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Tortora Chapter Q&As from Ch. 16,17& 21-26

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
        Help!  

Question
Answer
Innate immunity is   The body's ability to ward off diseases  
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Physical factors to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection   Layers of cells, Tears and Saliva  
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The function of the "ciliary escalator"is to   Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract  
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Exhibits the highest phagocytic activity   Neutrophils  
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Characteristics of inflammation   Redness, pain, local heat and swelling.  
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The following can be determined from a differential count   The number of white blood cells, The numbers of each type of white blood cell and The possibility of a state of disease.  
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The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway beginning with the activation of   C3  
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Causes of vasodilation   Kinins, Prostaglandins and histamine  
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The following choices shows the order in which white blood cells migrate to infected tissues   Neutrophils & Monocytes  
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"margination" refers to   Adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.  
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The following statement is true   Alpha-interferon acts against specific viruses  
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Normally found in serum   Complement  
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Effects of complement activation   Interference with viral replication, bacterial cell lysis, opsonization and Increased phagocytic activity  
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An effect of opsonization   Increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms  
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Normal microbiota provide protection from infection by all of the following   They provide antibacterial chemicals, They make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria and They produce lysozyme  
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Provides protection from phagocytic digestion   Killing white blood cells, Lysing phagolysosomes, and ability to grow at a low pH  
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Defensive cells such as T cells identify pathogens by binding   Complement  
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A chemical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection   Sebum, Gastric juices,pH and Lysozyme  
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Fixed macrophages   They are found in certain tissues and organs, They are cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system and They are mature monocytes  
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Adherence of phagocytes may be accomplished by all of the following   Complement, Trapping a bacterium against a rough surface, opsonization and chemotaxis  
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An effect of histamine   Vasodilation, swelling, redness and pain  
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A function of inflammation   To destroy an injurious agent, To wall off an injurious agent and to repair damaged tissue  
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Chill is a sign that   Body temperature is rising  
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The following statement is true   Complement activity is antigen specific  
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Complement fixation results in all of the following   Activation of C3b, Immune adherence, acute local inflammation and cell lysis  
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The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by   Polysaccharides and C3b  
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The classical pathway for complement activation is initiated by   Antigen-antibody reaction  
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Activation of C3a results in   Acute inflammation, Increased blood vessel permeability, fever and attraction of phagocytes  
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Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to   produce toxic oxygen products  
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Vasodilation is caused by all of the following   Histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes  
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Activation of C5-C9 results in   Leakage of cell contents  
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Involved in adaptive immunity   Basophil, eosinophil,monocyte and neutrophil  
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Involved in resistance to parasitic helminths   Eosinophil  
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Macrophages arise from   Monocytes  
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Which one of the following do not belong with the others   Dendritic cells  
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Bacteria have siderophores that capture iron;humans counter this by   Transferrin  
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Occur during inflammation. What is the first step   Vasodilation  
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The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by   mannose of the parasite  
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effects of fever   Increases production of T cells, Interferon activity, transferrin production  
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Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which one would be the most severe   Deficiency of C3  
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The Classical pathway of complement activation   C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway, the C1 protein complex is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes, Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation and C3b cause opsonization  
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Chlamydia trachoma tis can live inside white blood cells because it   inhibits formation of phagolysosomes  
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Bacterial enzymes such as catalase and superoxide dismutase can protect bacteria from   phagocytic digestion  
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A subcutaneous infection resulting from epidermal damage is likely to contain staphylococci.   True  
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Dendritic cells are phagocytic cells derived from monocytes   True  
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The circulatory system and the lymphatic system are not connected in any way.   False  
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Some microorganisms escape from the phagosome before fusing with the lysosome and are able to survive and grow within phagocytes.   True  
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Infections that alter the differential white blood cell count do so by increasing the number of leukocytes.   False  
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Neutrophils and eosinophils are the phagocytic granulocytes.   True  
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If phagocytic cells are found in the tissues, they will be macrophages.   False  
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Interferons can cure many viral infections, including the common cold   False  
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Complement component C3b acts to increase adherence of phagocytes to microbes.   True  
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For the complement cascade, only the classical pathway can result in cytolysis.   False  
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Body fluids such as perspiration, tears, and saliva contain the enzyme __________, which breaks down the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria.   lysozyme  
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White blood cells that are collectively referred to as __________ differentiate to form the blood cells, which engulf and destroy microbes.   Phagocytes  
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Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are collectively referred to as __________.   granulocytes  
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The process of coating bacteria with serum proteins to promote attachment of phagocytes is called __________.   opsonization  
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Defensive cells such as macrophages and dendritic cells have __________ receptors on their surfaces that bind to molecular components on the surfaces of invading microorganisms. (1 word)   toll-like  
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In phagocytosis, the phagosome and the __________ fuse to form phagolysosome.   lysosome  
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Before entering the tissue, phagocytes stick to the lining of capillaries by a process known as __________.   margination  
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Complement components C5 through C9 form plasma membrane channels in cellular microbes referred to as the __________.   membrane attack complex  
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When blood is allowed to clot and the clot removed, the remaining liquid is referred to as __________.   Serum  
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Body temperature, which can change because of infection, is controlled by a region of the brain known as the __________.   hypothalamus  
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Which of these molecules or structures is not associated with innate immunity?   antibodies  
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The epidermis ________.   contains the protein keratin  
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The ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota. This is likely due to ________.   microbial antagonism  
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The respiratory system is protected against harmful microbes by all of the following except ________.   the lacrimal apparatus  
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All of these statements about sebum are true   Its metabolism can result in acne, It is secreted by sebaceous glands and It has antimicrobial properties. Accutane limits acne by preventing its formation.  
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One remarkable finding on a patient's laboratory workup is a marked eosinophilia. This might be suggestive of ________.   either a parasitic infection or an allergic (hypersensitivity) reaction  
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part of the mononuclear phagocytic system   alveolar macrophages wandering macrophages Kupffer's cells, and microglial cells  
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adherence of a phagocyte to a microbe   A capsule limits adherence. Adherence is a critical step in phagocytosis. The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes limits adherence. Complement molecules attached to the microbe can enhance adherence.  
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bacterial destruction by phagocytosis   Myeloperoxidase in lysosomes is involved in the formation of HOCl.  
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The stage of phagocytosis in which the phagocyte's plasma membrane attaches to the surface of the microbe is called ________.   adherence  
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Which answer is true of the inflammatory process   Kinins cause increased capillary permeability. Edema occurs. Swelling occurs due to vasodilation and increased capillary permeability and Leukotrienes cause increased capillary permeability.  
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All of these answers are true of inflammation except ________.   many neutrophils can be found at the site of chronic inflammation  
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. Activation of the complement cascade ________.   can cause the infecting microbe to be killed by lysis  
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Complement can be activated by all of the following   contact with a pathogen,antigen-antibody binding, mannose-binding lectins and opsonization  
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All of the following are true of nitric oxide (NO)   excessive production can cause septic shock, it can cause relaxation of blood vessel smooth muscle,it can be produced by blood vessel endothelial cells and it can be produced by macrophages that have been induced to produce NO synthase  
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Assume you mix red blood cells, antibodies against the red blood cells, and complement in a test tube. What would you expect to see   lysis of the red blood cells  
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All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation   C5b joins C6, C7, C8, and C9 to form the membrane attack complex,activated C1 activates C2 and C4,activated C2a and C4b activate C3 and C1 is activated by an antigen-antibody complex  
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Complement component C3, in the classical pathway, is split by ________.   C2aC4b  
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Which of the following occurs first, setting in motion the remaining events?   Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on macrophages and dendritic cells attach to pathogen-associated microbial patterns (PAMPS) on invading microorganisms.  
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Interferons ________.   are host specific but not virus specific  
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End of Chapter 16   Chapter 17 Begins Here  
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Type of immunity resulting from vaccination   Artificially acquired active immunity  
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Type of immunity resulting from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection   Artificially acquired passive immunity  
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Immunity resulting from recovery from mumps   Naturally acquired active immunity  
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Newborns immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta   Naturally acquired passive immunity  
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Immunity that is not due to antibodies   Innate immunity  
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Immunity due to injection of tetanus toxoid   Artificially acquired active immunity  
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Immunity due to injection of an antigen   Artificially acquired active immunity  
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T cells are activated by   Interaction between CD4 and MHC II  
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Recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II   TH cell  
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The specificity of an antibody is due to   The variable portions of the H and L chains.  
