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ashworth lesson 8

less 8 part 1

_____ is the process of providing a drug that causes a patient to feel a total or partial loss of sensation for a period of time. anesthesia
_____ induces a loss of consciousness and results in the absence of pain for the entire body. general anesthesia
____ is achieved by inhaling gases and drugs supplied intravenously. general anesthesia
___ results in a temporary loss of sensation for a specific area of the body. local anesthesia
___ can by applied topically to the skin or injected intravenously. local anesthesia
____- is a loss of sensation to a region of the body. regional anesthesia
a medical doctor who administers anesthesia is called an _____. anesthesiologist
anesthesia procedure codes fall under code range ____. 00100-01999
when coding anesthesia, first identify the ______, and then the _______ information. surgery performed, anesthesia
only assign ____ code for anesthesia, assign for the most ____ procedure. one, complex
multiple anesthesia codes are assigned only when there's a qualifying circumstance _____ or that if there is an additional anesthesia service that isn't included in the _____. documented, code package
Mac means _____. and it is ____ when it's indicated as a medical necessity. Monitored anesthesia care, reimbursed.
if the surgeon administers the anesthesia and not the anesthesiologist don't code from section ______. 00100-01999
use modifier ____ for anesthesia by surgeon. -47
for moderate sedation code from section ______. 99143-99150
the anesthesia time begins when the anesthesia provider begins to ______ the patient and ends when the provider is _______. prepare, no longer in attendance
The digestive system is composed of organs that convert food into ____ and ____ for the body. nutrients, energy
Digestive system procedure codes for under section _____. 40490-49999
bleeding above the duodenal junction is classified as an _____. upper GI bleed.
bleeding below the duodenal junction is classified as an ___. lower GI bleed.
An upper GI endoscopy is the ___ through the ____. mouth, duodenum
A lower GI endoscopy includes the ___ and ____. Cecum and anus
____ is performed for screenings, diagnosis, and therapeutic purposes. Endoscopy
Do not assign a code for ____ and _____ endoscopy together. diagnostic and surgical
___ system is made up of a collection of glands. endocrine
The endocrine system glands secrete ____ that help regulate metabolism, mood, growth, reproduction, and more. hormones
___ is a medical specialist that focuses on the endocrine system. Endocrinology
An ______ diagnoses and manages conditions affecting the endocrine system. Endocrinologist
The endocrine system procedure code set is _____. 60000-60699
_____ approach refers to the technique used: open, endoscopic, eternal, etc. surgical
_____-approach identifies the site of the incision and the direction from which the site was accessed. anatomical
____ is a single organ with two lobes. don't code it as bilateral. thyroid gland
When a single lobe is removed (thyroid) assign a ___ code. Lobectomy
if one lobe of the thyroid gland is removed one day and the other love is removed the next day, assign ____ for the first procedure and ___ for the secondary procedure. Also add modifier ___ to the second procedure code. Lobectomy, secondary thyroidectomy, -50
___ are bilateral and so are ____. Lymph nodes, adrenal glands
____ system includes the skin, hair, and nails. integumentary
____ diagnosis and treat disorders of the skin. dermatologist
___ perform reconstructive and cosmetic procedures plastic surgeons
___ diagnose and treat conditions of feet and toenails. podiatrists
integumentary system code category is ____ 10030-19499
when coding for the skin search for main term ___ skin
Procedures not performed directly on the skin are indexed under the ___ site
____ is categorized as primary, secondary, or tertiary. wound healing
Burns are classified based on _____ affected. Total body surface area
____ system is made up of both muscles and bones. musculoskeletal
Musculoskeletal system category code is _____. 20005-29999
____ can be performed both diagnostic and therapeutic. Arthroscopies
____ is most common reason for joint replacement osteoarthritis
total joint replacement is called _____. arthroplasty
The most common site issues for people younger than 75 is the ____ wrist
The most common site issues for people older than 75 is the ____. hip
___ system consists of the heart and blood vessels and is responsible for transporting oxygen, nutrients, hormones and waste throughout the body. cardiovascular
Cardiovascular procedures can be ____, minimally _____, or _____. invasive, invasive, noninvasive
___ system is made up of the body structures that are involved in the production of blood. Hemic
___ system is made up of an entire network of tissues and organs that work to rid of toxins and waste. Lymphatic
Hemic and lymphatic system code range is _____. 38199-38999
Cardiovascular system code range is _____. 33010-37799
_____ is the central area of the thorax. mediastinum
_____ is a dome-shaped organ that separates the chest from the abdomen. diaphragm
A ____ is performed via a cervical or thoracic approach. Mediastinotomy
A ____is used for lung cancer staging. Mediastinoscopy
A ____ is coded based on type: partial, total, or total with extensive disease. Spleneorrhaphy
A _____ or ______ can be obtained through aspiration, bone marrow biopsy, or bone marrow harvesting. Bone marrow, blood cell transplant
Code a ____ or ___ based on the method or location: open or needle; cervical, inguinal, or axillary; superficial or deep. Lymphatic biopsy or excision
A ______ removes only the lymph nodes. Limited Lymphadenectomy
A _____ removes the lymph nodes, glands, and surrounding tissue radical lymphadenectomy
The lungs are the primary organ of the _____ system. respiratory
The main function of the ____ system is providing oxygenated blood to the body tissue and removing waste products. respiratory
The ___ and ___ ducts within the lungs are the site of the gas exchange; that is, the absorption of oxygen and the release of carbon dioxide. Alveoli, Alveolar
The respiratory system is divided into two portions; the ___ and the ___. upper respiratory tract, and the lower respiratory tract
Respiratory procedures progress ___, moving from the head to the thorax. downward
Most respiratory codes are ____. unilateral
If a procedure is bilateral, use modifier ___. -50
___ can be coded as simple or extensive. nasal polyps
When coding excision of ____, pay attention to the approach used; for example lasers, cryotherapy, or electrocautery. nose lesions
___(structures on the insides of the nose) are billed per turbinate. up to __ removals can be coded. nasal turbinates, 6
Don't use modifier ___ for turbinate mucosa destruction. -50
a nose bleed, or ___, code the approach as simple or complex and then use modifier ____. epistaxis, -50
___ can be performed for drainage, polyp removal, or biopsy. Sinusotomies
___ endoscopies always include ___ endoscopies. do not code them separately. surgical, diagnostic
Excision of the larynx, pharynx, and surrounding tissues can be ____, ____, _____. laterovertical, anterovertical, or anterolaterrovertical
Excision of the larynx always includes a ____, so don't assign separate codes. tracheostomy
Bronchial thermoplasty is used to treat ____. severe asthma
Tracheal tumor excision can be ___ or ____. thoracic or intrathoracic
___ is removal of a constricting layer of tissue from the surface of the lungs to allow for full lung expansion. Decortication
Total ___ is total removal of the lung. Pneumonectomy
____ is a removal of a lobe or lobes of the lungs. Lobectomy
____ can be done with or without image guidance. Thoracentesis
___ can be done with or with image guidance. Pleural drainage
___ has three steps; harvesting, backbench work, and insertion. Lung transplantation
___ system is a network of nerve cells and fibers. nervous system
The function of the ____ system is to transmit nerve impulses throughout the body. nervous
The ___ system includes the brain, nerves, and spinal cord. nervous
