Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
RT notecards
Intro to RT
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1. Gamma rays originate from the a. nucleus b. electrons c. electron orbital d. neutrons | Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg. 348 |
| 2. A stochastic effect is one that: a. the probability of an occurrence increases with increasing dose b. the severity of an effect increases with increasing dose c. has a threshold | Answer: A Reference: Khan, pg. 357 |
| 3. TLDs are composed of a. Aluminum Oxide b. Film c. Lithium Fluoride d. Lithium Oxide | Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg. 351 |
| 4_______ may be required for effective shielding in rooms using 10MeV or higher. I. Both concrete and lead walls II. A longer maze III. A polyethylene material in the door a. I and II b. III c. I, II, and III d. II and III | Answer: D Reference: Khan, pg 364 |
| 5. Gross structural changes in chromosomes include a. aberrations b. lesions c. anomalies d. All of the above | Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg. 60 |
| 6. Factors affecting exposure include a. Time b. Distance c. Shielding d. All of the above | Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg. 357 |
| 7. If the biological response to low doses of radiation is not observable for extended periods of time, they are classified as: a. genetic effects b. somatic effects c. late effects d. A and C e. All of the above | Answer: E Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 76 |
| 8. ________ produces characteristic X-rays and Auger electrons. a. Coherent Scattering b. Photoelectric Effect c. Compton Effect d. Pair Production | Answer: B Reference: Khan, pg. 59 |
| 9.What is the half-life of Cesium-137? A. 2.7 days B. 5.26 years C. 28.9 years D. 30 years | Answer: D Reference: Levy, L. (2011) Radiation Therapy-Study Guide and Exam Review. Page 81 |
| 10.What are the two electron interactions with matter? A. compton, photoelectric B. photoelectric, characteristic C. collision, radiative D. radiative, photoelectric | Answer: C Reference: Levy, L. (2011) Radiation Therapy-Study Guide and Exam Review. Page 38 |
| 11. When the dose rate is greater than 100 mrem/hr, the following sign should be posted? A. Caution-Radiation Area B. Caution-High Radiation Area C. Caution-Radioactive Material D. Caution-Restricted Area | Answer: B Reference: Levy, L. (2011) Radiation Therapy-Study Guide and Exam Review. Page 67 |
| 12. What is the annual dose limit for the general public if exposed continuously or frequently? A. 1.0 rem B. 5.0 rem C. 0.1 rem D. 0.5 rem | Answer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 355 |
| 13. What unit is linear energy transfer measured in? A. keV/micrometer B. J/kg C. J/keV D. J/C | Answer: A Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 58 |
| 14. Which of the following photon interactions is least important in radiation therapy? A. compton effect B. photoelectric effect C. pair production D. photodisintegration | Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 292 |
| 15. Unlike the ion chamber, the ________ has a higher sensitivity and is not limited to detecting higher levels of radiation. A. TLD B. diode C. radiographic film D. Geiger-Muller detector | Answer: B Reference: Kahn, F. (2010) The Physics of Radiation Therapy. (4th Edition) Page 136 |
| 16. The wedge factor is defined as the ratio of dose at depth with no wedge to the dose at depth with wedge. A. True B. False | Answer: B Reference: Kahn, F. (2010) The Physics of Radiation Therapy. (4th Edition) Page 183 |
| 17. Define Planck’s constant? A. 6.022 x 1023 J/s B. 6.62 x 10-34 J/s C. 1.6 x 1019 J/s D. 6.22 x 10-14 J/s | Answer: B Reference: Kahn, F. (2010) The Physics of Radiation Therapy. (4th Edition) Page 8 |
| 18. Which is the weakest force of nature? A. Gravitational force B. Strong nuclear force C. Weak nuclear force D. Electromagnetic force | Answer: A Reference: Kahn, F. (2010) The Physics of Radiation Therapy. (4th Edition) Page 10 |
| 19. All of the following machines produce x-ray beams of 1 MV or greater except: A. Linear accelerator B. Cobalt-60 unit C. Cyclotron D. Orthovoltage unit | D??? |
| 20. The process that destroys all microbial life forms is: A. Disinfection B. Sanitization C. Contamination D. Sterilization | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 217 |
| 21. The following are examples of transmission via droplet: 1. Coughing 2. Food 3. Ventilation 4. Physical contact A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 3 and 4 | Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 193 |
| 22. Which is the difference between gamma rays and x-rays? A. Energy level B. Wavelength C. Frequency D. Origin | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 109 |
| 23. _____________ is the force responsible for the binding of the electrons and the nucleus to form the atoms. A. Strong Force B. Electromagnetic C. Weak Force D. Gravity | Answer: B Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 278 |
| 24. What is the SI unit for radiation dose equivalent? A. Sievert (Sv) B. Gray (Gy) C. Baquerel (Bq) D. Coulomb (C) | Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 278 |
| 25. LET is ______________ proportional to the square of the charge (Q) and _____________ proportional to the square of the velocity (v). A. Inversely, Inversely B. Directly, Directly C. Inversely, Directly D. Directly, Inversely | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 59 |
| 26. Quality assurance checks performed on a monthly basis include all of the following except: A. Jaw symmetry B. Electron beam flatness constancy C. Gantry rotation isocenter D. Field size indicator | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 371 |
| 27. Federal and State agencies require that signs be posted where there is radioactive material or radiation producing equipment. A. True B. False | Answer: A Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| Advantages when using film badges for radiation? I.Provides a permanent record of exposure II.They can detect approximate energy III.The reading is immediate IV.They are not damaged by heat, humidity, or light exposure | A.I,III, and IV B.I and II C.II and III D.All answer:Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 29. At what percentage of the field is beam symmetry and flatness defined? A. 50 B. 80 C. 100 D. 105 | Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 30. The following photon interaction with matter involves direct photon interaction with the nucleus: A. Photoelectric Effect B. Pair Production C. Compton Effect D. Rayleigh Scattering | Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 31.Which of the following has the shortest half-life? A. Ra 226 B. Ir 192 C. U 238 D. Co 60 | Answer: B Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 32. Emergency off switches should be checked: A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Annually | Answer: C Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) (Levy, 2011) |
| 33. QA of sim lasers should be done daily within; A. 2mm B. 3mm C. 2cm D. 3cm | Answer: A Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 34. According to the NCRP recommendations for embryo-fetus exposures; the dose equivalent in a month is: A. 0.25mSv B. 0.5mSv C. 1mSv D. 5mSv | Answer: B Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 35. According to the NCRP recommendations for annual occupational exposures; the lens of the eye can receive: A. 50mSv B. 100mSv C. 150mSv D. 200mSv | Answer: C Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 36. If a screening examination can identify a tumor in its early stages, it is_______? a. specific b. sensitive c. cost-effective d. accurate | Answer: B Reference: Washington and Lever, pg 7 |