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Characteristic of B cells   They originate in bone marrow, they have antibodies on their surfaces, they are responsible for the memory response, and they are responsible for antibody formation  
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Characteristic of cellular immunity   The cells originate in bone marrow, cells are processed in the thymus gland and it can inhibit the immune response  
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Plasma cells are activated by a (n)   antigen  
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The antibodies found in mucus,saliva, and tears are   IgA  
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The antibodies found on B cells are   IgD  
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The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are   IgE  
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In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are   IgM  
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Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are   IgM  
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The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is   IgG  
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The best definition of an antigen is   A chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies.  
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The best definition of an antibody is   A protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen  
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Patients with an inherited type of colon cancer called familial adenomatous polyposis have a mutation in the gene that codes for   apoptosis  
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Chemical signals sent between leukocytes are   Interleukins  
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Natural Killer cells   destroy virus-infected cells, tumor cells and destroy cells lacking MHC I  
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An antibody's Fc region can be bound by   Macrophages  
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Antigens coated with antibodies are susceptible to   phagocytosis  
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Cell death caused by perforin and granzymes is caused by   Cytotoxic T lymphocytes  
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IL-2 produced by TH cells   cause phagocytosis  
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Antigen-antibody binding may result in all of the following   Agglutination of the antigens, complement activation, neutralization of the antigen and opsonization of the antigen.  
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End of chapter 17   Begin Chapter 21  
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Which of the following is not normal microbiota of the skin?   Streptococcus  
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An 8-year-old female has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother who had shingles. What infection does the 8-year-old have?   Chickenpox  
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Which of the following pairs is matched   S. pyogenes  erysipelas, P. acnes  acne P. aeruginosa  otitis externa  
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The etiologic agent of warts is   Papovavirus.  
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characteristic of P. aeruginosa   Oxidative metabolism,Oxidase positive,Produce pyocyanin  
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of the following pairs is matched   Pustular rash  smallpox,Koplik spots  rubella,Vesicular rash  chickenpox  
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transmitted by the respiratory route   Chickenpox, small pox, German measles  
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caused by herpesvirus   Chickenpox, Shingles, Keratoconjunctivitis  
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Thrush and vaginitis are caused by   Candida albicans  
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The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is   Trachoma.  
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can be treated with topical chemotherapeutic agents   Dermatomycosis  
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cause of ringworm   Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton  
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Newborns' eyes are treated with an antibiotic when   Always  
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A possible complication of herpetic keratitis is   Encephalitis,Fever blisters,Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis,Congenital rubella syndrome  
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sensitive to penicillin   Streptococcus  
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Which region of the skin supports the largest bacterial population   Axilla  
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Which infection is caused by S. aureus   pimples,sty,furuncle and carbuncle  
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characteristic used to identify S. pyogenes   Catalase-negative,Group A cell wall antigen, Group M proteins, Beta-hemolytic  
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causative agent of conjunctivitis   Chlamydia trachomatis, Herpes simplex,Adenovirus and Hemophilus aegyptii  
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In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles   rash  
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Vaccination for rubella is   Not recommended for pregnant women and new borns, necessary because the disease is mild and necessary even if the person has been infected before.  
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congenital rubella syndrome   It may be fatal,It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation,It doesn't occur with subclinical infections  
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The etiologic agent of chickenpox   Herpes zoster  
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The etiologic agent of fifth disease   Parvovirus  
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The etiologic agent of roseola   HHV-6  
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The etiologic agent of fever blisters   Herpes simplex  
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Used to treat epidemic herpetic keratitis   Trifluridine  
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Used to treat smallpox   There is no treatment for this virus  
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Used to treat sporotrichosis   Fungicide  
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Used to treat candidiasis   Fungicide  
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Scabies is a skin disease caused by   A mite  
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Scabies is transmitted by   Fomites.  
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A patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has   Chickenpox.  
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Which of the following leads to all the others   TSST-1  
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Herpes gladiatorium is transmitted by   Direct contact.  
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The patient has a papular rash. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small 8-legged animals.   Scabies  
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The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters.   S. aureus  
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The patient has scaling skin on his fingers. Conidiospores are seen in microscopic examination of skin scrapings   Microsporum  
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A 45-year-old male has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to   Varicella-zoster virus  
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A 35-year-old female has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by   Candida albicans  
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Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and used the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate. The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are gram-positive cocci. You advise him that he should next look for   A coagulase reaction  
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the following is correctly matched   Conjunctivitis  Chlamydia trachomatis Conjunctivitis  Pseudomonas Infected tissue fluoresces  Dermatomycosis Opportunistic infection in AIDS patients  Candidiasis  
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A 17-year-old male has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is   Acne  
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A 17-year-old male has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is caused by   Propionibacterium acnes  
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Which of the following results in comparatively long-lasting immunity   A person survives an infectious disease.  
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The resistance to reinfection with measles virus following recovery from measles infection is called ________.   adaptive immunity  
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HIV selectively destroys CD4 cells and as a result, a person with AIDS is susceptible to life-threatening viral infections. Knowing this, you can conclude that ________.   these viruses have T-dependent antigens  
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Cyclosporine is a drug sometimes used to prevent transplant rejection after organ transplant surgery. This drug specifically disrupts cell-mediated immunity by cytotoxic T cells. Which of these events can be predicted based on this information   Antibody production will not be disrupted in the recipient.  
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Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against ________.   intracellular bacteria and viruses  
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cell types is involved in cell-mediated immunity   T regulatory cells,T helper cells,TH1 cells andT cytotoxic cells  
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All of these statements are true of antigens   They are often proteins or polysaccharides, They can include nonmicrobial molecules, such as pollen, egg white, and blood cell surface molecules,They are typically nonself molecules, and They are often surface molecules on microbes.  
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For IgG, the antigen binding site is found on the ________.   variable region of a heavy chain and the variable region of a light chain  
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All of these statements are true of the IgG antibody class except ________.   it is the most abundant antibody class in body secretions  
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the following would be a possible consequence of a disorder that selectively destroys the T regulatory cells in a patient   autoimmune diseases  
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Which answer is true for IgA   It picks up the secretory component as it passes through mucosal cells.  
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these processes is in the proper sequence   IgE is formed; IgE binds to mast cells and basophils; antigen binds IgE; histamine is released.  
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the correct order of differentiation   stem cells to B cells to plasma cells  
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Which of these statements is not true of antibody molecules   Antibody molecules can directly destroy antigen.  
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A property of T cells, but not B cells, is their ________.   ability to form cells that directly kill virus-infected host cells  
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T helper cells   they activate B cells,they have CD4 molecules on the cell surface,they activate macrophages,they recognize antigen presented by class II MHC molecules.  
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T cytotoxic cells ________.   produce perforins  
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a potential concern of using T-independent antigens as vaccines   These antigens will be ineffective in producing an immune response in infants  
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Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity ________.   is particularly important for killing microbes that are too large be destroyed by phagocytosis  
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anamnestic response   IgG predominates  
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Haptens can bind to antibody molecules only if the haptens are attached to a carrier molecule.   False  
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For a single antibody molecule, the two light chains have an identical amino acid sequence in the constant regions but different amino acid sequences in the variable regions.   False  
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The Fc region of an antibody molecule can bind to host cells.   True  
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The class I major histocompatibility molecules are found on most body cells.   True  
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The process of eliminating potentially self-reactive T cells in the thymus is called clonal selection.   False  
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IgM circulating in a newborn's blood was produced by the mother and crossed the placenta to enter the fetal circulation before birth.   False  
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The anamnestic response requires the presence of memory cells.   True  
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Helper T cells are involved in both the humoral and the cellular immune responses.   True  
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Macrophages and dendritic cells are the only cells that can present antigen to T cells.   False  
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T cells react to antigens on the surface of APCs only when those antigens are associated with proteins of the major histocompatibility complex.   True  
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Chapter 21   Begins  
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What do the following diseases have in common: Scalded skin syndrome Toxic shock syndrome Staphylococcal food poisoning   They are all caused by exotoxins produced by strains of Staphylococcus aureus.  