The ____ system is broken down into a number of subsystems nervous
Coding of the nervous system involves the ___ cord not the column/vertebrae. spinal
___ procedures are identified by the location of the surgery on the spinal cord. surgical
A single injection of paravertebral nerve blocks should be coded to ____ 64461
When additional paravertebral nerve blocks are performed, the add-on code ____ is used. +64462
Code ___ cant be reported more than one time per day. 64462
Paravertebral blocks are also called ______ blocks. parasinous
code ____, catheter placement for continuous infusion, is coded as a unilateral service. if bilateral, use modifier ____. 64463, -50
__ are parts of the body that adjoin structures such as the eyes, ocular muscles, eyelids, the lacrimal glands (tear ducts) and the conjunctiva. Adnexa
___ refers to inside the muscular cone of the eye. Ocular implant
____ refers to outside the muscular cone. Orbital implant
Code ___ is bundled into code 67039, vitrectomy, mechanical pars plana approach; with focal endolaser photocoagulation. do not code separately. 67036
use code ____ for the use of ophthalmic endoscope is bundled into code 66711, ciliary body destruction, cyclophotocoagulation, endoscopic. do not code separately 66990
code ___ is bundled into code 67228 67208
code ___ for anesthesia is bundled into code 66984, cataract extraction. 00142
when a construction of intermarginal adhesions, median tarsorrphapy, or canthottphaphy, code ___, which is performed on the same eye , the procedure described by code 67715, do not code together 67880
code ____ destruction of extensive diabetic retinopathy by photocoagulation, is more extensive than the procedure code 67208. destruction of a localized retinal lesion by cryotherapy, and is bundled into 1st code. 67228
when a cataract extraction code ___, is performed and also provides anesthesia, code 00142, the anesthesia service isn't reported separately. code 00142 is bundled into 1st code. 66984
___ system is our hearing and also of balance. auditory
when coding removal of a foreign body from the ear, locate main term ____ then ____ then _____. ear, removal, foreign body
use code ____ for removal of impacted cerumen, or ear wax. 69210
when cerumen isn't impacted and can be removed by irrigation, code only the ____ code. E/M
Tympanostomy requiring insertion of ventilating tube is covered under 2 different codes. code ___ describes the procedure performed with local or topical anesthesia and code ____ describes the procedure performed w/ general anesthesia. never code 2gether. 69433, 69436
_____ implants are generally only performed on one ear. be sure to identify ;laterality. cochlear
the ___ system is to produce, store, and eliminate urine. urinary
____ is the medical specialty that deals with the urinary system. urology
physicians who specialize in the urinary system is called a ____. urologist
the function of the ____ system is to produce and transport sperm. male reproductive system
if a needle or punch biopsy of the prostate code 55700, is unsuccessful and followed at the same patient encounter by and incisional biopsy of the prostate code ____. code 55700 is bundled into it. 55705
code ____ describes diversion to the intestine. 50800
code _____ describes diversion to the skin, or ureterostomy. 50860
a partial orchiectomy code _____, removes a smaller portions of the testis. code 54530. 1st code is bundled into this code. 54522
code ____ is male to female surgery. 55970
code ___ is female to male surgery. 55980
the function of the ____ system is to help the ova become fertilized by sperm and to support pregnancy. female reproductive
a full term pregnancy is about _____. 40 weeks
childbirth includes two stages ___ and ____. labor and delivery
___ starts at uterine contractions and ends when there's cervical effacement and dilation. labor
___ is actually the second stage of labor it begins when the mother is fully dilated and ends with the delivery of the child. delivery
a mother can give birth via ___ or ____. vaginal birth or caesarean
_____ is when a baby is delivered via the vagina. vaginal birth
____ or ____ consists of making incisions in the mothers abdominal and uterine walls and then delivering the baby through incision. Cesarean section, or c-section
The code category for pregnancy and childbirth ranges from ______. 59000-59899
the code closure of vesicouterine fistula with hysterectomy is ____ 51925
the code for closure vesicouterine fistula is ______ 51920
51920 is bundled into code ____ DO NOT CODE Separately. 51925
code ____ exploratory laparotomy, is bundled into code ____ total abdominal hysterectomy with or without removal of tubes and/or ovaries. DO NOT CODE Separately. 49000, 58150
code ____ describes a cystourethroscopy with an internal urethrotomy for a female. 52270
code ____ incision and drainage of a Bartholin's gland abscess 56420
Anesthesia is performed by the surgeon is code ____. 00940
code ___ anesthesia for vaginal procedures is bundled into code ____. 00940, 56420
do not code ___ appendectomy. 44950
To report an incidental appendectomy during code ____, total abdominal hysterectomy with or without removal of tubes, with or without ovaries. 58150
code ____ is bundled into the code ____ do not code separately. 44950, 58150
Total laparoscopic hysterectomy (TLH) is reported in the code category ____. 58570-58573
___ is a medical service that uses radiant energy, like ultrasounds, and x-rays to treat patients. Radiology
a doctor who specialized in radiology is called a ______. radiologist
The radiology category codes are ______. 70010-79999
code ___ computed tomography, thorax, with contrast materials. 71260
code ___ computed tomography, thorax, without contrast materials. 71270
code ___ fluoroscopic guidance for a needle placement for a biopsy, aspiration, injection, or localization device. 77002
____ radiological supervision and interpretation of a temporomandibular joint arthrogram. 70332
code ___ is bundled into code ____ do not code separately 77002, 70332
code ____ and ____ both describe radiologic examinations of the upper GI tract. 74240, 74245
code ___ includes radiologic examination of the small intestine but code ____ does not. they are separate procedures and can not be reported on the same patient at the same time. 74245, 74240
code ___ describes radiologic supervision and interpretation (RS&I) for cervical myelography. code ___ is the same thing but for 2 or more spinal regions. the 1st code is bundled in with the 2nd code. 72240, 72270
code ___ insertion of a catheter, is bundled into code ___ abdominal ct scan requiring intravenous administration of contrast. do not code separately. 36000, 74170
code ___ anesthesia for noninvasive imagining, is bundled with code __ magnetic resonance imaging of the cervical spinal canal without contrast material do not code separately. 01922, 72141
code ___ fluoroscopic guidance for needle placement is bundled into code ___ imaging supervision and interpretation for ultrasound guidance for pericardiocentesis. do not code separately 77002, 76930
___ is a branch of medicine that deals with the changes in body tissue and organs caused by disease or illness. pathology
a doctor who specialized in this area is called a ___, pathologist
the code category for pathology and laboratory services is _____. 80047-39398
code ___ procainamide is bundled into code ___ procainamide with metabolites. 80190, 80192
code ___ cant be reported with codes 86920,86921, 86922 for compatibility testing of the same unit of blood. 86923
code ___ utilizes manual process with dip stick or tablet reagent for urinalysis by microscopy. code ___ is an automated process for this testing. do not code together. 8100, 81001
code ____ clinical pathology consultation, is bundled into code ____ clinical pathology consultation with review of patient history and medical records. do not code separately. 80500, 80502
code ___ measurement of the blood creatinine is bundled into code ___ determination of creatinine clearance. 82565, 82575
code ___ serum albumin is bundled into code ___ hepatic function panel, when performed on the same specimen assign the 2nd code. 82040, 80076