| 37. What staging system is commonly used with gynecologic tumors? a. TNM b. FIGO c. UICC d. AJCC | Answer: B Reference: Washington and Lever, pg 8 |
| 38. What provides information about the aggressiveness and degree of differentiation? a. stage b. grade c. pathology d. a and b | Answer: B Reference: Washington and Lever, pg 9 |
| 39. Multicentric tumors are often difficult to treat due to: a. more than one focus of disease b. volume of tissue required for treatment is larger c. tumor foci may be at different stages d. all of the above | Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 17 |
| 40. A subjective indication of disease or a change in condition as perceived by the patient is? a. Sign b. Symptom c. Syndrome d. diagnosis | Answer: B Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 87 |
| 41. Factors observed during the taking of pulse include I. Rate II. Rhythm III. Size IV. Tension a. I, II, III, and IV b. I, II, and IV c. I and II d. I, II, and III | Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 91 |
| 42. When more than one cancer modality is used simultaneously, it is known as what? a. adjuvant therapy b. neoadjuvant therapy c. concurrent therapy d. concomitant therapy | Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 16 |
| 43. Adenocarcinoma is the most common lung cancer found in: a. smokers b. nonsmokers c. those exposed to arsenic d. those exposed to radon | Answer: B Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 673 |
| 44. The carina corresponds to hat vertebral body(ies)? a. T3 b. T5 & T6 c. T4 d. T4 &T5 | Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 668 |
| 45. Malignant neoplasms that originate in the lympho-reticular tissues are called? A. Lymphomas B. Lymphosarcomas C. Sarcomas D. Lympho-reticulomas | Answer: A Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 610 |
| 46. Which class of cytotoxic agent has the potential to burn the skin of the administrator? A. Antimetabolites B. Plant alkaloids C. Alkalating agents D. Hormones | Answer: C Reference: Levy, L. (2011) Radiation Therapy-Study Guide and Exam Review. Page 251 |
| 47. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive? A. Kidney B. Lens of eye C. Testis D. Fetus | Asnwer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 81 |
| 48. The decrease in many cellular components of the blood is called? A. Neutophilia B. Neutropenia C. Erythropenia D. Pancytopenia | Answer: D Reference: Medterms.com http://www.medterms.com/script/main/art.asp?articlekey=4749 |
| 49. The iliac crest is at what level of the lumbar spine? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 | Answer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 388 |
| 50. The angle of Louis is at what level of the thoracic spine? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 | Answer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 391 |
| 51. The xiphoid process is at what level of the thoracic spine? A. 7-8 B. 9-10 C. 11-12 D. 5-6 | Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 408 |
| 52. The adrenal glands are located at what level of the thoracic spine? A. 10 B. 12 C. 8 D. 6 | Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 407 |
| 53. The true vocal cords are located in the: A. subglottis B. glottis C. supraglottis D. epiglottis | Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 396 |
| 54. The recommended prescribed dose to treat keloids is? A. 6-9 Gy B. 9-12 Gy C. 12-15 Gy D. 15-18 Gy | Answer: B |
| 55.The TD 5/5 for the testis is? A. 50 cGy B. 100 cGy C. 200 cGy D. 500 cGy | Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 81 |
| 56. The TD 5/5 for the salivary glands is? A. 4000 cGy B. 4500 cGy C. 5000 cGy D. 6000 cGy | Answer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 81 |
| 57. If a patient presents with a tumor in the upper inner quadrant of the breast , where would nodal metastasis usually occur? a. axillary nodes b. IM nodes c. supraclavicular nodes d. celiac nodes | Answer: C |
| 58. Another name for the node of Rouviere is: a. subdigastric node b. mastoid node c. retroauricular node d. lateral retropharyngeal node | Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 698 |
| 59. The TD 5/5 for the brain is typically around: a. 60 Gy b. 70 Gy c. 50 Gy d. 45 Gy | Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 714 |
| 60. All of the following are important aspects of a physical exam except: A. Palpation B. Inspection C. Screening D. Auscultation | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 89-91 |
| 61. The ACS recommends women _______ years & older to get an annual mammogram. A. 40 B. 45 C. 50 D. 60 | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 92 |
| 62. The two most common methods used to screen for prostate cancer are? 1. DRE 2. PSA 3. TRUS 4. DMIST A. 1,2 B. 2,4 C. 1,3 D. 1,4 | Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 92 |
| 63. The MRI is most useful when studying: A. Tumor movement during respiration B. Biologic activity C. Tissue density D. Soft tissue | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 98 |
| 64. _____________ is defined as the degree of darkening on the image. A. Emulsion B. Tint C. Contrast D. Density | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 114 |
| 66. Most head and neck cancers are: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Spindle cell D. Verrucous carcinoma | Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 704-705 |
| 65. Risk factors for head and neck cancers include all of the following except: A. Tobacco B. Cavities C. Alcohol D. Viruses | Answer: B Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 695-696 |
| 67. The most common site of metastasis for head and neck cancers is the: A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Bone D. Lungs | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 742 |
| 68. The three most important prognostic factors for CNS tumors are: 1. Age 2. Differentiation 3. Perfomance status 4. Tumor type A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,4 | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 762 |
| 69. The treatment of choice for colon cancer is: A. Radiation only B. Chemotherapy and surgery C. Surgery and radiation D. Surgery only | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 798 |
| 70. Esophageal cancer tends to spread: A. Longitudinally B. Laterally C. Through lymphatics D. Posteriorly | Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 799 |
| 71. In the TNM staging system, an x represents what? A. Carcinoma in situ B. Lymph node involvement C. Not assessable D. Distant metastasis | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. 18. |
| 72. Tumors arising from mesenchymal cells are: A. Anaplastic B. Sarcomas C. Carcinomas D. Malignant | Answer: B Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 73. TD 5/5 for the salivary glands is: A. 5000 cGy B. 4500 cGy C. 6000 cGy D. 7000 cGy | Answer: A Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 74. Changes of the mouth (Xerostomia for example) occur between: A. 2000-3000 cGy B. 3000-4000 cGy C. 4000-6000 cGy D. 1000-2000 cGy | Answer: A Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 99 |