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Which microorganism is responsible for otitis externa   Pseudomonas aeruginosa  
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Place the following infections in order of increasing tissue involvement and severity: (1) septicemia, (2) folliculitis, (3) cellulitis, (4) furuncle.   2-4-3-1  
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produce infections of the skin with blue-green pus   seudomonas aeruginosa  
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Warts are generally caused by ________.   papillomavirus  
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Sporotrichosis is the most common type of ________.   subcutaneous mycoses  
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the most appropriate way of testing whether a skin lesion is caused by a dermatophyte   culture scrapings of the lesion periphery on Saborauds agar  
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Ringworm is caused by a/an ________.   fungus  
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true regarding chickenpox and shingles   A child who is not immune to chickenpox may get it following exposure to a patient with shingles.  
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Measles can potentially be eradicated because ________.   Humans are the only reservoir, and vaccination is effective.  
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eukaryotic pathogen that infects the eye   Acanthamoeba  
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characteristic of Streptococcus   M proteins,beta-hemolytic,gram-positive, and cocci  
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characteristics of the varicella-zoster virus   transmission via the respiratory route,reactivation infections decades after initial infection,vesicular skin rash, and latent infection in nerve cells  
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caused by HSV-1   herpes whitlow,cold sores,herpes gladiatorum, and encephalitis  
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a possible result of rubeola   macular rash, encephalitis,subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, and pneumonia  
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cause conjunctivitis   Haemophilus,Chlamydia,Pseudomonas, and Neisseria  
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associated with Candida albicans   whitish overgrowth of the oral cavity,bright red skin with lesions on the borders,immunosuppressed individuals, andsusceptible to nystatin  
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a treatment for papillomas   laser therapy,cryotherapy,treatment with certain topical drugs, and electrodissection  
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enzymes produced by deep tissue streptococcal infections   protease,deoxyribonuclease,hyaluronidase, and streptokinase  
🗑
Chapter 22   Begins here  
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Consider the following three common agents of bacterial meningitis: Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae B. Which of the following would be most helpful in differentiating these three agents   gram-stain morphology  
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he current first choice of antibiotic for bacterial meningitis is ________.   cephalosporin  
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Vaccination is recommended to prevent epidemic meningitis among college students and military recruits resulting from infection with ________.   Neisseria meningitidis  
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he most important element in the pathogenicity of S. pneumoniae is ________.   the capsule  
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The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis requires a sample of ________.   cerebrospinal fluid  
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Treatment for rabies exposure requires ________.   injections of antirabies vaccine and immune globulin  
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Which disease may be transmitted by contaminated dairy products   listeriosis  
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used to diagnose West Nile encephalitis   ELISA test for IgM antibodies  
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Reservoirs for rabies include the following, except ________.   mosquitoes  
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these vaccines has actually been implicated in causing the disease it is designed to prevent   Sabin oral polio vaccine  
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A migrant farmworker has been brought into the emergency room showing early symptoms of tetanus. He indicates that he had received a puncture wound in his hand a week before the onset of symptoms. When asked about vaccination or booster, he did not know.   tetanus immune globulin  
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A 10-month-old infant has become constipated and demonstrates muscular weakness by her inability to sit up or crawl. Her muscle tone is continuing to deteriorate, and she is beginning to have difficulty holding her head up. While questioning her mother to   infant botulism  
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What is the best way to control West Nile encephalitis   Eliminate the vector.  
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Which method is best for controlling African trypanosomiasis   Control the vector.  
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An otherwise healthy 19-year-old college student was admitted to the emergency room with a fever, bad headache, and a stiff neck, symptoms suggestive of meningitis. A spinal tap was done. The CSF was cloudy, and the cell count on the fluid was 500 WBC/ml.   Neisseria meningitidis  
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Naegleria encephalitis is commonly acquired by ________.   children swimming in ponds and streams  
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true concerning foodborne botulism in older children and adults   Disease results from consuming botulism toxin in improperly preserved foods.  
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Which of the following begins as a lung infection but may cause meningitis in immunosuppressed individuals?   cryptococcosis  
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What structures make up both the cranial and spinal meninges   the arachnoid mater, the pia mater, the dura mater  
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Which wild animal has the highest percentage of the reported rabies cases   Raccoons  
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A flat, red lesion is called a ________.   macule  
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Which of the following statements is false regarding shingles   Everyone who has had chicken pox will get shingles.  
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true about the normal microbiota of the nervous system   There are no normal microbiota  
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Encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because   Antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier.  
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the following organisms is capable of causing meningitis   Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae ,Streptococcus pneumoniae  
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the following are true about H. influenzae   A healthy carrier state can exist,It is encapsulated,It requires a blood supplement in media, It is used in a whole bacterial vaccine  
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the following pairs is matched   Neisseria meningitidis  cultured in a candle jar ,Haemophilus influenzae  virulence due to capsule ,Mycobacterium leprae  cultured in armadillos ,Naegleria fowleri  causes amoebic encephalitis  
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the following organisms is correctly matched to the recommended treatment   Haemophilus influenzae  cephalosporins ,Cryptococcus neoformans  amphotericin B ,Mycobacterium leprae  dapsone ,Poliovirus  Salk vaccine  
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true about leprosy   It is transmitted by direct contact. Diagnosis may be based on the lepromin testIt is rarely fatal.  
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transmitted by the respiratory route   N. meningitidis,H. influenzae , C. neoformans  
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true about rabies   It is caused by Rhabdovirus,Hydrophobia is an early symptom.,Diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques,It is not fatal in bats  
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The symptoms of tetanus are due to   Clostridial neurotoxin.  
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The treatment for tetanus is   Antibodies  
🗑
A 30-year-old female was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Her symptoms could be due to all of the following   Clostridium botulinum, Listeria monocytogenes,Streptococcus pneumoniae  
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The most effective control of a vectorborne disease is   Elimination of the vector  
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Treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person is   Tetanus immune globulin.  
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Treatment for tetanus in an immunized person is   Tetanus toxoid  
🗑
The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through   The circulatory system  
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The prodromal symptom(s) of meningitis is (are)   Like a mild cold.Fever and headache,Stiff neck and back pains. Convulsions.  
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the following are requirements for an outbreak of botulism   Killing bacteria that compete with Clostridium,An anaerobic environment,An incubation period,A nutrient medium with a pH below 4.5.  
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The most common cause of meningitis in children is   Haemophilus influenzae  
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Meningitis that begins as an infection of the lungs is caused by   Cryptococcus neoformans.  
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the following pairs is matched   Leprosy  direct contact,Poliomyelitis  respiratory route,Meningococcal meningitis  respiratory route  
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A 30-year-old female was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Which of the following is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of   Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid  
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All of the following are caused by prions   Sheep scrapie,Kuru,Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease,Transmissible mink encephalopathy  
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the following are true about the lepromin test   It detects the presence of anti-M. leprae antibodies,It is negative in the lepromatous form,It consists of M. leprae,  
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Purplish spots on the skin are characteristic of an infection by   N. meningitidis.  
🗑
A 1-year-old female was hospitalized with fever, lethargy, and rash. Gram-negative, oxidase-positive cocci were cultured from her cerebrospinal fluid. Her symptoms were caused by   Neisseria meningitidis.  
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A 1-year-old female was hospitalized with fever, lethargy, and rash. Gram-negative, oxidase-positive cocci were cultured from her cerebrospinal fluid. All of the following are true about the microbe responsible for her symptoms   Be normal in the throat.Be treated with antibiotics,Cause epidemics  
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On June 30, a 47-year-old man was hospitalized with dizziness, blurred vision, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, and nausea. Examination revealed facial paralysis. The patient had partially healed superficial knee wounds incurred while laying cement.   Anaerobically  
🗑
A diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by   Direct fluorescent-antibody test  
🗑
Which of the following is treated with antibiotics   Streptococcal pneumonia  
🗑
Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-negative rods. What is the organism   Haemophilus  
🗑
Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals amoebae. What is the organism   Naegleria  
🗑
Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism   Listeria  
🗑
On June 30, a 47-year-old man was hospitalized with dizziness, blurred vision, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, and nausea. Examination revealed facial paralysis. The patient had partially healed superficial knee wounds incurred while laying cement.   Antitoxin  
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On October 5, a pet store sold a kitten that subsequently died. On October 22, rabies was diagnosed in the kitten. Between September 19 and October 23, the pet store had sold 34 kittens. Approximately 1000 people responded to health-care providers followi   Antirabies immunoglobulin  
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A vaccine is available for all of the following   Haemophilus meningitis,Neisseria meningitis,Tetanus,Rabies.  