___ NNCI data that contain a list of all payable cpt code. column 1
____ NCCI data that contains the code that a not payable with a particular column 1 code unless a modifier is permitted and submitted. column 2
____ the services included in a procedure code in addition to the operative procedure. cpt surgical package
the coding category for surgery coding is _____ 10021-10022
___ a procedure performed to obtain information needed to make diagnosis and treatment plan diagnostic procedure
____ nonemergency surgery that is medically necessary but can be delayed at least 24 hours elective surgery
___ surgery that must be performed immediately to save a life or prevent a disability, such as loss of a limb emergency surgery
_____ procedure in which a physician inserts a fine (thin), hollow needle under the skin to obtain aspirate, a small sample of cells, tissue, or fluid. fine-needle aspiration
___ the number of days during which a provider must render all services related to a surgery. global period
____ the anatomic location at which a surgeon cuts through the skin and subcutaneous tissue. incision site
___ a task that is part of the intraoperative service and is not coded or billed separately. integral component
___ a group or package, or services that all relate to a single surgery and are covered by a single insurance payment, including preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative services. Medicare global surgical package
___ a listing of cpt codes, Medicare allowable fees and related information published by the centers for Medicare and Medicaid services. Medicare physician fee schedule
___ a listing of cpt codes, medicare allowable fees, and related information published by the centers for Medicare and Medicaid services. medicare physician fee schedule database
___ a set of coding rules published by the centers for medicare and Medicaid services that identifies pairs of codes that normally cannot be reported together, implemented to control improper coding leading to inappropriate payment. national correct coding imitative
___ a detailed narrative description prepared by a physician after completing, a procedure which describes the details what was done, also called ____ operative report, procedure report
___ a type of surgery that provides a personal benefit but provides not medical benefit such as a cosmetic face lift or breast augmentation, rarely covered by insurance. optional surgery
___ the position in which a patient is arranged for surgery. position
___ prior authorization or approval of elective surgery by an insurance company. preauthorization
____ a set of claims processing rules in which claims are electronically scanned for compliance before the payer accepts them into the claims processing systems. prepayment edit
___ a procedure performed to determine whether an abnormality exists in a person showing no signs or symptoms of disease. screening procedure
___ the method used by a surgeon to access the operative site. surgical approach
___ the obliteration of tissue using electrosurgery, cryosurgery, laser, or chemical treatment, also called ____ surgical destruction, lysis
___ the setting or location in which surgery is performed. surgical facility
___ a procedure performed to treat a disease or condition. therapeutic procedure
____ is the branch of medicine that treats diseases, injuries, and deformities through the use of instruments or manual techniques. surgery
The 4 most common classifications of surgery are ____,___,____,____. Method, anatomic site, urgency, and purpose
The ____ identifies how the procedure is performed. method
The full description of a surgical procedure identifies both the method and the ______. anatomic site
The classification of ____ for surgery identifies how quickly a procedure must be performed. urgency
surgical urgency can be broken down into 3 categories and they are ____,_____,_____. Emergency , elective, and optional
______ surgery must be performed immediately to save a life or prevent a disability. emergency
___ is a nonemergency surgery that is medically necessary but can be delayed atleast 24 hours. elective
_____ surgery provides a personal benefit but provides no medical benefit such as cosmetic. optional
many payers require _____ which is prior authorization for an elective surgery, preauthorization
___ separating, detaching, or destroying. ablation
___ cutting off all or a portion of a body part, such as a leg or arm. amputation
____ joining two structures that are not normally joined together. anastomosis
___ removing skin, tissue, muscle, or bone to test for the presence of disease. biopsy
___ closing an open wound with stitches, staples, or other mechanism. closure
____ cleaning out an area using various methods, such as scraping or irrigation, to remove contaminated or necrotic tissue. debridement
___ removing pressure decompression
___ reducing to tiny fragments. destruction
___ expanding or stretching an opening dilation/dilatation
____ removing fluids drainage
___ viewing a body cavity using a long, narrow, hollow instrument that has a light and a camera. endoscopy
___ cutting out all or part of an organ or structure to determine a diagnosis exploration
____ joining together two or more bones, joints, or vertebrae fusion/ arthrodesis
____ attaching a piece of skin, fascia muscle, or bone from one area of the body to another. graft
___ cutting with a sharp instrument. incision
_____ cutting into and releasing fluid. incision and drainage
___ forcing a fluid or other substance into cavity, tissue, or vessel. injection
____ putting something in place. introduction/ insertion
____ cutting into the abdominal cavity. laparotomy
___ tying off using any substance, such as a cotton, silk, or wire. ligation
___ using force to move a bone. manipulation/ reduction
___ restoring or reforming a part of the body. reconstruction
___ taking something out. removal
___ restoring damaged or diseased tissues to normal function. repair
___ removing all or part of a structure or organ; sometimes used synonymously with excision. resection
___ repairing or replacing work performed during a previous procedure. revision
__ closing a wound with stitches. suture
___ replacing an organ or tissue with organ or tissue from a donor. transplant
There are three ____ for surgery which is screening, diagnosis, or therapy. procedure
The ____ is performed to determine whether an abnormality exists in a person showing no signs or symptoms of disease. screening procedure
A ______ or exploratory procedure, is performed to identify a suspected abnormality. diagnostic procedure
A _____ is performed to treat a condition, therapeutic procedure
use code ____ for preventive services if the code description does not identify the procedure as a screening or preventive in nature. -33
The ____ is the setting or location in which surgery is performed. surgical facility
the coding category for surgery is. 10021-69990
general surgery coding category 10021-10022
integumentary system surgery coding category 10030-19499
musculoskeletal system surgery coding category 20005-29999
respiratory system surgery coding category 30000-32999
cardiovascular system surgery coding category 33010-37799
hemic and lymphatic system surgery coding category 38100-38999
mediastinum and diaphragm system surgery coding category 39000-39599
digestive system surgery coding category 40490-49999
urinary system surgery coding category 50010-53899
male genital system coding category 54000-55899
reproductive system coding category 55920
female genital system coding category 56405-58999
intersex surgery coding category 55970-55980
maternity care and delivery surgery coding category 59000-59899
endocrine surgery coding category 60000-60699
nervous system surgery coding category 61000-64999
eye and ocular adnexa surgery coding category 65091-68899
auditory system surgery coding category 69000-69979
operating microscope surgery coding category 69990
medicare has a global period of _____. 0,10,90
a medicare global period of __ days includes only the day of surgery. 0
A medicare global period of __ _days plus one day before surgery. 90
