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group 7 part 2

medical billing and coding ashworth college

___ the associated anatomic structures of the eye, which includes the ocular muscles, eyelids, and conjunctiva adnexa
___ the opaque middle layer of the eyeball that supplies blood to the eye. choroid
___ a photoreceptor cell of the retina that is sensitive to bright light and color vision cone
___ the membrane that lines the eyelids conjunctiva
__ the clear, hard portion of the sclera that protects the lens cornea
___ the clear part of the front of the eye that focuses light rays on the retina lens
___ the eyeball ocular globe
___ cranial nerve optic nerve
___ the bony structure around the eye, commonly known as the eye socket orbital cavity
__ the opening in the iris that dilates and constricts pupil
___ the inner most layer that contains sensory receptor cells retina
___ a light-sensitive receptor cell in the retina rod
___ the tough, white outer layer of the eyeball sclera
__ the transparent jelly that fills the eyeball and surrounded by a membrane vitreous body
The code category for Diseases of the eye and adnexa is ____ H00-H59
___ an inflammation and infection of hair follicles and glands at the margins of the eyelids due to virus, bacteria, allergic response, or exposure to irritants Blepharitis
___ a cloudiness of the lens that usually develops slowly over time due to aging cataract
__ a small hard cyst on the eyelid caused by blockage of a gland on the eyelid Chalazion
__ a viral or bacterial inflammation and infection of the conjunctiva Conjunctivitis
___ The abnormal expansion of blood vessels and hemorrhaging in the bessels of the retina, caused by diabetes Diabetic retinopathy
___ an increased fluid pressure within the eye that damages the optic nerve and can cause blindness Glaucoma
__ a bacterial inflammation of a sebaceous gland on the edge or lining of the eyelid; also called a stye Hordeolum
___ an inflammation and ulceration of the surface of the cornea Keratitis
___ the gradual loss of central vision due to aging, with no cure Macular Degeneration
___ the separation of the retina from the choroid layer of the eye Retinal Detachment
code category for the ear and mastoid process is ___ H60-H95
normally when coding about the eyes the right side is ___ the left side is__ and both is___ 1, 2, 3
the coding category for Diseases of the ear and Mastoid process is H60-H95
___ the part of the external ear that funnels sound waves auditory canal
__ the visible part of the ear, which collects sound waves; also called the pinna Auricle
___ the ear wax that protects and lubricates the ear Cerumen
___ a snail shaped organ that makes hearing possible Cochlea
__ the membrane that separates the external ear from the middle ear; also called the tympanic membrane or tympanum eardrum
___ the inner layer of the pericardium; also called visceral pericardium Epricardium
___ sense of balance Equilibrium
___ a section of the ear that consists of the auricle or pinna, the auditory canal, and the tympanic membrane external ear
___ the anvil-shaped bone in the middle ear that receives the vibrations from the malleus and transmits them to the stapes incus
___ a fluid-filled cavity in the temporal bone that contains the cochlea; also called the ____ labyrinth, inner ear
__ the hammered shaped bone in the middle ear that transmits vibrations to the incus malleus
___ the portion of the temporal bone of the skull that juts forward behind the ear mastoid process
___ a small, air-filled cavity in the temporal bone that contains the ossicles, three small bones that are critical to the hearing process middle ear
___ a part of the middle ear that amplifies vibrations and transmits them to the inner ear ossicles
___ an infection of the middle ear Otitis media
___ a thin membrane that covers the opening to the inner ear and passes vibrations to the cochlea oval window
___ the visible part of the ear which collects sound waves; also called auricle pinna
___ an infection of the middle ear, usually bacterial, involving the discharge of pus purulent otitis media
___ a membrane pouch containing serum fluid of the inner ear saccule
__ the superior, posterior, and inferior canals in the ear that contain endolymph Semicircular canal
__ the stirrup shaped bone in the middle of the ear that receives vibrations from the incus stapes
___ the eardrum; separates the external ear from the middle ear; also called tympanum. Tympanic membrane
__ a hole or break in the eardrum; also called rupture tympanic membrane Tympanic membrane perforation (TMP)
___ the part of the external ear that separates it from the middle ear tympanum
___ a small, saclike structure of the labyrinth of the inner ear utricle
___ cranial nerve VIII; the ear makes hearing possible by collecting sound waves from external world and converting them into impulses that are transmitted to the brain. Vestibulocochlear nerve
An Otolaryngologist is a physician that specializes in diagnosing and treating conditions of the ___, ___ and ____. Also know as an ___ ears, nose, and throat. ENT
Ot/o is ____ ear
opt/o is ____ vision, eye
Mastoid/o is the combing form for the mastoid process which is ____ breast shaped