| 75. ________ is a local treatment modality that plays a role in diagnosis , staging, primary treatment, and palliation. A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation Therapy C. Immunotherapy D. Surgery | Answer: D Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 76. Radiation Therapy: I.Is a local treatment modality II.Can be used with other treatment modalities III. Includes external beam and brachytherapy IV. Is not used for palliation | A. I and III B. II and IV C. I, II, and III D. I, II, III, and IV Answer: Answer: C Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 77. The Ann Arbor Staging System is used for: A. Non Hodgkin’s B. Hodgkin’s C. ALL D. CLL | Answer: B Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 78. Etiology of lung cancer includes: I. Smoking II. Asbestos III. Crohn Disease IV. Pollution A. I and II B. I, II, and III C. I, II, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV | Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 79. Divisions of the small bowel include all of the following except: A. Duodenum B. Jejunum C. Pylorus D. Ileum | Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011 |
| 80. Techniques of the physical examination include: I. Inspection II. Palpation III. Percussion IV. Auscultation A. A only B. A and B C. A, B, and C D. A,B,C, and D | Answer: D Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 81. TD 5/5 for the whole bladder is: A. 6500cGY B. 5500cGy C. 3000cGy D. 4500cGy | Answer: A Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 82. The normal pulse rate for adults is: A. 110 to 120 beats/min B. 20 to 40 beats/min C. 40 to 60 beats/min D. 60 to 90 beats/min | Answer: D Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 83. Patients with no history of smoking are often diagnosed with lung cancer of what histology? A. Small Cell Carcinoma B. Large Cell Carcinoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Squamous Cell Carcinoma | Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 84. Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is a risk factor associated with cancer of the: A. Cervix B. Nasopharynx C. Bladder D. Brain | Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 85. Dukes Staging System is used for _________ cancer: A. Colon/Rectum B. Lung C. Esophagus D. Small Bowel | Answer: A Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 86. A sign is an objective finding as perceived by an examiner: True or False A. True B. False | Answer: A Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 87. Tumors that are generally well differentiated and do not metastasize or invade surrounding normal tissue are: A. Anaplastic B. Benign C. Malignant D. Necrotic | Answer: B Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 88. Patients with Hodgkin’s Lymphoma may experience B symptoms. B symptoms include: A. unexplained fever B. drenching night sweats C. weight loss D. all of the above | Answer: D Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) |
| 89. The triangular-shaped surface landmark, which we use in radiation therapy that partially covers the external auditory meatus, is called? A. Helix B. Canthus C. Glabella D. Tragus | Answer: D Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 394 |
| 90. The iliac crest is at what level of the lumbar spine? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 | Answer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 388 |
| 91.WB with opposing laterals, a way to minimize radiation into the eye opposite the entrance point would be to: a. CA of the beam near the lateral canthus b. Rotate collimator c. Turn the patient’s head slightly away d. rotate the couch away | Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 757 |
| 92. When treating the entire spine of a patient, the posterior surface should be flat to ensure: a. Skin gaps are smaller b. position is reproducible c. Dose is more uniform d. Patients are most comfortable | Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 757 |
| 93. One disadvantage to using a vertex field to treat primary brain lesion is that the field exits through the: a. brain and mediastinum b. pharynx and spinal cord c. orbits d. chest | Answer: B Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 734 |
| 94.(Correct Order)for immobilization devices. I. Make the device II. Determine beam orientation III. Determine patient position IV. Determine appropriate device a. I, II, III, IV b. IV, III, II, I c. I, IV, II, III d. III, II, IV, | Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 452 |
| 95. If an object measures 4.3 cm on the film, and is 3.1 cm in real life, what is the magnification factor? a. 1.39 b. 1.2 c. 2.45 d. 1.56 | Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 122 |
| 96. Patient thickness is also known as a. patient width b. separation c. Intra field distance d. B and C | Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 447 |
| 97. When calculating the monitor units of a cerrobend blocked field, one must include a. Wedge factor b. Tray factor c. ESQ of field with block d. B and C | Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 502 |
| 98. A patient is treated with a tandem and ovoids receives a dose of 60 Gy to point A. What is the dose delivered to point B? a. 30 Gy b. 60 Gy c. 20 Gy d. 40 Gy | Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 309-310 |
| 99. The dose under a 4 HVL block would be approximately: a. 10%-15% of the given dose b. 22%-27% of the given dose c. 5% - 8% of the given dose d. 3%-5% of the given dose | Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg. 290 |
| 100. Pt has a large pelvix tumor involving the bladder and prostate, and there is a presacral mass, the best beam arrangement would be: a. Opposed anterior and posterior fields b. Opposed lateral fields c. four field box d. 90 degree wedged pair | Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 848-850 |
| 101. If a patient’s CT scan has a pitch greater than 1, what might result? a. Over-scanning b. blur due to patient motion c. a and b d none of the above | Answer: D Reference: Washington an Leaver, pg 479 |
| 102. The typical CT number of bone is: a. 0 b. 1000 c. 8000 d. -1000 | Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 471 |
| 103. If a therapist raises the mAs while taking an image for a large patient, what is the result? a. an increase in the number of x-rays b. better image quality c. an increase in the average energy of the x-ray d. A and B e. B and C | Answer: D Reference: Khan, Choonik’s notes, Imaging lecture |
| 104. What is the collimator setting for a patient with 140 cm SSD on a linear accelerator with a treatment field size of 22 x 40? a. 16 x 29 b. 22 x 40 c. 11 x 20 d. 8 x 16 | Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 497 |
| 105. What is the output of a machine if the SSD is changed from 80 cm to 60 cm, if the original output was 130 rad/min? a. 65 rad/min b. 110 rad/min c. 150 rad/min d. 231 rad/min | Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 497 |
| 101. If a patient’s CT scan has a pitch greater than 1, what might result? a. Over-scanning b. blur due to patient motion c. a and b d none of the above | Answer: D Reference: Washington an Leaver, pg 479 |
| 102. The typical CT number of bone is: a. 0 b. 1000 c. 8000 d. -1000 | Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 471 |
| 103. If a therapist raises the mAs while taking an image for a large patient, what is the result? a. an increase in the number of x-rays b. better image quality c. an increase in the average energy of the x-ray d. A and B e. B and C | Answer: D Reference: Khan, Choonik’s notes, Imaging lecture |