🗑
Patients with leprosy usually die from   Tuberculosis  
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Which of the following is acquired by ingestion   Botulism,Listeriosis, Poliomyelitis  
🗑
Which of the following statements is true   The lepromin test is positive during tuberculoid leprosy,Leprosy is highly contagious,Loss of nerve sensation occurs in tuberculoid leprosy, Disfiguring nodules and deformation occur in lepromatous leprosy  
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Which of the following pairs is correctly matched   Tetanus  blocks relaxation nerve impulse,Botulism  stimulates transmission of nerve impulse,Poliomyelitis  kills CNS cells,Rabies virus  grows in brain cells  
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Which of the following is transmitted by ingestion   Poliomyelitis,Listeriosis,Botulism,Meningococcal meningitis  
🗑
Which of the following vaccines is a cause of the disease it is designed to prevent   Oral polio vaccine  
🗑
On July 5, an 11-year-old girl complained of pain in the knuckles of her left hand. During July 6-7, she had increasing pain that extended up to the left shoulder. A throat culture was obtained and amoxicillin was prescribed. On July 9, she had difficulty   She was treated with ceftriaxone. On July 11, she was hospitalized with a temperature of 40.7°C and she could not drink. She developed respiratory distress and tachycardia; she died from cardiac arrest. Fluorescent antibody testing of brain tissue reveal  
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In Situation 22.1, the antibiotics did not cure her disease because the pathogen was   Protected by the blood-brain barrier  
🗑
The disease described in Situation 22.1 is   Meningitis  
🗑
Chapter 22 Ends   Chapter 23 Begins  
🗑
the following statements about septicemia are true   Symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure,Lymphangitis may occur,Symptoms are due to bacterial endotoxin,It may be aggravated by antibiotics  
🗑
Which of the following pairs is matched   Subacute bacterial endocarditis  alpha-hemolytic streptococci,Pericarditis  Streptococcus pneumoniae,Puerperal sepsis  Staphylococcus aureus  
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All of the following grow inside host cells   Brucella,Dengue fever virus, Leishmania  
🗑
Which of the following is treated with penicillin   Pericarditis,Anthrax,Listeriosis  
🗑
the following statements about tularemia are true   It is caused by Francisella tularensis,The reservoir is rabbits,It may be transmitted by arthropods,It may be transmitted by direct contact.  
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the following is a symptom of brucellosis   A local infection,Relapsing fever,Pneumonia,Jaundice  
🗑
Which of the following is transmitted in raw milk   Anthrax,Brucellosis,Listeriosis  
🗑
the following is a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis   Gram-positive, Forms endospores, Found in soil  
🗑
The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following   Microbial fermentation,Necrotizing exotoxins,Proteolytic enzymes,Hyaluronidase  
🗑
Infections by all of the following bacteria may be transmitted by dog or cat bites   Pasteurella multocida,Streptobacillus,Fusobacterium  
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Malaria   Anopheles (mosquito)  
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Dengue   Aedes (mosquito)  
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Epidemic typhus   Pediculus (louse)  
🗑
Rocky Mountain spotted fever   Dermacentor (tick)  
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The incidence of all of the following diseases is increased by unsanitary and crowded conditions   Plague,Epidemic typhus,Endemic murine typhus,Relapsing fever  
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Which of the following is true about toxoplasmosis   It is caused by a protozoan,The reservoir is cats,It is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route,It can be congenital  
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All of the following facts about Chagas' disease are true   Causative agent  T. cruzi,Vector  kissing bug,Reservoir  rodents,Diagnosis  serological tests for antibodies  
🗑
Which of the following is caused by a bacterium   Epidemic typhus, Tickborne typhus, Plague ,Relapsing fever  
🗑
Septicemia may result from all of the following   A focal infection,Pneumonia,A nosocomial infection,Contamination through the parenteral route  
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All of the following statements about puerperal sepsis are true   It is transmitted from mother to fetus,It is caused by health-care personnel,It is a complication of abortion or childbirth,It doesn't occur anymore because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques  
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All of the following statements about schistosomiasis are true   The cercariae penetrate human skin, A parasite of birds causes swimmer's itch in humans,The intermediate host is an aquatic snail,It is caused by a flatworm.  
🗑
All of the following statements about rheumatic fever are true   It is a complication of a Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection,It is an inflammation of the heart,It is an inflammation of the joints,It is cured with penicillin.  
🗑
) Rickettsia   intracellular parasite  
🗑
Brucella   gram-negative aerobic rods  
🗑
Bacillus   gram-positive endospore-forming rods  
🗑
Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta   Toxoplasma  
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Borrelia   relapsing fever  
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Yersinia   plague  
🗑
Streptobacillus   rat-bite fever  
🗑
Spirillum   rat-bite fever  
🗑
A patient has the following symptoms: a papule, enlarged lymph nodes. Microscopic examination of the papule reveals nucleated cells in white blood cells. The patient most likely has:   Leishmaniasis  
🗑
Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by   The respiratory route  
🗑
A characteristic symptom of plague is   Bruises on the skin  
🗑
Vector   Anopheles  
🗑
Etiology   Plasmodium  
🗑
Diagnosis   presence of merozoites  
🗑
Treatment   antibiotics  
🗑
A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is   Gangrene  
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Which of the following is a zoonosis   Hantavirus infection, Anthrax ,Brucellosis,Tularemia  
🗑
Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for which of the following diseases   Brucellosis  
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Which of the following pairs is matched   Brucellosis  a temperature of 40°C each evening Tularemia  a localized infection appearing as a small ulcer Borrelia  rash and flulike Toxoplasmosis  congenital brain damage  
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All of the following can be transmitted to humans from domestic cats   Toxoplasmosis,Plague,Bartonella  
🗑
Relapsing fever and undulant fever differ in all of the following ways   Mode of transmission,Presence of rash,Etiology  
🗑
All of the following are treated with antibiotics   Plague. , Tularemia. , Lyme disease  
🗑
Which of the following produces a permanent carrier state following infection   Cytomegalovirus  
🗑
EB virus causes all of the following   Infectious mononucleosis. , Burkitt's lymphoma. , Nasopharyngeal carcinoma  
🗑
Which of the following leads to all the others   Breakage of capillaries  
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A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain, and a rash. The patient reports returning from a Caribbean vacation one week ago. Which one of the following do you suspect   Dengue  
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Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched for Gram reaction   Lyme disease  gram-negative , Rocky Mountain spotted fever  gram-negative  
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Scrapings from a patient's rash reveal cercariae. The disease is most likely   Swimmer's itch  
🗑
You advise your pregnant friend to give her cat away because   She could get toxoplasmosis  
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Which of the following is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection   Treatable with penicillin  
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Which of the following is the usual cause of septic shock   Endotoxin  
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A 62-year-old man was hospitalized with an 8-day history of fever, chills, sweats, and vomiting. His temperature on admission was 40°C. A routine peripheral blood smear revealed ring-shaped bodies in the RBCs. What treatment would you prescribe?   Mefloquine  
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All of the following are true about Group B streptococci   Are present in healthy carriers,Cause gram-positive sepsis,Cause neonatal sepsis  
🗑
A patient presents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at joints; the recommended treatment is   Anti-inflammatory drugs  
🗑
Which disease is not caused by an obligately intracellular bacterium   endemic murine typhus,Rocky Mountain spotted fever,ehrlichiosis,epidemic typhus  
🗑
A hyperbaric chamber is sometimes used to treat wounds infected with ________.   Clostridium perfringens  
🗑
The CDC recommends that pregnant women be tested and offered antibiotic therapy before delivery if they are vaginal carriers of ________.   Streptococcus agalactiae  
🗑
Why do antibiotics sometimes aggravate septic shock   Antibiotics may cause the lysis of more bacteria and the release of more endotoxin.  