A medicare global period of ___ days plus the day of surgery. 10
When an E/M encounter results in a decision for a major surgery and the procedure is performed within 24 hours use the modifier ___? -57
When the physician work required is greater than usual, apply modifier ___? -22
When there is an increased procedural services and the reason is for morbid obesity use the diagnosis code ____ for morbid obesity and the modifier. Z68
Modifier ___ can be used with all cpt codes except E/M services. -22
When a procedure is performed on paired anatomic sites or organs use modifier ___ bilateral procedure. -50
When more than one procedure is performed during the same operative session by the same individual use modifier code ___for multiple procedures. -51
use modifier ____ to identify that a procedure or service and distinct from another service provided during the same session. -59
use modifier ___ staged or related procedure or service by the same physician or other qualified health care professional during the postoperative period. -58
___ repeat procedure or service by the same physician or other qualified health care professional. -76
___ repeat procedure or service by another physician or other qualified health care professional. -77
___ unplanned return to the operating/procedure room by the same physician or other qualified health care professional following initial procedure for a related procedure during the postoperative period. -78
___ unrelated procedure or service by the same physician or other qualified health care professional during the postoperative period. -79
use modifier __ for the surgical team. -66
use modifier ___ for two surgeons -62
use modifier __ for assistant surgeon. -80
use modifier ___ for minimum assistant surgeon. -81
use modifier ___ for assistant surgeons when a qualified resident is not available. -82
When the surgeon provides the pre or post operative visit/ follow up but does not perform the procedure use modifier code ___ for preoperative management only. -56
When the surgeon performs the procedure but does not provide the pre or post operative care use modifier ___ for surgical care only. -54
When the surgeon provides the post operative follow up visit but not the pre operative or perform the procedure use modifier __ for postoperative management only. -55
General subsection coding category is ______. 10021-10022
Anesthesia procedure coding category is ____. 00100-01999
___ a temporary state, induced by drugs, of unconsciousness, loss of memory, lack of pain and/or muscle relaxation. anesthesia
___ a group of services represented in an anesthesia code that includes preop visits, administration of anesthesia, intraoperative monitoring. anesthesia code package
___ a dollar value, adjusted geographic difference in cost, that medicare and other payers assigns to one base unit of anesthesia. anesthesia conversion factor
___ the time when the anesthesia provider starts to prepare the patient for anesthesia, and ends when the provider in no longer present with the patient. anesthesia time
___ a physician who specializes in providing perioperative care, developing anesthesia plans, and administering anesthetics. anesthesiologist
___ a number that represents the risk to a patient, and the skills needed by an anesthesia specialist. base unit
____ a registered nurse with advanced education and training in the field of anesthesia. certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA)
___ a technique that lowers the mean arteria blood pressure by (MAP) by 30% during surgery, the goal of reducing operative blood loss and minimizing the risk of fluid overload. also called ___ or ______ hypotension or hypotensive anesthesia
___ the score that rates the potential difficulty of endotracheal intubation on a scale of I through IV. mallampati score
___ a value assigned to each physical status modifier and each qualifying circumstance code to represent the added difficulty of the procedure. modifying unit
____ a planned procedure during which a patient undergoes local anesthesia together with sedation and analgesia. monitored anesthesia care (MAC)
__a method of pain control that patients can administer in response to the level of pain experienced. patient-controlled analgesia
____ a value that identifies a patients health status at the time anesthesia begins, on a scale of 1 through 5. physical status score
___ an area where a patient is taken after surgery is complete to recover from the surgical procedure and the effects of anesthesia. postoperative anesthesia care unit (PACU)
___ the total minutes of anesthesia service provided for all procedures divided by 15. time units
__ a technique that lowers the core body temp below 35 degree Celsius during surgery to with the goal to protecting neurons from injury or degeneration. total-body hypothermia
___ anesthesia numbs the surface area of a body part. topical
__ anesthesia numbs a small area of the body part. patient is awake and alert. local
___ anesthesia uses a mild sedative to relax the patient and pain medicine to relieve the pain. the patient stays awake but may not remember the procedure afterword. moderate (conscious) sedation
__ anesthesia is an epidural, spinal, and peripheral nerve blocks. feels nothing in that body part. Regional
___ anesthesia affects the whole body, including the brain. patient feels nothing and has no memory. general
the coding category for moderate sedation is ____ 99143-99150
___ p1, p2, p3, p4, p5, p6 or E is the ___ of a patient also documented in the anesthesia record. physical status
___ is a normal healthy patient. p1
___ is a patient with mild systemic disease. p2
__ is a patient with severe systemic disease. p3
__ is a patient with severe systemic disease that is constant threat to life. p4
__ a moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation. p5
__ is a patient who is declared brain-dead or expired patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes. p6 or E
Anesthesia for burn excision or debridement is reported based on the percentage of _____ total body surface area
two codes identify treatment of less than 4% TBSA is code ____ 01951
4% to 9% TBSA is code _____ 01952
the add on code ___ reports each additional 9% of TBSA 01953
code ___ is for neuraxial labor analgesia/anesthesia for planned vaginal delivery. 01967
Code for anesthesia for arthroplasty begin with an ___ 0
use code ___ when the physician performing the procedure also administers the moderate sedation. 99143 & 99145
codes ___ and ___ are divided by age and include up to 30 minutes of intraservice time. 99143 and 99144
code ___ for each additional 15 minutes of use. 99150
anesthesia code for anyone under one or over 70 is ____ 99100
anesthesia code for anyone that uses whole body hypothermia. 99116
anesthesia code for hypotension is _____, emergency circumstances is _____. 99135, 99140
codes unusual anesthesia _____ discontinued procedure ____ reduced services ______ distinct procedural service ______ -23 -53 -52 -59
codes for repeat procedures _______ unplanned returns to the operating room ____ -76,-77 -78,-79
code for discontinued outpatient hospital/ ambulatory surgery center (ASC) procedure prior to administration of anesthesia. -73
___ Discontinued outpatient hospital/ ambulatory surgery center (ASC) procedure after administration of anesthesia. -74
__ receiving an organ from another person. allotransplantation
___ a surgical connection between two structures such as the organs in the digestive tract or blood vessels anastomosis
___ based on a report submitted by a physician by report
____ a technology in which patients swallow a capsule the size of a large pill that contains a video microchip, light bulb, battery, and radio transmitter. capsule endoscopy
___ the removal of the appendix as a preventive measure during another procedure. incidental appendectomy
___ explains how to assign endoscopy codes when more than one procedure is performed during the same session. multiple endoscopy rule
___ toward the center of the body. proximal
___ process whereby a surgeon removes the diseased portion of an organ and connects the healthy segment to the adjacent organ. pull-through
___ a hernia that can be corrected by a physician by pushing the tissue back into place, reducible
___ through the nose transnasal
____ through the oral cavity. transoral
digestive system coding category is _____ 40490-49999