| 104. What is the collimator setting for a patient with 140 cm SSD on a linear accelerator with a treatment field size of 22 x 40? a. 16 x 29 b. 22 x 40 c. 11 x 20 d. 8 x 16 | Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 497 |
| 105. What is the output of a machine if the SSD is changed from 80 cm to 60 cm, if the original output was 130 rad/min? a. 65 rad/min b. 110 rad/min c. 150 rad/min d. 231 rad/min | Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 497 |
| 106. What is the blocked equivalent square for a 10 x 20 field with a 4 x 6 block? a. 13.3 b. 8.6 c. 15.6 d. 11.4 | Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 498 |
| 107. What is the electronic equilibrium for a 6 MV beam? a. 1 cm b. 1.5 cm c. 2 cm d. 0.5 cm | |
| 108. What is the hinge angle for a 30-degree wedged pair treatment? a. 100 degrees b. 110 degrees c. 120 degrees d. 130 degrees | Answer: c Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 175 |
| 109. What is the most suitable wedge for ideal tumor contour with two fields separated by 90 degrees a. 45 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 60 degrees d. 15 degrees | Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 175 |
| 110. What is the equivalent square for a 15 x 6 field? a. 10 x 10 b. 9.5 x 9.5 c. 9 x 9 d. 8.6 x 8.6 | Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 498 |
| 111. What is the practical range of 10 MeV electron beam in tissue? a. 3.33 cm b. 2.5 cm c. 5 cm d. 2 cm | Answer: c Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 554 |
| 112. What is the depth of the 80% isodose line for a 12 MeV beam? a. 3 cm b. 6 cm c. 2.4 cm d. 4 cm | Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 555 |
| 113. What is the average life of a radioactive source with a half-life of 32 minutes? a. 135 minutes b. 46 minutes c. 96 minutes d. 176 minutes | Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 302 |
| 114. What is the depth of the 80% dose line for electron beam energy? a. 1/2 of the energy b. 1/3 of the energy c. 1/4 of the energy d. 1/5 of the energy | Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 555 |
| 115. What is the magnification factor if the SOD is 70 cm and the SFD IS 100 cm? a. .7 b. .3 c. 1.3 d. 1.43 | Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 122 |
| 116. A metal rod from a patient’s femur is 20 cm on film, what is the physical size of the rod? The SOD distance is 90 cm and the SFD is 120 cm. a. 15 cm b. 17 cm c. 22 cm d. 14 cm | Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 122 |
| 117. Which of the following is used to obtain patient contours? A. CT Scan B. Pantograph C. Wire D. All of the above | Answer: D (Levy, 2011) |
| 118. _______ slice thickness may be used for non-IMRT treatment planning to reduce the amount of computer contouring of anatomy: A. 2mm B. 3mm C. 5mm D. 7mm | Answer: C (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 95 |
| 119. The most common methods of administering contrast during CT simulation are: I. Intravenously II. Orally III. Intrathecally IV. Intra-articularly A. I and II B. I and III C. II and IV D. I,II,III, and IV | Answer: A (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 473 |
| 120. Convulsions fall under which category of reactions to contrast media: A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe | Answer: C (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 476 |
| 121. _______ indicates the gross palpable or visible tumor: A. GTV B. CTV C. PTV D. ITV | Answer: A (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 445 |
| 122. Dmax for a 6MV beam is: A. 0 cm B. 0.5 cm C. 1.0 cm D. 1.5 cm | Answer: D (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 496 |
| 123. The formula for half-value layer (HVL) is: A. 0.693/λ B. 0.693/µ C. A0e-λt D. Ioe-µx | Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 290 |
| 124. The ratio of absorbed dose at a given depth in phantom to the absorbed dose at the same point in free space is defined as: A. TAR B. TMR C. PDD D. PSF | Answer: A (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 500 |
| 125. Dmax for a 18MV beam is: A. 2.5 cm B. 3.5 cm C. 4.0 cm D. 4.5 cm | Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 496 |
| 126. The ratio that is expressed as a percentage f the absorbed dose at a given depth to the absorbed dose at a fixed reference depth, usually Dmax is: A. TAR B. TMR C. PSF D. PDD | Answer: D (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 499 |
| 127. Cerrobend is composed of what percent of bismuth? A. 50% B. 26% C. 13% D. 10% | Answer: A (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 153 |
| 128. ________ indicated the gross palpable or visible tumor and a surrounding volume of tissue that may contain subclinical or microscopic disease: A. GTV B. CTV C. PTV D. ITV | Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 445 |
| 129. A(n) ________device restricts patient movement and ensures reproducibility in positioning: A. Positioning B. Immobilization C. Electronic D. Boring | Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 454 |
| 130. During CT simulation, laser alignment marks should be placed: A. At the level of anticipated treatment isocenter B. At the level of the central scan C. At the first image level D. At the final image level | Answer: A (Levy, 2011) |
| 131. Custom tissue compensators are used to: A. filter scattered electrons B. reduce the beam energy C. compensate for surface irregularity D. immobilize the patient | Answer: C (Levy, 2011) |
| 132. In the usual orientation of the three planes with respect to the patient: A. The transverse lies across the patient B. The sagittal lies across the patient C. The coronallies parallel x-axis D. The sagittal plane lies parallel z-axis | Answer A |
| 133. The ________ can be used to find the lower border of the larynx. A. Hard palate B. Thyroid cartilage C. Cricoid cartilage D. Hyoid bone | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 395 |
| 134. The angle of Louis can be found at the level of T4. A. True B. False | Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 391 |
| 135. The crest of the iliac can be found at the level of: A. L3 B. L5 C. L2 D. L4 | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 399 |
| 136. The carina can be found at the level of: A. T4-T5 B. T6-T7 C. T3-T4 D. T7-T8 | Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 399 |
| 137. Supraclavicular nodes are located ___________ to the clavicle. A. Inferior B. Posterior C. Medially D. Superior | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 402 |
| 138. The superior portion of the rectum can be found at the level of: A. S1 B. S2 C. S3 D. S4 | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 405 |
| 139. The xiphoid process can be found at the level of: A. T11 B. T12 C. T8 D. T10 | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 408 |
| 140. The hyoid bone can be found at the level of: A. C3 B. C4 C. C5 D. C6 | Answer: B Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 408 |
| 141. ___________ is the delivery of smaller doses BID to achieve an increase in the total dose delivered in the same time overall. A. Hyperfractionation B. Hypofractionation C. Protraction D. Fractionation | Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 946 |