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A 24-year-old woman in Minnesota complained of a flu-like illness accompanied by a high fever and headache a week after being bitten by a tick. During examination of a blood smear, it was noted that some of her monocytes contained clumps of tiny bacteria   human granulocytic anaplasmosis  
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Tularemia can be contracted by humans by all of the following methods except ________.   infection with Epstein-Barr virus  
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Most cases of Burkitt's lymphoma occur in individuals who are infected with EB virus and ________.   Plasmodium species  
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Most naturally occurring anthrax infections are ________.   cutaneous infections from endospore entry at a skin lesion  
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A man found living in a rat-infested building develops a high fever and swollen lymph nodes, called buboes, in the armpit and groin. A gram-negative bacillus is isolated from the patient, and the rats are found to be infested with Xenopsylla cheopis. What   bubonic plague  
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A patient has flu-like symptoms and a bull's-eye rash on his leg. Investigation reveals that he had been hiking in Connecticut and was bitten by two ticks. What is the diagnosis   Lyme disease  
🗑
A Nigerian tourist is hospitalized with fever and chills that occur in 48-hour cycles. A blood smear reveals circular rings within the erythrocytes. What is the treatment   chloroquine  
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Swimmer's itch is caused by ________.   larvae of schistosomes  
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The symptoms of schistosomiasis are due primarily to ________.   eggs deposited by adult worms in host tissue  
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A 34-year-old Caucasian male is being examined in the emergency room of a Boston hospital, complaining of a high fever and severe muscle pain and joint pain. He returned to Boston two days ago, after spending 10 days travelling throughout Brazil on busine   dengue fever  
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Toxoplasmosis is most commonly contracted by ________.   contact with cat feces  
🗑
At what stage does the tick vector transmit Lyme disease to humans   the nymph stage  
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Which of the following is not an intermediate host for Toxoplasma gondii, the causative agent of Toxoplasmosis   cats  
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How does a person acquire Schistosomiasis, a disease caused by the flukes in the genus Schistosoma   Free-swimming cercariae penetrate human skin  
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All of these statements are true of yellow fever   Aedes aegypti is the vector. Fever, chills, and jaundice are frequent symptoms. Liver damage may result from infection. Control of mosquito populations can reduce the disease incidence.  
🗑
Which of the following is frequently the cause of infection following animal bites?   Pasteurella multocida  
🗑
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched   Clostridium perfringens; soil Francisella tularensis; rabbitsYersinia pestis; rodents Rickettsia typhi; rodents  
🗑
All of these statements are true of brucellosis   The causative agent grows intracellularly. Infected cows excrete bacteria in their milk. Wild elk and bison are reservoirs. Treatment requires prolonged antibiotic therapy.  
🗑
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched to its vector   Leishmania tropica; sandfly,Plasmodium vivax; mosquito yellow fever; mosquito Typanosoma cruzi; reduviid bug  
🗑
End of Chapter 23   Begin of Chapter 24  
🗑
One of the most serious infections of the upper respiratory system is ________.   epiglottitis  
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One of the most important reasons to diagnose and treat strep throat is ________.   Untreated strep throat may contribute to the development of rheumatic fever  
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Pertussis is characterized by ________.   a whooping type cough  
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An effective vaccine does not exist for the common cold, because ________.   there are too many antigenically different microorganisms causing the cold  
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Which of these answers best describes why antibiotic administration is inappropriate for most of the common upper respiratory tract infections?   Most are caused by viruses  
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A physician receives a lab report indicating that acid-fast bacilli were found in sputum from a patient with a lower respiratory tract infection. The physician suspects ________.   tuberculosis  
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An 8-week-old infant has been brought to the ER due to difficulty breathing. Chest sounds and a chest X-ray indicate an acute bronchiolitis. Oxygen saturation is poor. What is the most likely diagnosis?   respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)  
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An outbreak of pneumonia occurs in a wing of a hospital housing kidney transplant patients. The source of infection is traced to the water supply of the air conditioner. This case describes transmission of which of the following?   Legionella pneumophila  
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The frequency of influenza epidemics is associated with the ________.   frequency of mutations in viral genes for envelope spikes  
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Which of the following respiratory infections cannot be treated with antimicrobial drugs?   common cold  
🗑
The DTaP immunization is for ________.   diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis  
🗑
An 85-year-old man has been experiencing weight loss, night sweats, and a dry cough for several months; recently, he has begun coughing up sputum with tinges of blood in it. Following a chest X-ray showing some white spots on his lungs, an AFB stain and c   reactivation tuberculosis  
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A patient has a rapid onset of fever, chills, labored breathing, and sore throat. He recently returned from Mexico, where he drank local water and stayed in an air-conditioned room. Several weeks ago, he purchased a parrot. After a physical exam, his phys   Chlamydia psittaci  
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Some of respiratory diseases are best diagnosed by a gram-stained smear and/or culture, while others are best diagnosed by specific antigen testing or by detecting IgM antibodies. Which of these respiratory diseases is best diagnosed by doing a specific I   Mycoplasma pneumoniae  
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All of these descriptions pertain to Mycoplasmal pneumonia ________.   gradual onset of fever and coughcannot be treated with penicillin alveoli do not fill up with fluid also called walking pneumonia  
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If a patient has a positive tuberculin skin test, it means that ________.   the patient has a latent case of tuberculosis the patient was vaccinated with the BCG vaccine the patient has an active case of tuberculosis the patient has recovered from tuberculosis  
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All of these statements are true of tuberculosis   Extremely dangerous multiple drug-resistant strains have emerged, TB bacteria can survive for months on sputum-contaminated materials, It is transmitted by contact with infected humans,Once phagocytized, the bacteria can survive inside the phagocytic ce  
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All of the following cause lower respiratory tract infections ________.   Legionella Mycoplasma Blastomyces Chlamydia  
🗑
Haemophilis influenzae can cause all of these respiratory infections   sinusitis laryngitis epiglottitis otitis media  
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All of these statements are true of diphtheria   Complications may include damage to heart or kidneys. It is prevented by immunization with diphtheria toxoid.It is caused by a gram-positive, non-endospore-forming rod. Symptoms include the formation of a tough grayish membrane in the throat.  
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Put the steps of the development of tuberculosis in the proper order:1. Formation of caseous center 2. Liquefaction 3. Ingestion of the bacilli by macrophages 4. The signaling of additional macrophages and lung-damaging inflammation 5. Multiplication   3, 5, 4, 1, 6, 2  
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Among which ethnic group in the United States do most cases of tuberculosis occur   Asian and Pacific Islanders  
🗑
How do human contract coccidioidomycosis?   Inhalation of a arthroconidium  
🗑
What is true about otitis media?   caused by Staphylococcus aureus, caused by streptococcus pyogens, transmitted by swimming pool water, a complication of tonsillitis  
🗑
A diagnosis of strep throat is confirmed by   serological test, gram stain, hemolytic reaction, bacitracin inhibition  
🗑
Penicillin is used to treat   scarlet fever, streptococcal sore throat, diptheria, pneumococcal pneumonia  
🗑
What microorganism causes symptoms most like tuberculosis?   histoplasma  
🗑
A person can have a positive tuberculin skin test because   she has been vaccinated, she has tuberculosis, she is immune to tuberculosis, she has had tuberculosis  
🗑
What causes an infection of the respiratory system that is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route   Mycobacterium tuberculosis  
🗑
What is the reservoir for Psittacosis?   parakeets  
🗑
What is the reservoir for Tuberculosis?   cattle  
🗑
What is the reservoir for Histoplasmosis?   soil  
🗑
What is the reservoir for Pneumocystis?   humans  
🗑
What produces exotoxin?   streptococcus pyogenes, corynebacterium diptheriae, bordetella pertussis  
🗑
What produces the most potent exotoxin?   Corynebacterium diptheriae  
🗑
The recurrence of influenza epidemics is due to   antigenic shift  
🗑
What etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses?   Blastomyces  
🗑
Infection by what is often confused with viral pneumonia?   Mycoplasma  
🗑
what causes a disease characterized by a red rash?   Streptococcus  
🗑
Inahalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by what?   Coccidioides  
🗑
Legionella is transmitted by   airborne transmission  
🗑
Infection that begins in the lungs and spreads to the skin   Blastomyces  
🗑
Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick walled cysts. What is the etiology?   Pneumocystis  
🗑
A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms?   Bordetella  
🗑
What respiratory infection can be contracted by ingestion?   Tuberculosis  
🗑
What produces small "fried egg" colonies on a medium containing horse serum yeast extract?   Mycoplasma  
🗑
All of the following statements about otitis media are true   It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. It is a complication of tonsillitis. It is transmitted by swimming pool waterIt is caused by Staphylococcus aureus.  