___ is the lips through ileum upper GI
____ cecum through anus lower GI
____ salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas Accessory organ
_____ abdomen, peritoneum and omentum surrounding structures
___ reduced services code. -52
___ discontinued procedure code -53
____ screening colonoscopy code G0121
___ surgical team code -66
___ multiple procedure code -51
___ increased procedural service code. -22
____ colonoscopy as preventive in nature. -33
the endocrine system coding category ____ 60000-60699
___ the performance of a procedure through an incision in the neck. cervical approach
___ the excision part of the opposite or second lobe in addition to a partial, subtotal, or total lobectomy of the first lobe. contralateral lobectomy
___ the performance of a procedure through an incision in the midback dorsal approach
___ excising lymph nodes and surrounding tissue from the neck during a thyroidectomy neck dissection
___ the performance of a procedure through an incision in the abdomen transabdominal approach
___ the performance of a procedure through an incision in the chest transthoracic approach
____ is excision of less than two thirds of one lobe of the thyroid gland, partial thyroid lobectomy
____ is excision of more than two thirds of one love but less than the entire lobe. subtotal thyroid lobectomy
___ is the excision of one entire lobe of the thyroid gland. total thyroid lobectomy
___ or ____ is excision of both lobes of the thyroid gland in their entirely total or complete thyroidectomy
____ is a second operation to excise remaining thyroid tissue following a previous thyroidectomy; also called a complete secondary thyroidectomy
____ distinct procedural service -59
Integumentary system procedures coding category 10030-19499
___ relating to restoring normal function or appearance reconstructive
__ relating to aesthetics or appearance cosmetic
____ identifies the distance between two points and is used to classify the length of wound repairs and diameter. linear measurement
___ describes the space inside a boundary and is used to classify the amount of skin treated in a tissue repair or skin graft. area measurement
____ is wound closure performed with sutures, staples, or adhesive tape or glue. it is used for uncomplicated lacerations and healing after most surgeries. primary intention healing
__ is extended process in which the wound is not closed with sutures but left open to granulate. secondary intention healing
___ is delayed primary closure. the wound is initially cleaned, debrided, and left open for observation for several days before closure. it is used for healing after a tissue graft. tertiary intention healing
Musculoskeletal system procedure category code is ____ 20005-29999
____ reshaping of cartilage chondroplasty
___ surgical removal of the synovial membrane synovectomy
___ immobilizing the fracture site to prevent further injury. stabilization
Cardiovascular System procedure coding category is _____ 33010-37799
Hemic and Lymphatic systems coding category is ____ 38199-38999
Mediastinum and Diaphragm procedures coding category ____ 39000-39599
___ blood hemic
Respiratory system procedure coding category is _____ 30000-32999
__ above the eyes frontal sinuses
__ below the eyes maxillary sinuses
____ located between the eyes and nose ethmoid sinuses
___ located at the center of the base of the skull, at the back of the nose sphenoid sinuses
Nervous system coding category is ____ 61000-64999
__ a flat surface on the edge of the spinous process that forms the connection between vertebrae facet
___ an opening in the vertebra that surrounds the spinal cord. foramen
___ a thin layer of bone that forms part of the vertebral arch; each vertebra has two laminae, one on either side of the midline lamina
__ a nodule or projection of a bone process
__ the main anterior bony part of a vertebra vertebral body
__ is a plate that occurs between each pair of vertebra to provide flexibility and movement to the spine. intervertebral disc
___ a gelatinous substance that comprises the outside of a disc and provides cushioning. nucleus pulposus
___ a fibrocartilaginous ring that comprises the outside of a disc and holds the nucleus pulposus in place. annulus fibrosus
___ procedures on the anterior lobe of the brain anterior cranial fossa
_____ procedures on the temporal lobes of the brain middle cranial fossa
____ procedures on the occipital lobes of the brain posterior cranial fossa
Eye and Ocular Adnexa procedures coding category 65091-68899
____ code for repair of retinal detachment 67108
____ code for repair of complex retinal detachment 67113
Auditory System coding category 69000-69979
operating microscope procedures coding category 69990
___ through incision and partial removal of the bone above the ear. middle fossa approach
___ behind the ear postauricular
____ through the ear canal transcanal
____ through the skull transcranial
__ through the labyrinth translabyrinthine
___ through the mastoid bone Transmastoid
___ anesthesia by surgeon -47
Urinary coding category ____ 50010-53899
Male Genital system procedures coding category ____ 5400-55899
Reproductive system coding category ____ 55920
Intersex surgery procedure coding category _____ 55970-55980
____ the inability of urine of flow. obstructive uropathy
Calculi is stones
___ removal of urine using a needle, a trocar, or a catheter. aspiration of bladder
____ temporary surgical procedure to create an opening in the umbilicus. cutaneous vesicostomy
___ partial or complete excision of the bladder; may also involve other procedures, including removing surrounding lymph nodes. Cystectomy
___ incision of the bladder to remove calculi cystometrogram
_____ creation of an opening in the bladder with possible removal of the bladder neck. cystostomy
___ incision into the bladder cystotomy
___ use of lithotripter to aim pulsating sound waves at a kidney stone to break into pieces. extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)
__ partial or complete removal of a kidney nephrectomy
____ incision of the kidney to remove a kidney calculus nephrolithotomy
____ suture of kidney wound or injury nephrorrhaphy
____ Creation of an opening in the kidney with percutaneous catheter insertion, with imaging guidance. nephrostomy
___ incision into the kidney. nephrotomy
___ excision of the bladder, urethra, ureters, lymph nodes, prostate/ vagina, uterus, colon and rectum. pelvic exenteration
___ repair of the renal pelvis. pyeloplasty
____ incision into the renal pelvis pyelotomy
____ endoscopy thought an established nephrostomy, pyelostomy, nephrotomy, or pyelotomy. renal endoscopy
____ implantation of a cadaver or living donor kidney to take over the function of the patients natural kidney. consists of a donor nephrectomy; backbench work to dissect and remove fat and prepare attached ureters, veins, and arties for transplantation. renal transplant
___ insertion of a resectoscope via the urethra and removal of a portion of the prostate; may include cystoscopy, meatotomy, and urethral dilation. transurethral resection of prostate (TURP)
___ excision of the ureter ureterectomy
____ incision into a ureter ureterolithotomy
___ repair of the ureter; may include excision of a portion of the ureter, the anastomosis of the ends that were not removed or grafting of tissue from the bladder. ureteroplasty
____ incision into the ureter; may include stent placement. ureterotomy
___ repair of a defect in the bladder and urethra, with reimplantation of one or both of the ureters into the bladder. urethroneocystostomy
___ a variety of tests that measure that contraction of the bladder muscle as it fills and empties, ranging from the simple visual observation to precise measurements using sophisticated instructions. urodynamic tests
___ suturing of the vaginal wall to the urethra or bladder neck, with anchoring to the public bone or cooper ligament. Vesicourethropexy marshall-marchetti-krantz (MMK) procedure.