| 142. The GTV includes: A. Gross palpable or visible tumor surrounding microscopic disease B. answers from A and margin for set up error C. Gross palpable or visible tumor and margin for movement D. Gross palpable or visible tumor | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg.945 |
| 143. Calculate the skin gap for two abutting fields using the following information. L1=20, L2=25, SSD1=100, SSD2=105, d1=5, d2=5 A. 1.5 B. 3.2 C. 1.1 D. 2.1 | Answer: C |
| 144. ___________ is the ratio of the absorbed dose at a given depth in phantom to the absorbed dose at the same point at the level of dmax in phantom. A. TAR B. PDD C. TMR D. TPR | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 954 |
| 145. As SSD increases, penumbra: A. Decreases B. Disappears C. Increases D. Stays the same | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 172 |
| 146. When treating with a wedged pair, the ________ should be together. A. Heels B. Toes | Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 171 |
| 147. The primary use of bolus is to: A. Bring the dose to the surface B. Compensate for missing tissue C. Make the dose homogenous D. Decrease surface dose | Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 170 |
| 148. The components of cerrobend are: A. Berrill, lead, tin, and copper B. Berrill, lead, tin, and cadmium C. Bismuth, lead, tin, and copper D. Bismuth, lead, tin, and cadmium | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 170 |
| 149. An orthogonal set are films are taken ____ degrees apart A. 30 B. 45 C. 90 D. 180 | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 168 |
| 150. Positioning aids primary goal is to: A. Verify patient position B. Make the patient comfortable C. Hold the patient in position D. Reproduce the patients position daily | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 165 |
| 151. Daily charting should include all of the following except: A. Treatment number B. Time C. Elapsed days D. Date | Answer: B Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 162 |
| 152. An image intensifier converts: a. X-ray image to light image at input screen b.light image to electronic image at input screen c. electronic image to light image at input screen d. amplified image to electronic image at output screen | Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 425-426 |
| 153. After setting up a patient, a therapist removes their gloves and does not wash their hands. This is a violation of: a. Standard precautions b. Universal precautions c. Body substance isolation precautions d. B and C | Answer: B Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 211 |
| 154. Your breast patient is starting the first day of their boost today, and you notice the prescription calls for a 450cGy/fraction dose. What should you do? a. Continue treating b. Alert dosimetry c. Contact physics d. Contact the oncologist | Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 163 |
| 155. What type of monitoring device might you use to record the dose a portion of the treatment field receives? a. G-M detector b. pocket dosimeter c. TLD d. Cutie pie detector | Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 351 |
| 156. Treatment machine parameters monitored by Verify and Record system include: a. Monitor units b. Gantry position c. Bolus Application d. Immobilization device e. All of the above f. A, B, and C | Answer: F Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 160 |
| 157. The period over which radiation is delivered is known as: a. Fractionation b. Protraction c. Daily Dose d. None of the above | Answer: B |
| 158. irradiating extremeties spare: a. Bone- prevent obstruction of lymph flow b. Tissue- extremity prevent obstruction on lymph flow c. Tissue- entire extremity prevent obstruction of blood flow (BF) d. Muscle on each side- prevent obstruction BF | Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 589 |
| 159. If a 60-degree wedge is left out of two of five treatments the central axis dose is: a. Increase, dose distribution is affected b. Decreased,dose distribution is affected c. Decreased, dose d is not affected d. Increase, dose d is not affected | Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 529 |
| 160. In the proton treatment, the dose distribution spikes at a depth and then suddenly drops; this change in dose distribution is called? a. Buildup b. Dose maximum c. Dose falloff d. Bragg peak | Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 296 |
| 161. How many cobalt sources are in a gamma knife unit? a. 176 b. 201 c. 280 d. 301 | Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 323 |
| 162. A 360 degree rotation has an MU/degree setting of 0.72 MU/degree, how many monitor units are delivered? a. 201 b. 180 c. 360 d. 259 | Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 175 |
| 163. The prescription says to deliver 50 Gy, what is the dose in rad? a. 0.50 b. 50 c. 500 d. 5000 | Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 271 |
| 164. What is the block equivalent square for a 10 x 10 cm field that has a block of 2 x 5 cm? a. 9.5 x 9.5 b. 9 x 9 c. 8 x 8 d. 10.2 x 10.2 | Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 499 |
| 165. Adults undergoing total body irradiation may be treated at an extended distance while assuming the position of: A. standing B. semirecumbent position C. trendelenberg position D. Sim’s position | Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 166. Total dose for prophylactic cranial irradiation for small cell lung cancer is typically: A. 20 Gy B. 30 Gy C. 36 Gy D. 45 Gy | Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 167. If the patient is positioned prone with feet away from the gantry, and the digital readout is 20 degrees, the proper beam projection would be called: A. RAO B. LAO C. RPO D. LPO | Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 168. If a 1 cm bolus is applied to an area being treated with a 6 MV beam, the maximum dose point will be located at: A. the skin surface B. 0.5 cm below the skin surface C. 1 cm below the skin surface D. 1.5 cm below the skin surface | Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 169. The distance from the source of radiation to the part of the patient’s skin where the beam enters is called the: A. SAD B. SSD C. SFD D. SOD | Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 170. The majority of radiation therapy treatments involving linear accelerators are normally delivered using a source to axis distance of: A. 50 cm B. 80 cm C. 100 cm D. 120 cm | Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011) |
| 171. A patient who is in cardiac arrest is a level _____ on the Karnofsky performance scale. a. 20 b. 5 c. 0 d. 100 | Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 234 |
| 172. A patient with a systemic infection risks _____ shock. a. Anaphylactic shock b. cardiogenic c. None of the above d. Septic | Answer: D Reference: Levy, pg 127 |
| 173. For an area to be completely free of pathogens, you should follow: a. Surgical asepsis b. Medical asepsis c. gloved technique d. Universal Precautions | Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 204 |
| 174. What is the result of abnormal pressure on the cardiac muscle usually due to the excessive accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac? a. mitral stenosis b. pericarditis c. tachycardia d. pericardial tamponade | Answer: D Reference: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmedhealth/PMH0001245/ |
