranformed into cancel cells. | (blank) |
| What are the 3 types of genes that control cell growth? | Proto-oncogenes, anti-oncogenes, and genes that control apoptosis. | (blank) |
| What are the 3 stages that define oncogenesis? | Initiation, promotion, and progression | (blank) |
| What is a complete carcinogen? | One that performs both initiation and promotion. | Cigarette smoke is a complete carcinogen. |
| What kind of tumor is a neuroma? | A benign tumor | (blank) |
| What kind of tumor is a astrcytoma? | A malignant tumor | (blank) |
| What is a paraneoplastic effect? | Systemic effect of a tumor that can't be directly attributable to the tumor. | Examples are cachexia, hypercalcemia. |
| What is TAA? | Tumor associated antigen | (blank) |
| What are tumor markers? | Antigens on the surfact of the tumor cell, or substances released from normal cells in response to the presence of a tumor. | Example of useful markers: HCG, CA125, PSA, PAP, Alpha-feto-protein. |
| What tumor markers are used to track prostate cancer? | PSA and PAP | PSAis prostate-specific antigen, PAP is prostatic acid phosphatase. |
| What does tumor marker CA125 track? | Ovarian cancer. | (blank) |
Created by:
rushstudent
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