__ a channel that joins the ureters to the ileum ileal conduit
____ insertion of an electrostimulator probe into the patient's rectum next to the prostate to transmit an electrical current and stimulate ejaculation. electroejaculation
___ removal of a portion of the vas deferens and attachment of the vas deferens to the epididymis. epididymovasostomy
___ excision or trying off of dilated vein(s) using a laparoscopic approach ligation
___ removal of the prostate gland, including possible biopsy or removal of the lymph nodes. prostatectomy
__ cutting out a piece of the vas deferens and cauterizing or suturing the ends closed. vasectomy
___ removal of one of the seminal vesicles. vesiculectomy
kidney coding category ____ 50010-50135
Ureter coding category _____ 50600-50980
bladder coding category ___ 51020-52700
urinary system conditions coding category ___ n00-n39
male genital system conditions coding category ___ N40-N65, Z31
urinary Neoplasms coding category ____ C50, C60-C63, C64-C68
Urinary Symptoms and signs coding category ___ R30-R39
Urinary Injuries coding category ___ S37-S39
Urinary medicine procedures coding category ____ 90935-90999, 96040
Urinary radiologic diagnostic radiology coding category ___ 77400-74485
Urinary radiologic guidance coding category ____ 77001-77022
Urinary diagnostic ultrasound coding category _____ 76700-76776
Urinary nuclear medicine, diagnostic coding category ____ 78700-78799
urinary laboratory organ/disease panels coding category ___ 80047, 80048, 80050, 80053, 80069
penis coding category ___ 54000-54450
testis coding category ___ 54500-54699
Epididymis coding category ___ 54700-54901
Tunica Vaginalis coding category ___ 55000-55060
scrotum coding category ___ 55100-55180
Vas Deferens coding category ___ 55200-55450
Spermatic cord coding category ___ 55500-55559
Seminal Vesicles coding category ___ 55600-55680
Prostate coding category ___ 55700-55899
__ in or through the penis (male only) penile
__ in tissues surrounding the kidney. perirenal
____ behind the peritoneal membrane that covers the abdominal and pelvic organs. retroperitoneal
____ behind the pubic bone retropubic
__ through an existing catheter transcatheter
___ through the perineum transperineal
___ through the pubic bone transpubic
___ through the urethra transuretheral
___ through the vagina transvaginal
______ occurs when the patients gender is different than that coded for the procedure. gender data mismatch
__ a flexible, hollow tube inserted into the urinary bladder left in short or long term to provide continuous urine flow. indwelling catheter
____ includes two types of catheters that are not left in the bladder; a condom catheter placed outside the body to catch urine or a straight catheter inserted into the bladder only to drain the urine then removed; also called an ___ nonindwelling catheter; external catheter
females genital system coding category ___ 56405-58999
Maternity care and delivery procedures coding category ____ 59000-59899
___ extensive suturing around the cervix to make the opening smaller. cerclage
___ reduction of the size of an enlarged clitoris. clitoroplasty
____ puncture of the posterior vaginal wall with a needle to withdrawal fluid from the peritoneal cul-de-sac colpocentesis
___ suture of the vagina to another structure, such as the abdominal wall colpopexy/ vaginofixation
___ suture of the vagina colpotomy
___ removal of a cone-shaped piece of tissue from the uterine cervix. conization of the cervix
__ widening of the cervix and scraping of the uterine wall dilation and curettage
__scrapping tissue from the endocervical canal. endocervical curettage
___ insertion of a catheter through the cervix and uterus into the fallopian tubes fallopian tube catheter introduction
__ opening an obstructed fallopian tube to save the function of the fimbriae for transporting an oocyte fimbrioplasty
__ incision of the hymen hymenotomy
____ removal of the uterus and/or related structures, such as the ovaries and fallopian tubes hysterectomy
____ repair of a malformed uterus hysteroplasty
____ suturing the uterus hysterorrhaphy
___ x-ray of the uterus and fallopian tubes after injecting contrast dye. hysterosalpingography
___ visualization of the cervix and uterus using a hysteroscope, passing it through the vagina into the cervix and uterine cavity. hysteroscopy
___ removal of an egg from the female patient, which is manually fertilized with sperm and then returned to the fallopian tube or implanted in the uterus. in vitro fertilization
___ destruction or freeing of adhesions between the labia minor or major. lysis of labial adhesions
__ to incise a cyst or abscess by cutting a slit into it to drain it and then suturing the edges to surrounding tissue; the surgical formation of a pouch like sac on the Bartholins gland. Marsupialization
____ repair of tissues that are too weak to be repaired without inserting a mesh or other prosthesis to strengthen them. mesh/ prosthesis insertion
___ removal of uterine fibroid tumors without removing healthy uterine tissue myomectomy
____ elevation of the bladder by attaching it to abdominal fascia pereyra procedure
__ repair of the tissues of the perineum perineoplasty
__ evaluation and placement of a rubber, silicone, or plastic device into the vagina to support surrounding structures. Pessary insertion/ fitting
____ restoration of the vaginal opening to its original size plastic repair introitus
___ surgical creation of an opening in a fallopian tube to restore its patency salpingostomy
__ ultrasound of uterus after a saline solution is infused into the uterus. Sonohysterography
___ separation of the sperm from seminal fluid and removing chemicals that can be harmful to the uterus. sperm washing
__ removal of the uterine cervix trachelectomy/ cervicectomy
___ suture of a laceration of the uterine cervix Trachelorrhaphy
__ shortening of the ligament that suspends the uterus by placating and tacking it back in place. Uterine suspension
__ surgical removal of part of the vulva Vulvectomy
Vulva, perineum and introitus coding category ___ 56405-56821
Vagina coding category ___ 57000-57426
Cervix Uteri coding category ____ 57452-57800
Corpus Uteri coding category _____ 58100-58579
Oviduct/ Ovary coding category _____ 58600-58770
Ovary coding category ____ 58800-58960
In Vitro Fertilization coding category ___ 58970-58976
Other female genital systems coding category ____ 58999
Antepartum and fetal invasive services for maternity care and delivery coding category ____ 59000-59076
Maternity and delivery excision coding category ___ 59100-59160
maternity and delivery introduction coding category _____ 59200
Maternity and delivery repair coding category ___ 59300-59350
Vaginal delivery, Antepartum and postpartum care coding category ____ 59400-59430
Cesarean delivery coding category ____ 59510-59525
Delivery procedures after previous cesarean delivery coding category _____ 59610-59622
Abortion procedures coding category _____ 59812-59857
Other procedures regarding maternity and delivery coding category ____ 59866-59899
OBGYN diagnostic readiology coding category ___ 74710-74775
female genital system conditions coding category __ N65-N99
OBGYN Neoplasm coding category ___ C50, C51-58
OBGYN Symptoms and Signs coding category ___ R30-39