| 175. Your patient has a continuous infusion regulator. During treatment, the regulator begins to alarm. The therapist should: a. Silence the alarm b. Reset the regulator c. Alert the physician or nurse d. Pull out the catheter | Answer C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 13-14 |
| 176. A patient arrives in a wheelchair and is unable to stand. The best transfer method is: a. draw sheet b. slider board c. gait belt d. 2 to 3 person lift | Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 165 |
| 177. The volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood per 100 ml is the: a. erythrocytes b. leukocytes c. hematocrit d. hemoglobin | Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 97 |
| 178. Which instrument is needed to evaluate a patient’s blood pressure? a. Stethoscope b. Thermometer c. Sphygmomanometer d. A clock | Answer: c Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 91 |
| 179. A chemical substance used to kill pathogens on surfaces is: a. Antiseptic b. Antibiotic c. Deodorizer d. Disinfectant | Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 217 |
| 180. What is the normal systolic rate from an adult’s blood pressure reading? a. 110 to 140 mm Hg b. 60 to 80 mm Hg c. 80 to 100 mm Hg d. 130 to 150 mm Hg | Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 91 |
| 181. What is the normal diastolic rate from an adult’s blood pressure reading? a. 110 to 140 mm Hg b. 60 to 80 mm Hg c. 80 to 100 mm Hg d. 130 to 150 mm Hg | Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 91 |
| 182. A rectal temperature of an adult will read: a. 96.8° F b. 98.6° F c. 99.6° F d. 97.6° F | |
| 183. Alopecia may be seen at what dose: a. 1000 cGy b. 1500 cGy c. 2000 cGy d. 2500 cGy | Answer: c Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 231 |
| 184. Erythema may be seen at what dose: a. 2000-3000 cGy b. 3000-4000 cGy c. 4000-5000 cGy d. 5000-6000 cGy | Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 231 |
| 185. The _________ developed The Standard of Ethics A. ASRT B. NCRP C. ARRT D. HIPAA | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 23 |
| 186. All of the following are included in the Patient’s Bill of Rights except: A. High quality patient care B. A clean & safe environment C. Protection of your privacy D. Financial assistance | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 27 |
| 187. The __________ is a legal document that allows an individual to designate anyone 18 yrs. or older to be a surrogate and make health care decisions. A. Health care contract B. Living will C. Advanced directive D. Durable power of attorney | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 36 |
| 188. _________ is known as the personal injury law A. Tort B. Assault & battery C. Negligence D. Doctrine of personal liability | Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 38 |
| 189. Informed consent must include: A. Documentation of health history B. List of prescription needed C. Verbal agreement on the cost D. The nature of the procedure, treatment, and disease | Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 31 |
| 190. ________ is truthfulness within the realm of health care practice A. Justice B. Teleogy C. Veracity D. Consequentialism | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 27 |
| 191. Nonverbal cues of communication include all of the following except: A. Eye contact B. Body position C. Tone of voice D. Facial expression | Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 227 |
| 192. _____________ is the state of general ill health and nutrition with early satiety: electrolyte and water imbalances; and progressive loss of body weight, fat, and muscle. A. Anorexia B. Cachexia C. Marasmus D. Kwashiorkor | Answer: B Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Lou |
| 193.Dyspnea is a ________ reaction to contrast media: A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. None of the above | Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 476 |
| 194. _________ produces symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, shortness of breath, airway obstruction, and vascular shock A. Anaphylactic Shock B. Asthma Attack C. Cardiac Arrest D. Pulmonary Edema | Answer: A (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 250 |
| 195. Urticaria is: A. Cardiac Arrest B. a Bloody nose C. Painful urination D. Hives | Answer: D (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 253 |
| 196. Which of the following is not a route of transmission: A. Contact B. Droplet C. Airborne D. Convalescence | Answer: D (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 193 |
| 197. Involves the rapid transfer of the infectious agent through the air over short distances, such as in talking, coughing, or sneezing close to someone’s face: A. Airborne B. Droplet C. Vectorborne D. Contact | Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 193 |
| 198. MRSA stands for: A. Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus B. Methotrexate-Reacting Streptococcal Aureus C. Mechlorethamine-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus D. Methicillin-Resistant Streptococcal Aureus | Answer: A (Levy, 2011) |
| 199. Methods of infection control in which any human blood or body fluid is treated as if it were known to be infectious: A. Standard Precautions B. Universal Precautions C. Transfer Precautions D. Liquid Precautions | Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 164 |
| 200. Patients receiving treatment in the oral cavity may experience: A. Radioactive Fillings B. Sore and Sensitive Teeth C. Sore Cheeks and Gums D. Metallic Taste when eating | Answer: C (Levy, 2011) is: Mosby Inc., pg. 233 |
| What is the high voltage setting of an x-ray unit referred to as? | The Peak Voltage |
| How much percent is the mean accelerating voltage of the peak voltage (KvP)? | 30-50% |
| How is the intensity of an x-ray produced? | By the # of e- hitting the anode ( this is expressed by mA |
| What is beam current determined by? | Cathode filament temp (only) |
| 20 keV is damaging to skin and can not penetrate the skin, what is use to prevent damage done to the skin when giving an x-ray? | X-rays use filters (thin aluminum/copper) plates. |
| What do filters do for x-rays? | They remove the unwanted low energy photons. This is also called "Hardening" the beam |
| When you Harden the beam, what do you do to the energy of the photon? | You increase it |
| What is the Axis of the bundle of photons called? | Central Ray |
| What is Elastic Scatter? | Interaction of photons undergoing a change in direction without loss of energy |
| What is the Photoelectric effect? | An interaction in which the incident photon delivers all of its energy to an atom which in return releases the energy in form of an electron. A "photoelectron" emitts from one of the inner shells at a high speed. |
| What is inelastic scatter? | Interaction of an X-ray photon with outershell electrons. |
| How fast do photons travel when coming out of the gantry? | 3.0 * 10^8 m/s which is the speed of light (c) |
| How is an atom ionized? | When an electron is booted off a shell |
| Quality of energy absorbed by the tissues is expressed in what unit? | Gy |
| 1 Gy = ?joule/kg | 1 joule/kg |
| The biologicial effect of radiation is expressed in what unit? It is also known as the ionizing radiaiton unit. | Sv Sievert This is the absorbed dose (Gy)* the "quality factor" |
| What is the former unit for radiation? | Rad |
| 1 Gy = ?rads | 100rads |
| Quality factors for x-rays and gamma emitting isotopes is? alph radiation? and slow beta radiation? | 1,10,2 |