🗑
A diagnosis of strep throat is confirmed by all of the following   Hemolytic reaction. Bacitracin inhibitionSerological tests. Gram stain.  
🗑
Penicillin is used to treat all of the following   Streptococcal sore throat. Diphtheria. Pneumococcal pneumonia. Scarlet fever.  
🗑
Mycoplasmal pneumonia differs from viral pneumonia in that   It is treated with tetracyclines  
🗑
Diphtheria   exotoxin  
🗑
Scarlet fever   exotoxin  
🗑
Haemophilus pneumonia   endotoxin  
🗑
Whooping cough   endotoxin  
🗑
Corynebacterium   gram-positive rod  
🗑
Mycobacterium   acid-fast rod  
🗑
Bordetella   gram-negative pleomorphic rod  
🗑
Haemophilus   gram-negative rod  
🗑
Which of the following microorganisms causes symptoms most like tuberculosis   Histoplasma  
🗑
A person can have a positive tuberculin skin test because   She has been vaccinated. She has tuberculosis. She had tuberculosis. She is immune to tuberculosis  
🗑
Which of the following diseases is correctly matched to its vaccine   Whooping cough  heat-killed bacteria Diphtheria  toxoid Influenza  viruses grown in embryonated eggs  
🗑
Which of the following diseases has a cutaneous form, especially in individuals over 30 years of age?   Diphtheria  
🗑
Which of the following causes an infection of the respiratory system that is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route   Streptococcus pyogenes, Mycoplasma pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae  
🗑
Which of the following pairs is matched   Epiglottitis  Haemophilus Psittacosis  Chlamydia Whooping cough  Bordetella  
🗑
Pneumonia can be caused by all of the following   Legionella. Haemophilus. Mycoplasma. Streptococcus  
🗑
Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients   Pneumocystis  
🗑
Which of the following diseases is correctly matched to its reservoir   Tuberculosis  cattle Histoplasmosis  soil Psittacosis  parakeets Pneumocystis  humans  
🗑
Which of the following does produce an exotoxin   Bordetella pertussis Corynebacterium diptheriae Streptococcus pygones  
🗑
Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages   Bordetella pertussis  
🗑
Which one of the following is an irregular, gram-positive rod   Corynebacterium diptheriae  
🗑
Infection by which of the following results in the formation of Ghon complexes?   Mycobacterium tuberculosis  
🗑
Which one of the following produces the most potent exotoxin?   Corynebacterium diphtheriae  
🗑
The recurrence of influenza epidemics is due to   Antigenic shift  
🗑
Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen   Rhinovirus  
🗑
Which of the following etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses   Blastomyces  
🗑
Which of the following is most susceptible to destruction by phagocytes   Streptococcus pyogenes  
🗑
Infection by which of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia?   Mycoplasma  
🗑
Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by a red rash?   Streptococcus  
🗑
Inhalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by which of the following organisms?   Coccidioides  
🗑
Which of the following pairs is matched   Q fever  ticks Psittacosis  parrots Pneumocystis pneumonia  nosocomial Coccidioides  soil  
🗑
Legionella is transmitted by   Airborne transmission.  
🗑
The patient is suffocating due to an inflamed epiglottis. What is the etiology?   Haemophilus  
🗑
The patient has a sore throat. What is the etiology?   Haemophilus  
🗑
The patient is suffocating due to the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is the etiology?   Can't tell  
🗑
Infection by which of the following begins in lungs and spreads to skin?   Blastomyces  
🗑
the following organisms does belong with the others   Blastomyces Coccidioides Histoplasma Pneumocystis  
🗑
Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick-walled cysts. What is the etiology?   Pneumocystis  
🗑
Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows spherules. What is the etiology?   Coccidioides  
🗑
You are trying to identify the cause of a patient's middle ear infection. After 24 hours, there is no growth on blood agar incubated aerobically at 37°C. Your next step is to try again   Incubating anaerobically  
🗑
A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms?   Bordetella  
🗑
A patient who presents with red throat and tonsils can be diagnosed as having   Streptococcal pharyngitis.  
🗑
A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has   Pneumococcal pneumonia.  
🗑
Which of the following respiratory infections can be contracted by ingestion?   Tuberculosis  
🗑
Which of the following is an intracellular parasite   Chlamydophila,Coxiella Influenzavirus RSV  
🗑
Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg" colonies on medium containing horse serum-yeast extract?   Mycobacterium  
🗑
A patient has pneumonia. Gram-negative rods are cultured on nutrient agar from a sputum sample. The etiology is   Haemophilus influenzae  
🗑
End of Chapter 24   Begin Chapter 25  
🗑
pertain to dental caries   It is an infectious disease of the mouth. Acidic microbial products cause erosion of tooth enamel. Increase in dietary sugar causes increased risk for tooth decay. Plaque contributes to dental caries.  
🗑
You see flagellated cells in a microscopic examination of feces from a patient with diarrhea. You conclude the etiology is:   Giardia.  
🗑
Bacillary dysentery ________.   is caused by members of the Shigella genus  
🗑
Beef is checked for cysticerci to prevent transmission of ________.   Taenia saginata  
🗑
Staphylococcal food poisoning is most likely to result from ________.   consumption of staphylococcal enterotoxin in potato salad that has been left at room temperature  
🗑
Which of the following can be prevented by cooking food?   trichinosis tapeworms salmonellosis E. coli hemorrhagic colitis  
🗑
The majority of traveler's diarrhea cases are caused by ________.   Escherichia coli  
🗑
true of hepatitis A but not hepatitis B   fecal-oral; spread via water and food  
🗑
An epidemiologist is involved in a hepatitis outbreak in a community. She traces the source of all cases to food served in a local restaurant. What health recommendations should be made to customers who ate at the restaurant?   Customers should be offered passive immunization with immune globulin.  
🗑
An open cut on a dental hygienist's hand is exposed to blood from a patient's mouth. All of the following are potentially blood-borne pathogens to which she may have been exposed except ________.   hepatitis A  
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Some gastrointestinal diseases are diagnosed using a culture, others by direct antigen detection methods, and still others by measuring a specific IgM titer. Which of the following diseases is detected by doing an IgM titer?   hepatitis A  
🗑
Diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile ________.   can result in life-threatening inflammation of the colon  
🗑
Put the stages of periodontal disease in order: 1. Tooth separates from the gingiva, forming periodontal pockets. 2. Toxins in plaque irritate the gums. 3. Gingivitis progresses to periodontitis.   2, 1, 3  
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What is the time frame from when the staphylococcus toxin is ingested until the vomiting reflex is triggered?   Between 1 and 6 hours  
🗑
Which of the following is not true regarding Salmonellosis?   Salmonella always crosses the epithelial membrane and enters the blood stream and the lymphatic systems.  
🗑
the following pairs is correctly matched   hepatitis C; transmitted via blood transfusions,hepatitis D; can cause disease only as a coinfection with hepatitis B hepatitis E; outbreaks in Asia and Africa associated with fecally contaminated water hepatitis B; chronic infections increase risk of l  
🗑
All of the following pertain to E. coli   E. coli O157:H7 acquired a toxin gene from Shigella. Certain strains have a plasmid for enterotoxin production. Presence in a water supply indicates fecal contamination. Some strains are normal microbiota of human intestines.  
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All of the following are true of typhoid fever   Most cases reported in the United States are acquired during foreign travel. It is caused by Salmonella typhi. Recovered patients may become chronic carriers. Humans are the only source of infection.  