OBGYN injury coding category ___ S37-S39
Maternity Care and Delivery coding category ___ 000-09A, Z30-Z39
OBGYN radiologic guidance coding category ____ 77001-77022
Diagnostic Ultrasound OBGYN coding category ____ 76700-76776, 76801-76857
Breast Mammography coding category ____ 77051-77063
OBGYN Nuclear medicine, diagnostic coding category ___ 78700-78799
OBGYN laboratory organ/ disease panels coding category _____ 80055
____ within the peritoneum intraperitoneal
____ adjacent to the vagina or part of the vagina paravaginal
__ above the cervix uteri supracervical
____ through the cervix uteri transcervical
____ through the perineum transperineal
__ through the vagina vaginal/ transvaginal
Unrelated E/M During Global Obstetric period code ___ -24
Radiology services coding category ___ 70010-79999
____ real-time visualization of body structures during a medical or surgical procedure. imaging guidance
____ provides cancer treatment through radiation radiation oncologist
____ performs minimally invasive, image-guided surgeries interventional radiologist
___ is a nonphysician staff member who is trained to operate and adjust imaging equipment, explain procedures and answer questions. radiology technician
___methods of applying a therapeutic/physical treatment modalities
__ structure such as bone, allows few x-rays to pass through like bone radiopaque
___ permits x-rays to pass though it like skin radiolucent
___ a radiopaque substance injected or swallowed. contrast medium
Diagnostic radiology coding category ____ 70010-76499
Diagnostic ultrasound coding category _____ 76506-76999
Radiologic guidance coding category ______ 77001-77032
Breast Mammography coding category ____ 77051-77063
Bone/joint studies coding category ____ 77071-77086
Radiation Oncology coding category _______ 77261-77799
Nuclear medicine coding category ____ 78012-79999
___ within a cavity within a cavity
___ between tissues interstitial
____ within a joint intra-articular
___ within a cavity intracavity
___ into the sheath of the spinal cord intrathecal
pathology and laboratory services coding category ___ 80047-89398
___ any type of body fluid or tissue specimen
___ outside laboratory -90
____ repeat clinical laboratory test -91
__ alternative laboratory platform testing -92
___ clia-waved test -QW
___ professional component -26
___ Technical component -TC
___ Separate Structure -XS
___ Nonoverlapping service -XU
E/M means ___ evaluation and management
Which one of the following choices is used to treat arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation? a. Echocardiography b. Angiography c. EKG d. Cardioversion D
Power wheelchairs are coded under which HCPCS code range? a. K0001–K09000 b. L0112–L9900 c. Q0035–Q9968 d. R0070–R0076 A`
For bilateral excision of the adrenal glands, which one of the following choices is the correct way to report the codes? a. 60540, 60540 b. 60540-Lt, 60540-Rt c. 60540 d.60540-50 D
Which one of the following CPT codes represents excision, benign lesion including margins, except skin tag, over 4.0 cm? a. 11402 b. 11403 c. 11404 d. 11406 D
A patient's glucose test reads high. What's the reference range for a glucose test? a. 137–145 mmol/L b. 8.4–10.4 mg/dL c. 6.3–8.2 g/L d. 74–106 mg/dL D
Musculoskeletal system codes for the upper arm are covered under what code range? a. 23000–23929 b. 23930–24999 c. 25000–25999 d. 26010–26989 B
Vaginal hysterectomy, for uterus greater than 250 g, with removal of tubes and ovaries is coded to a. 58260. b. 58263. c. 58290. d. 58291. D
What's a common surgical term that means tying off using a substance like cotton? A. Incision B. Graft C. Repair D. Ligation D
For the procedure thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection, which of the following Main Terms should a coder search for first in the CPT Index? a. Thyroidectomy b. Radical c. Neck d. Dissection A
CPT codes for diagnostic radiology for the hemic and lymphatic systems are covered under which range? A. 75600–75989 B. 77001–77022 C. 76506–76645 D. 78102–78299 A
When coding procedures on arteries and veins, which of the following CPT code ranges apply? a. 33010–37799 b. 33010–33999 c. 34001–36556 d. 36555–36589 C
Which one of the following procedures refers to surgical excision of a lobe of the lung? A. Pneumonectomy B. Lobectomy C. Bilobectomy D. Segmentectomy B
Which one of the following procedures refers to suturing of the vagina? A. Colorrhaphy B. Colporrhaphy C. Vaginotomy D, Vagotomy B
Which one of the following choices is a reason a pyelotomy would be performed? A. To remove a neoplasm B. To drain urine from the renal pelvis C. For a ureteral stricture D. For a voiding dysfunction B
Which one of the following choices refers to an excision of the iris to treat glaucoma? A. Iridectomy B. Iridencleisis C. Iridotasis D. Iridotomy A
Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging for velocity flow mapping is coded to A. 75561. B. 75563. C. 75565. D. 75567. C
Which one of the following choices is reinforcement of a section of a weakened aorta by a bulge using a prosthesis? A. EVAR B. FEVAR C. CABG D. EKG B
Procedures on the spinal cord are coded to which CPT code range? A. 61000–62258 B. 62263–63746 C. 77001–77022 D. 80300–80377 B
Anesthesia for arthroplasty of the knee is coded as A. 01402. B. 01214. C. 01215. D. 01401. A
CPT is updated every year, with changes taking effect A. June 1. B. December 31. C. January 1. D. January 31. C
Which one of the following CPT code ranges is used for intersex surgery? A. 74400–74485 B. 55100–55180 C. 55970–55980 D, 76700–76776 C
When looking up the CPT code for arterial puncture, withdrawal of blood for diagnosis, which Main Term would a coder search for first? A. Arterial puncture B. Withdrawal C. Blood D. Diagnosis A
pt is prepped 4 anesthesia @10:36AM begin @10:45AM &procedure begin @10:52AM &completed @2:47PM & documentation shows anesthesia ends @2:51 PM anesthesia leaves @2:53 PM 4 codin, wen does anesthesia begin? A. 10:36AM B. 10:45AM C. 2:51PM D. 2:53PM A
In the CPT Tabular List, infusion codes are subdivided by A. physician and cost. B. route and time. C. agent and exposure. D. specific substance and setting. B
A physician performs an unlisted procedure. Most likely, the CPT code will end with A. -51. B. -00. C. -99. D. –F. C
Blood products, laboratory services, and pathology services are covered under which HCPCS code range? A. M0064–M0301 B. P2028–P9615 C. S0012–S9999 D. T1000–T5999 B
Which one of the following choices refers to an incision into the vessel of the lymphatic system? A. Imbrication B. Lymphangiography C. Lymphangiotomy D. Radical lymphadenectomy C
Which one of the following choices is an injection of an anesthetic agent to diagnose or treat pain? A. Nerve block B. Neuroplasty C. Neuroendoscopy D. Neurostimulator A
Which one of the following choices bout assignin code 69801 is most accurate? A. Don't assign it more than 1 on the same pt B. Don't assign it for a labryinthotomy C. Don't assign it for ear procedures D. Don't assign more than 1 time per day for a pt D
For a CABG, what's one of the key questions to ask during abstracting? A. What is the anatomic site? B. Is a pump or port included? C. Is the catheter inserted centrally? D. How many grafted vessels are used? D