| Linear magnification equation. | m=D/d=FFD/FOD= FFD/FFD-OFD OFD= object to film distance FOD= Focal spot or Focus to object distance FFD= Focus to film distance |
| Tumors are a result of what? | Abnormal proliferation |
| Which of the following does NOT govern ethics? A. Professional codes B. Popular science C. Patient's Bill of Rights D. Technical practice | Popular Science |
| The foundation of law is: A. autonomy B. confidentiality C. Justice D. Ethics | Ethics |
| Moral ethics are based on which of the following? A. Right and wrong B. Institutions C. Legal Rights D. Codes | Right and wrong |
| Which of the following is an ethical principle? A. Justice B. Individual freedom C. Egoism D. Confidentiality | Justice |
| Confidentiality, truth telling, and benevolence are chich of the following? A. Ethical principles B. Legal Rights C. Ethical characteristics D. Legal doctrines | Ethical Principles |
| A tort falls under which of the following? A. Criminal law B. Statutory law C. Civil law D. Common law | Civil law |
| Res ispsa loquitur means which of the following? A. Things speak for themselves B. The thing speaks for itself C. Do no harm D. No negligence was involved | The thing speaks for itself |
| Esophagus risk factors | Alcohol and tobacco use. Diet low in Fruits and veges, High in fat low in fiber |
| Spinal Cord Tumors and most CNS tumors are not metastatic T or F | False |
| RT side effects of CNS Tx | Fatigue, Hair loss, erythema, edema. Late side effects Cataracts and radionecrosis |
| Benign Tumors are not treated the same as malignant tumors? T or F | False |
| CNS symptoms | Pain, weakness , loss of sensation, loss of bowel or bladder |
| Symptoms of Brain Tumors? | HA, Seizure, Balance issues, aphasia |
| Metastatic Tx vs Primary | Whole brains are metastatic, Larger fields, Higher doses with less fractions of tx are also to be factors of metastatic or palliative care. When tx of radiation are 35 fx with a low dose with it or SRS tx's |
| Brain tumors aer the 1st leading cause of pediatric deaths | False, Second leading of ALL cancers |
| Brain tumors account for 20% of pediatric cancer. T or F | True |
| What is 50% of primary tumors of brain cancer in adults | Gliomas |
| Symptoms are not dependent on whether or not they are functioning or nonfunctioning tumors (depending on the tumor type) T or F | False, they are dependent |
| Tumors of the endocrine system may or may not exhibit symptoms based on horomone effects. T or F | True |
| Pituitary tumors are more aggressive than CNS tumors? T or F | False, they are less aggressive |
| What type of tx is completely unresponsive to anaplastic endocrine carcinoma? | RT |
| Routes of spread of Endocrine cancer | Blood or lymph |
| Which ethical Theory group evaluates an activity by weighing good against bad? A.Deontology B. Teleology C. Virtue ethics D. Moral ethics | Teleology |
| Whcih ethical model identifies the caregiver as a scientist dealing only with the facts and does not consider the human aspect of the patient? A.Collegial B. Convenent C. Engineering D. Priestly | Engineering |
| Of the following, which modelpresents a more cooperative method of pursuing health care for patients and providers athan the others? A. Analytical B. Engineering C. Convenent D. Collegial | Collegial |
| Core beleifs concerning waht is desireable and that help assess the worth of intangibles are called: A. Prospects B. Principles C. Theories D. Values | Values |
| Informed consent must be secured: A. In writing B. verbally C. Verbally and written D. Upon admission | In writing |
| Consent to release a patients health care records: A. Must be secured from the patient only B. Must be secured from the patient in writing C. Must be secured from teh patient both orally and in writing D. is not requried | Must be secured from the patient in writing |
| Copies of the incident reports should be: A. be included in teh patients medical record B. sent to the floor on which the patient is housed. C. Given to the patient D. Sent to the office of risk management | Sent to the office of risk management |
| The acronym HIPAA stands for: A.Health improvement policy and accountability act B. Health Information policy and action act C. Health Insurance protability and accountability act D. Health Improvement privacy and action act | Health Insurance portability and accountability act. |
| Most important diagnostic tool | Biopsy |
| Most presentation of thyroid cancer | Palpable neck mass |
| Where do the most tumors occur in the endocrine system? | Thyroid |
| where does breast CA metastisize to? | Brain, bone, lung, liver |
| Clinical presentation of breast CA | Painless lump ( most common presentation) Nipple discharge (2nd most) |
| Lymph nodes involved with breast cancer | 70% of lymph node drainage occurs in axilla |
| Breast Ca is most common cancer in women. T or F | True |
| Preventative measures for skin melanoma | Sunscreen, Protective clothing, and avoiding sun |
| Treatment types of skin cancer | Sx is primary curative measure of choice to tx all skin cancer (primary tx of melanoma and only cure for melonoma)*Cosmetic appearance prevents some sx* |
| What are the layers of skin? | Dermis and Epidermis |
| Who has a greater chance of developing Skin CA in geographical location? | Live near the equator and in High altitudes |
| When is radiation therpay used in tx? | Post-op |
| Where do soft tissue sarcomas commonly metastisize to? | Lung |
| How common are STS's | Extremely Rare |
| What are the acute and late effects of treatment chemo and RT | Acute: fever, mucositis, nausea, vomiting Late: Edema, fibrosis secondary malignancy, sterility |
| Where is the location of bone tumors? | Distal femur or proximal tibia are the two most common sites |
| What is the most common site for bone tumors? | Growth plate or episphyseal plate |
| Which type is the most common of the bone tumors? | Osteosarcoma |
| What are the two types of bone tumors and what is the majority of bone tumors? | Primary is rare and Metastatic is most common |
| Hypogeusia | Distortion of taste |
| Trismus | Lock jaw |
| Achalasia | Difficulty swallowing |
| Osteonecrosis | Bone death |
| Xerostomia | Dry mouth |
| Dermatitis | Inflammation of the dermis |
| Enteral | Passing through the intestines with a tube |
| Dysgeusia | No taste |
| Plummer-Vinson Syndrome | Iron diffeciency anemia difficulty swallowing |
| Tenesmus | Evacuate bowels |
| Cystitis | Inflammation of the bladder |
| Mucositis | Inflammation of mucous |
| Dendrites | Branches of the neuron that conduct electro chemical stimulation collects |
| axons | nerve fiber projection of nerve cell moves impulses away |
| Friable tumor | Solid substance able to be reduced to smaller pieces with little effort |
| Lymphadenopathy | Disease of lymph nodes |
| Xeroderma Pigmentosum | XP inherited condition extreme sensitivity to UV light |
| Multiplicity | Multiplying |
| Cancer of the rectum and colon only spread by direct extension. T or F | False but Direct extension is the most common way. |
| The most common histology for esophageal cancer in the U.S. is adenocarcinoma. T or F | True |
| Anal Cancer spreads most commonly by direct extension. T or F | True |
| If chemo is used concurrently with RT, Prescribed doses of RT will be lower. T or F | True |
| Esophageal cancers have a great prognosis and are most commonly treated by RT alone. | False they have a poor prognosis |
| Barrett's esophagus is a common risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus. T or F | False Adenocarcinoma |