🗑
All of the following cause diarrhea   Shigella spp. Yersinia enterocolitica Salmonella enterica Giardia lamblia  
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All of the following are true of salmonellosis   The bacteria invade intestinal mucosa and can readily multiply in macrophages. Pet reptiles, including turtles and iguanas, are frequently carriers. An estimated 2 to 4 million cases occur in the United States per year. It is transmitted via contaminat  
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All of the following are characteristic of mumps   It may cause sterility in males (rarely). Complications include meningitis, inflammation of the ovaries, and pancreatitis. It commonly infects salivary glands.An effective attenuated vaccine (MMR) is available.  
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All of the following pertain to Staphylococcus aureus which causes food poisoning   It produces enterotoxins. It is resistant to high osmotic pressure. Its growth can be prevented by refrigeration of foods. It is resistant to drying and radiation.  
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All of the following pertain to Streptococcus mutans   It is capable of fermenting sugars. It is a gram-positive coccus.It is the major causative agent of dental caries. It produces acidic metabolic byproducts.  
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What is required for tooth decay?   acid producing bacteria, capsule forming bacteria, sucrose  
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What is true of salmonellosis?   it requires a large infective dose, a healthy carrier state exists, it is a bacterial infection, it is often associated with poultry products  
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What disease of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route?   Mumps  
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The symptoms of trichinellosis are due to the   encystement of larval Trichinella in muscles  
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Poultry products are a likely source of infection by   Salmonella enterica  
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What feeds on red blood cells?   Entamoeba histolytica  
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What is true of staphylococcal food poisoning?   suspect foods are those not cooked before eating, it can be prevented by refrigeration, it is treated by replacing water and electrolytes, it is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms  
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The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably   Escherichia coli  
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Thorough cooking of food will prevent   salmonellas, beef tapeworm, trichinellosis  
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Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in   the large intestine  
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What organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp?   vibrio  
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What organism is likely to be transmitted via contaminated pork?   Trichinella  
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What are transmitted by water?   Cryptosporidium, Hepatitis A virus, Salmonella, Cyclospora  
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"Rice water stools" are characteristic of   cholera  
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Most gastrointestinal infections are treated with   water and electrolytes  
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Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis is treated with   tetracycline  
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The most common mode of HAV transmission is   contamination of food during preparation  
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The easiest way to prevent outbreaks of gram negative gastroenteritis is to   cook food thoroughly  
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Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus   Campylobacter  
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Feces from a patient with diarrhea lasting for weeks with frequent, watery stools should be examined for    
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Helicobacter can grow in the stomach because it   makes NH-3  
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Eukaryotes that cause gastroenteritis   Entamoeba, Giardia, Cryptosporidium, Cyclos pora  
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Hepatitis C   --diagnosed by PCR--incubation of 4 to 22 weeks--transmitted by the parenteral route--it is a flavivirus  
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Delicatessen meats   Listeria  
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Milk   Campylobacter  
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Oysters   Vibrio  
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Beef   E.Coli  
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Chapter 25 ends   Chapter 26 Begins  
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(528)Predisposing factors to urinary tract infections   diabetes mellitus, toxemia, tumors, kidney stones  
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Pyelonephritis may result from   cystitis, ureteritis, urethritis, systemic infections  
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Cystitis is most often caused by   gram negative rods  
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The reservoir for leptospirosis is   domestic dogs  
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Trichomoniasis is primarily a   sexually transmitted disease  
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Syphillis is treated with   penicillin  
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What can cause congenital infections or infections of the newborn?   genital herpes, gonorrhea, nongonococcal urethritis, syphilis  
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535)Genital herpes recurs at the   initial site of infection  
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Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by   Trichomonas vaginalis, Mycoplasma homini, streptococci, Candida albicans  
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Candidiasis can be caused by an   opportunistic infection  
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Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by   E. coli  
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Glomerulonephritis is   an immune complex disease  
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The most common reportable disease in the United States is   gonorrhea  
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What is the most difficulty to treat with chemotherapeutic agents?   Genital herpes  
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Leukocytes at the infected site is a symptom of   trichomoniasis  
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What is caused by Chlamydia?   Lymphogranuloma venereum  
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What forms lesions similar to those of tuberculosis?   Syphilis  
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What disease causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever?   Syphilis  
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Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes   cystitis  
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Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by   ureaplasma, mycoplasma, chlamydia  
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A patient is experiencing profuse greenish yellow foul smelling discharge form her vagina; she is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment?   Metronidazole  
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A 25 year old male presents with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. The etiology could be   Rickettsia, Borrelia, Streptococcus, Treponema  
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A 25 year old male presented with fever, malaise, and rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was made based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis tow months earlier. This disease can be treated with   penicillin  
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A pelvic examination of a 23 year old female showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neiseeria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. What is probable?   Genital herpes  
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Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?   prostatitis; inflammation of prostate dysuria; pain on urination pyelonephritis; inflammation of kidneys glomerulonephritis; inflammation of kidney glomerular capillaries  
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Which microorganism is responsible for approximately 75% of all UTIs and half of the nosocomial infections of the urinary tract?   Escherichia coli  
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A 22-year-old female college student visits the campus health center, complaining of low pelvic pain, dysuria, and hematuria. A clean-catch urine specimen is collected; and upon culture, it grows >100,000 cfu/ml of a catalase-positive, coagulase-negative,   Staphylococcus saprophyticus  
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Non-gonococcal urethritis is commonly caused by ________.   Chlamydia trachomatis  
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A clinical microbiologist detects clue cells from a vaginal swab of a patient. These cells are diagnostic of infection associated with ________.   Gardnerella vaginalis  
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A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency room complaining of low abdominal pain and a fever. As she walks into the examination room, she is slightly stooped over and says that even walking is painful. She indicates that intercourse has been painful for   pelvic inflammatory disease  
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Which of these statements about gonorrhea is true?   Neisseria gonorrhoeae can disseminate from the genital area to the joints, causing arthritis.  
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A patient has an STI characterized by sporadically recurring, painful, fluid-filled blisters in the genital area. A Gram stain and bacterial culture indicate the presence of normal bacterial microbiota. What is the most likely etiologic agent?   herpes simplex (HSV)  
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A mother infected with gonorrhea has transmitted the disease to her infant as he passed through the birth canal. This infection in the infant is called ________.   ophthalmia neonatorum  
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A 20-year-old male reports to an STI clinic with symptoms of painful urination. A gram stain of urethral exudate reveals gram-negative diplococci inside leukocytes. What is the causative agent of the patient's symptoms?   Neisseria gonorrhoeae  
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What was the incidence of gonorrhea in the United States in the year 2007?   120 cases per 100,000 people  
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What geographic region had the most cases of syphilis is the United States in 2006?   Washington D.C.  
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Which of the following is a disease of the reproductive system?   genital herpes syphilisgonorrhea candidiasis  
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All of these statements are true of pelvic inflammatory disease   It may involve infection of the uterus, cervix, uterine tubes, or ovaries. The most common causative agents are Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.Barrier contraceptives and spermicide use may prevent infection. It may result in infertility  
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All of these methods are used for diagnosis of syphilis   rapid plasmid reagin (RPR) test VDRL test fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test darkfield microscopy  
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All of these answers pertain to genital warts   It is sexually transmitted.It is associated with increased risk of cervical carcinoma. It is caused by papillomaviruses. It can cause irritation and intense itching.  
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All of the following are true concerning syphilis   tertiary stage: cardiovascular and neurological damage primary stage: chancre at initial site secondary stage: skin lesions on palm, and any surface area of the body latent stage: no symptoms, but can persist for life  
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All of the following are potential predisposing conditions for vaginitis   treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics increased sugar concentration in vagina estrogen imbalance decrease in lactobacilli population  
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All of these answers pertain to vaginitis   increased frequency in pregnant patients increased frequency in menopause patients diabetes mellitus and use of contraceptive pills increase risk usually caused by opportunistic microbes  
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All of these answers pertain to leptospirosis   It is a zoonotic disease. It is caused by a spirochete. It is transmitted via contact with urine and urine-contaminated water or soil. It has an incubation period of 1 to 2 weeks, with sudden onset of headaches, chills, and fever.  