Which one of the following codes is used for coronary artery bypass graft, using venous graft(s) and arterial graft(s); 2 venous grafts? A. 33518 B. 33533 C. 4110F D. 33536 A
A patient had a cast for a leg fracture placed by Dr. Smith. When it was time for cast removal, Dr. Johns removed the cast. Which code(s) would be used to code the cast removal? A. 29000–29584 B. 29700–29750 C. 99070 D. 29871 B
How is the E/M section organized in the CPT coding manual? A. Alphabetically B. By procedure C. Setting in which the service is provided D. By encounter C
A delayed wound healing used for healing after a tissue graft is known as? A. primary intention healing. B. secondary intention healing. C. tertiary intention healing. D. negative pressure wound therapy. C
Which suffix means "surgical creation of an opening"? A. -tomy B. -stomy C. -ectomy D. -rrhaphy B
Which one of the following procedures indicates a connection between two structures? A. Gastric bypass B. PEG C. Gastroduodenostomy D, Vagotomy C
Which one of the following terms refers to excision of the common bile duct? A. Cholecystectomy B. Choledochocystectomy C. Gastrectomy D. Gastrotomy B
In the CPT Tabular List, which one of the following choices is located in category I? A. E&M codes B. Performance Measures C. Emerging Technology D. New Procedures A
Which of the following CPT codes indicate primary adenoidectomy? A. 42830, 42831 B. 42835, 42836 C. 69436 D. 69990 A
Which one of the following choices is used to treat an ingrown toenail? A. Excision B. Tissue expander C. Avulsion D. Shaving B
If a CPT code has an F at the end, a coder automatically knows it belongs to A. Category I. B. Category II. C. Category III. D. ICD. B
HCPCS temporary codes for drugs and supplies are coded within which code range? A. S0012–S9999 B. Q0035–Q9968 C. B4000–B9999 D. C1300–C9899 B
If you see a CPT code with the modifier -50, you automatically know that the procedure was performed A. on the left side of the body. B. on the right side of the body. C. on both sides of the body. D. with new technology. C
Which one of the following choices might be performed if there's an insufficient amount of oxygen to the fetus during labor and delivery? A. Fetal NST B. Episiotomy C. VBAC D. Fetal scalp blood sampling D
Which procedure suffix means "stopping or controlling"?: A. -clasis B. -desis C. -statis D. -tripsy C
A bilateral adrenalectomy is coded to which of the following CPT codes? A.60540-50 B. 60650-50 C. 60545, 60545 D. 60254,60254 B
Suprapubic bladder catheter is coded to which CPT code? A. 51045 B. 51102 C. 51701 D. 51703 B
Which one of the following CPT modifiers indicates mandated services? A. -32 B. -57 C. -50 D. -99 A
A diagnostic mammogram was performed on the left breast. Which one of the following choices is the correct CPT code? A. 77067 B. 77067-50 C. 77065 D. 77065-50 C
In order for MAC to be reimbursed, it must be A. administered by a CRNA. B. preapproved. C. medically necessary. D. requested by the patient. C
When exploration of spinal fusion is reported with other definitive procedures, including arthrodesis, which of the following codes apply? A. 22830 B. 22830, 22831 C. 22830-51 D. 22830-62 C
What type of anesthesia does a patient receive if the patient is awake and only a small area of the body part is numb? A. Topical B. Local C. Regional D. General B
Which one of the following choices is the physician service code for one hemodialysis treatment per month for end-stage renal disease in a clinic setting for a 27-year-old patient? A. 90935 B. 90962 C. 90961 D. 90960 B
The diagnosis of limited lymphadenectomy for staging (separate procedure); pelvic and para-aortic is coded to which CPT code? A. 38746 B. 38562 C. 38792 D. 38792-51 B
What is the code range for Ophthalmology E/M? A. 99201–99499 B. 92002–92014 C. 99100–99101 D. 99000–99002 B
Which one of the following choices is one of the criteria for assigning an E/M code? A. Level of service B. Physician experience C. Consultation status D. Cost of procedure A
When coding a procedure of the eye, which one of the following CPT codes should be included as an add-on code when the procedure involves the use of an operating microscope? A. 65091 B. 68850 C. 69990 D. 67101 C
Which one of the following procedures indicates cutting of the esophageal sphincter muscle? A. Gastric bypass B. LABG C. Nissen fundoplication D. Heller myotomy D
Which one of the following choices is an anesthesia code for hernia repairs in lower abdomen ventral and incisional hernias? A. 00794 B. 00944 C. 00832 D. 00630 C
A wound repair was measured using the distance between two points. Which measurement method was used? A. Linear B. Area C. Diameter D. Straight A
Which one of the following CPT codes is used for electrocardiogram, routine ECG with at least 12 leads, with interpretation and report? A. 93000 B. 93005 C. 93010 D. 93015 A
Which one of the following choices is the correct CPT code for tetanus, diphtheria toxoids, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap), when administered to individuals 7 years or older, for intramuscular use? A. 90733 B. 90715 C. 90461 D. 90460 B
What's the HCPCS code for 0.5 mg of albuterol? A. J7620 B. J7610 C. J7611 D. J7609 A
A procedure lists the term ventricle. This procedure must be performed on which of the following organs? A. Heart B. Brain C. Heart or brain D. Need more information C
A patient has surgery on Tuesday morning. What's the first day of a 10-day postoperative period? A. Tuesday B. Wednesday C. Thursday D. The Thursday 10 days from the Tuesday operation B
CPT codes are published and copyrighted by which one of the following organizations? A. CMS B. AHIMA C. ADA D. AMA D
A procedure was performed with two surgeons. Which modifier would be reported for the multiple surgeons? A. -54 B. -62 C. -66 D. -80 B
91. Which coding system would cover the code for syringe with needle, sterile, 1 cc or less? A. ICD-10-CM B. ICD-10-PCS C. HCPCS D. CPT C
If a respiratory procedure is generally performed bilaterally, but was performed on only one side, which modifier should be used? Question 4 options: A. -LT or –RT B. -50 C. -52 D. -99 C
Which CPT modifier would be used to note a different operative session? A. -50 B. -51 C. -59 D. -79 C
Aldosterone suppression evaluation panel is coded to A. 80408 B. 82088. C. 81000. D. 89398. A
Which one of the following choices accurately represents coding of osteotomy on lumbar vertebrae 2, 3 and 4, using posterolateral approach? A. 22214 B. 22216 C. 22214, 22216 D. 22214, 22216, 22216 D
A patient had a chalazion removed from her left upper eyelid. Which one of the following CPT codes is correct? A. 67800 B. 67800-E1 C. 67800-LT D. 67800-LC C
Which one of the following auditory system CPT codes is reported when local or topical anesthesia is used? Question options: A. 69420 B. 69421 C. 69424 D. 69433 D
Which CPT code symbol indicates an add-on code? Question options: A. – B. [ ] C. + D. ( ) C
Where do E/M codes appear in the CPT coding manual? A. First in the manual B. Last in the manual C. After the 8's section D. After the appendix A
Complete cervical lymphadenectomy on the right side is coded to which CPT code? A. 38720 B. 38720-LT C. 38720-RT D. 38270-51 C
Created by: xokitty17xo