| Risk Factors for developing esophageal cancer are diets high in fiber and low in fat. T or F | False High in fat and low in fiber |
| Esophageal cancer commonly spread to the liver and pancreas. T or F | False Lung not the pancreas |
| Common side effects of RT when it is used to treat esophageal cancer are: | Esophagitis, inability to eat solid foods, pain during swallowing and weight loss |
| What diet will you recommend to your pts whoare being treated withRT for esophageal Cancers | Soft foods, bland diet, no alcohol |
| what are the two most common staging systems used for colorectal cancers and how is it commonly treated? | AJCC and Duke's usually patients will have SX with concurrent RT |
| Survival rates of ovarian CA. | Most deadly GYN ca 4th leading cancer death overall |
| Presentation of cervical ca | Postcoital bleeding, foul smelling discharge, and pelvic pain |
| Rate of progression in cervical ca? | Progress slowly 2nd highest death rate which depends on the lymph nodes |
| Staging of cervical Ca? | FIGO |
| Responsibilities of RT for GYN ca? | Sim/Treat, positioning, remind of diet and full bladder |
| Diagnostic tools for diagnosing GYN ca | MRI, CT and Cystocopy |
| Risk factors for GYN cancers? | Increased number of sex partners, sex at an early age, and partners with penile ca |
| Mottled lesion | abnormal spot or smear of color on skin |
| Symptoms of metastatic disease | HA, Siezure, jaundice, SOB, Abdominal swelling |
| Lentigo | small pigmented spot |
| nevi | birthmark |
| occult disease | Hidden disease |
| Radiation Caries | Dental cavities caused by radiation |
| Coracoid process | Scapula |
| Hyperparathyroidism | Excessive production of the parathyroid horomones |
| Colorectal ca is the 2nd leading ca death | |
| Route of spread for anal cancer | Direct extension ( most common) lymph and hematogenous is less common |
| Side effects of RX to esophagus Ca | painful swallowing, esophagitis, weight loss |
| What is the staging system for CNS tumors? | NO universal staging system |
| Grade is more important than size of tumor? T or F | True |
| The grade of a tumor is most important prognostic indicator for brain tumors? T or F | True |
| Rubber and Vinyl are not linked to gliomas? T or F | False they are linked |
| Proctitis | Inflammation of the rectum |
| Where do STS'S occur? | Anywhere in the connective tissue |
| How do soft tissue sarcomas spread? | Primarly by blood they spread to the lung ( most common site) |
| what are the subtypes of sarcomas | Liposarcomas 23% |
| What is the most important prognostic factor | Grade |
| What are the main types of skin ca | Basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell, and malignant melanoma |
| What categories do individuals who are prone to getting skin cancer? | Geographic, skin type, multiplicity and gender |
| What is the etiology of skin ca | UV light, protection 90% prevented UVA and UVB light |
| Squamous cell carcinoma classification | Faster growing than basal cell and has a higher propensity to mets |
| Detection and DX of Skin CA | Monthly skin checks |
| What are the nonmelanoma skin cancers | basal cell and squamous cell |
| Risk factors for breast ca | Inherited BRCA1-2 gene |
| Prognostic indicators of breast ca | Higher # of nodes increases the recurrence rate, # of axillary LN involvment is most important and infiltrating ductal is most common histology |
| What are the endocrine organs | Thyroid (Most common tumors 94% of them) Parathyroid, Pituitary glands, Adrenal glands, Islets of langerhans ( specialized cells in pancreas) |
| Prognosis depends on what? | Extent at the time |
| Where are teh tumors located externally and internally for endocrine ca? | Internally is the Pituitary gland. Externally behind the TMJ between the eyes |
| Indicators of prognosis for esophageal ca | Depth of tumor penetration and extent of nodal involvement |
| main division fo the lung cancers as well as mesotheliomas | Nose, Pharynx, larynx, trachea, both lungs. Mesothelioma has a greater rate (Asbestos) |
| Identify how a diagnosis of leukemia is confirmed | Blood count. Bone marrow and aspiration biopsy |
| Lhetmitte's Sign | Pain resembling electric shock through body |
| Staging for Hodgkins and larynx cancer | Ann Arbor |
| Hodgkins B Symptoms | Night sweats, weight loss, and fevers |
| Spread pattern for Hodgkins | Predicatable, Adjacent node or region, spleen liver bone(late) lungs skeletal |
| Prognosis for Hodgkins | Good |
| Prognosis for NHL | Not Good |
| Age group for Hodgkins | Younger |
| Age Group for NHL | Elder |
| Histology for sinus Cancer | Adenocarcinoma |
| Incontinence | Inability to hold bowel/ bladder |
| Pruritis | Itching |
| Abdominoperineal resection | Anterior incision into the abdominal wall, with the construction of a colostomy followed by a perineal incision to remove rectum and anus and draining lyphatics |
| Impotence | Inability to obtain and erection |
| ALL AML CLL CML | Acute Lymphatic Leukemia Acute myelogenous Leukemia Chronic Lymphatic Leukemia Chronic myelogenous Leukemia |
| Lymph Organs | Spleen is the largest lymphatic tissue. Thymus, tonsils |
| Prognosis for H&N cancers | Unfavorable are lesions that cross midline, cranial nerve involvement and fixed nodes. |
| Etiology for H&N cancers | Leukoplakia ( white patches) Keratosis, erythorplasia (red velvet patches) |
| Etiology for nasopharyngeal cancers | Epstein barr virus |
| Epidemiology for H&N cancers | Alcohol, smoking paint fumes |
| What is a signigicant factor for H&N cancers | Morbidity |
| Most common site for H&N cancers | Oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, and salivary glands |
| pathology for colorectal ca | Adenocarcinoma is most common in large bowel |
| Etiology for colorectal ca | Diet high in animal fat and low in fiber |
| Staging for Hodgkins | Ann Arbor system |
| Two categories of lymphomas | Hodgkins and Non- Hodgkins |
| RX fields to treat hodgkins | mantle |
| Hodgkins side effects | Fatigue, erythema, dry cough and pneumitis |
| Risk factors for lung ca | smoking |
| Most common symptoms of lung ca | dry cough, dyphenia, and chest pain |
| Common sites for lung mets | Liver, brain, bone |
| Critical structures when treating lung | heart, healthy lung tissue, spine |
| what is a pancoast tumor | In the Apex of the lung |
| Cancers associated with Philadelphia chromosome | Leukemia, CML originate from prepurlent cells |
| Cancers associated with EBV and Reed sternberg viruses | Hodgkins |
| Treatment most effective for tongue cancer | RX |
| Region of larynx most commonly dx with cancer | Glottic, Subglottic, and supraglottic |
| Prognosis testicular Ca | Good |
| Symptoms of testicular ca | painless swelling, nodal mass, dull ache, heaviness, and LBP |
| What happens when chemo and radiation are used together | Chemo makes radiation more sensitive so one can give a lower dose of radiation |
| Histology of Testicular CA | germ cell Seminoma |
| Spread route of bladder cancer | Direct extension, lymph nodes and blood |
| Bladder histology | Squamous 6%, Adenocarcinoma 2%, papillary is the most common |
| Kidney histology | Adenocarcinoma |
| Urethra Histology | Squamous Cell |
| Most common type of H&N ca | Squamous Cell |
| Penile cancer histology | Squamous cell, majority is well differentiated |
| Critical structures when treating prostate ca | Bladder and rectum |
Created by:
Traldric
Popular Radiation Therapy sets