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All of these answers pertain to urinary tract infections (UTIs)   Incomplete or infrequent emptying of the bladder increases risk of infection. The shorter urethra in females increases the risk of cystitis. Urethral infections easily spread to the bladder.An enlarged prostate gland increases the incidence of infection  
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Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of   Lactobacillus.  
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Pyelonephritis usually is caused by   Escherichia coli  
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One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by   Chlamydia trachomatis  
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Which of the following is diagnosed by detection of antibodies against the causative agent?   Syphilis  
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The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of __(1)__ to __(2)__ by bacteria.   ) 1-Glycogen; 2-Lactic acid  
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A normal urine sample collected by urinating into a sterile collection cup   Is sterile  
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All of the following are predisposing factors to cystitis in females   The proximity of the anus to the urethra. The length of the urethra. Sexual intercourse.  
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Which of the following is a complication of gonorrhea   Pelvic inflammatory disease Endocarditis Meningitis  
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Itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of:   Candidiasis  
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Recurring vesicles are symptoms of:   Genital herpes  
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Which of the following is treated with spectinomycin because the organism produces penicillinase?   Neisseria gonorrhoeae  
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Which one of the following statements about genital warts is true   It is transmitted by direct contact. It is caused by papillomaviruses. It is always precancerous. It is treated by removing them  
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The most common STD in the United States is treated with   Penicillin.  
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Pelvic inflammatory disease   Affects one million women annually. Can be caused by N. gonorrhoeae. Can be transmitted sexually. Can be caused by C. trachomatis  
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Infants born to mothers with recurrent genital herpes do not usually acquire Herpesvirus at birth if the mother is asymptomatic because   Maternal antibodies offer protection  
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Which of the following is greater?   The number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year.  
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A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment?   Acyclovir  
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A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following will be most useful for a rapid diagnosis?    
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A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was made based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis two months earlier. What stage of disease is the patien   Secondary  
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A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old female showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate?   ) Surgery  
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Which of the following pairs is matched?   Gonorrhea  gram-negative cocci Chancroid  gram-negative rod Gardnerella  clue cells Syphilis  gram-negative spirochete  
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Chapter 26 Ends   Chapter 25 begins  
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Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by   Use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.  
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Which of the following does not produce a gastrointestinal disease due to an exotoxin?   Staphylococcus aureus  
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Amoebic dysentery and bacillary dysentery differ in the   Mode of transmission. Appearance of the patient's stools. Etiologic agent.  
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Which of the following is diagnosed by the presence of flagellates in the patient's feces?   Giardiasis  
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In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by   Ingesting cysticerci in the intermediate host.  
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Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of 2 to 3 days is probably caused by   Salmonella  
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Which of the following pairs is correctly matched   Taenia infestation  humans are the definitive host Trichinellosis  humans eat larva of parasite Pinworm infestation  humans ingest parasite's eggs Hookworm infestation  parasite bores through skin  
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Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for periodontal disease?   Gram-negative cocci  
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Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever   The symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder.  
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A vaccine to provide active immunity to serum hepatitis is being prepared from   Pooled gamma globulin.  
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Which of the following causes an infection of the liver   Hepatitis A virus  
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Epidemics of bacterial infections of the digestive system are transmitted by   Food. Water. Milk. The respiratory route.  
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Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?   Salmonella endotoxin  coagulates blood Vibrio enterotoxin  secretion of Cl-, CO32-, and H2O Aflatoxin  liver cancer  
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Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications   Have shorter incubation times.  
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With which of the following substrates can Streptococcus mutans make a capsule?   Sucrose  
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Most bacteria associated with the teeth and gums are   Facultative anaerobes.  
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A 38-year-old man had onset of fever, chills, nausea, and myalgia. On April 29, he had eaten raw oysters. On May 2, he was admitted to a hospital because of a fever of 39°C and two circular necrotic lesions on the left leg. He had alcoholic liver disease.   Vibrio vulnificus  
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All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis   Clostridium. Escherichia. Salmonella. Shigella.  
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Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of 4 to 24 hours is probably caused by   Staphylococcus aureus  
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Following a county fair, 160 persons complained of gastrointestinal symptoms. Symptoms included diarrhea (84%), abdominal cramps (96%), nausea (84%), vomiting (82%), body aches   (50%), fever (60%; median body temperature = 38.3°C); median duration of illness 6 days (range 10 hr to 13 days).  
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fecal samples should be cultured for all of the following   Salmonella. Shigella. Campylobacter. Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli.  
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assume the samples were culture-negative. The next step is   Blood cultures.  
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Miscellaneous   Q &A For all of these chapters  
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All of the following statements regarding Treponema pallidum are true   shape - spirochete Gram reaction - gram-nonreactive transmission - sexually ransmission - open lesion on hands  
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All of the following are reportable sexually transmitted diseases   Gonorrhea. AIDS. Syphilis.  
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Most cases of complicated cystitis are caused by   Proteus  
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complication of gonorrhea   Sterility Pelvic inflammatory disease Arthritis  
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Which of the following pairs are matched for syphilis   incubation period - three weeks,chancre - indolent, flu like syndrome - secondary phase  
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Which of the following statements regarding neonatal syphilis   Transmitted through placenta during 5th month, 25% of the cases die in utero, Late lesions resemble gummas.  
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Which of the following statements regarding the Rapid Plasma Reagin test for syphilis is   Reacts with Wasserman antibodies of patient.  
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symptoms of gonorrhea in males   dysuria purulent discharge urethral stricture chronic prostatiti  
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A major cause of septic arthritis in adults is   Neisseria gonorrhoeae  
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Most cases of posttransfusion hepatitis are caused by   Hepatitis C virus.  
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Which of the following does produce a gastrointestinal disease that includes production of an exotoxin   Escherichia coli Vibrio cholerae Shigella dysenteriae  
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Treatment of gonorrhea   ampicillin - for penicillin sensitive strains, ceftriaxone - effective against incubating syphilis. ceftriaxone - pharyngeal gonorrhea.  
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Chemoprophylaxis for meningitis caused by Neisseria includes   rifampin  
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Which of the following is diagnosed by the presence of flagellates in the patient's feces   Giardiasis  
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The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably   Escherichia coli.  
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Which of the following can be transferred from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta   Cytomegalovirus inclusion disease  
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Treatment of superficial candidiasis includes   miconazole (topical), nystatin (oral)  
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Systemic mycoses include all of the following   Blastomyces. Coccidioidomycosis. Histoplasmosis. Cryptococcosis  
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Treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa Urinary Tract Infections includes   Carbenicillin  
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A primary symptom of this disease is a spasmodic coughing ccompanied by a rapid intake of air. Complications include a collapsed lung and convulsions. This disease is   Pertussis  
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of P. aeruginosa   Gram-positive rods  
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Which of these is caused by herpes virus?   Chickenpox Shingles fever blisters  
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Legionnaire's disease   Transmission is by droplet. An atypical pneumonia. A gram negative rod. Air conditioning units implicated in infection.  
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The most common etiology for shigellosis in the northern USA is   Shigella sonnei  
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Transmission of shigellosis is primarily by   humans to humans  
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The etiologic agent of chickenpox   human herpes virus 3  
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Probably the most common cause of infantile diarrhea is   Enteropathogenic E. coli  
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This organism ranks second to E. coli as a cause of uncomplicated cystitis   Proteus  
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The etiologic agent of fever blisters   . human herpes virus 1  
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This organism is a common cause of nosocomial pneumonia   Klebsiella pneumoniae  
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This antibiotic is used for UTI caused by Proteus mirabilis   Ampicillin  
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What is the recommended treatment for syphilis   benzathine Pen G  
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Explain the difference between healthy and convalescent carriers   healthy-no symptoms but shedding organism. convalescent-no longer has disease but still shedding organaism.  
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What two factors are associated with Pseudomonas Urinary Tract Infections   nosocomial and instrumentation  
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List the major opportunistic bacterial, fungal, protozoan, and viral diseases used to define AIDS.   Mycobacterium avium complex Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia Toxoplasmosis Herpes simplex and herpes zoster  
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Bacteriophages have what basic shape   T or binal shape  
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