mast/o is the combing form for the ____ breast
tinnitus is ____ ringing in the ears
tinea is a ___ skin fungus
serous is a ____ clear fluid
serious is an ____ important or somber
otitis media (OM) is ___ infection of the middle ear
_____ excessive accumulation of ear wax, also called impacted ____ Ceruminoma, Cerumen
___a cyst or benign tumor consisting of epithelial cells and fats. Cholesteatoma
___ Hearing loss due to abnormal formation of the external or middle ear Hearing loss conductive
___ Hearing loss due to abnormal formation of the cochlea or cochlear nerve Hearing loss Sensorineural
___ A viral or bacterial inflammation or infection of the semicircular canals of the inner ear Labrynitis
___ A serious infection of the mastoid process that carries the risk of infecting the brain Mastoids
__ An abnormality of the fluid of the inner ear that can lead to a progressive hearing loss Meniere disease
__ An inflammation of the external ear (pinna) Otitis external
___ An inflammation of the middle ear that does not produce pus Otitis media (om) nosuppurative
__ A subtype of nonsuppurative otitis media involving clear fluid in the middle ear Otitis Media (OM) Serous
__ An infection of the middle ear, usually bacterial, involving the discharge of pus also called purulent otitis media Otitis Media suppurative
____ A loss of mobility of the stapes bone Otosclerosis
___ A hole or break in the eardrum, also called tympanic membrane perforation (TMP). Ruptured Tympanic membrane
__ Ringing in the ear that may be subjective (only heard by the patient) or objective (audible to the physician) Tinnitus
__ A sensation of motion or dizziness Vertigo
The coding category for the eye and adnexa is ___ H00-H59
__ A disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus, which weakens and paralyzes the immune system. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
___ having no symptoms Asymptomatic
___ one-celled germs that multiply quickly and may release toxins that create illness bacteria
__ a yeast fungi candida
___ a bacterium that can cause serious food poisoning Escherichia Coli (E coli)
___ a primitive vegetable that reproduces through spores Fungus
___ the parasite that causes giardiasis, an intestinal tract infection Giardia
___ a plant or animal that lives in or on another living organism, or host, and often causes damage to the host; also called a parasite Helminth
___ the shingles virus herpes
__ a virus that infects and destroys helper T cells of the immune system and causes aids Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV0
___ a test result that means the antibody test was neither positive nor negative; also called inconclusive HIV, indeterminate HIV
___ an infection that primarily affects a single organ or body system, such as pneumonia or pharyngitis Localized
__ the altered function of more than one organ at the same time requiring medical intervention to stabilize the patient Multiple organ dysfunction
___ a disease that attacks those with weakened immune systems but does not develop in those with healthy immune systems Opportunistic infection
__ a disease outbreak that spreads to multiple continents Panademic
__ A plant or animal that lives in or on another living organism, or host, and often causes damage to the host; also called Helminth Parasite
__ one-celled organisms, more complex than bacteria, that use other living things as a source of food and a place to live Protozoa
__ the most common gram-negative bacterium that can cause disease in humans and animals. Pseudomonas aerguinosa (P. aerguinosa)
___ a blood test use to diagnosis diseases Serology
__ An infectious disease with the last known case in 1977 Smallpox.
__ a class of disease that affects the entire body Systemic
___ A chicken pox virus Varicella
__ a capsule that contains genetic material and uses the body's own cells to multiply Virus
The coding category or certain infectious and parasitic diseases is ____ A00-B99
HPV is ___ Human Papilloma virus (cervical cancer)
Candidiasis is a ? yeast infection
Chlamydia is a ? sexually transmitted disease
Trichomoniasis is a? sexually transmitted disease
Trichinosis is a? roundworm infection caused by eating raw pork
Sepsis is? Presence of bacteria or their toxins in the blood
In sepsis the body has a ____? systemic response
___ a viral inflammation of the liver? hepatitis
___ is a painful, blistering skin rash due to the varicella-zoster virus that causes chickenpox; also called shingles Herpes zoster
___ is a chronic bacterial disease characterized by the formation of nodules on the surface of the body. Leprosy
__ is an acute or chronic disease caused by parasites and characterized by high fevers, shaking chills, flu-like symptoms, and anemia. Malaria
__ is a type of staph infection that does not respond to commonly used antibiotics. Methicillin-susceptible staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) infection
___ is a type of staph that does not respond to commonly used antibiotics. Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection
___ a viral infection causing fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph glands. Mononucleosis
___ is a bacteria that survives exposure to many different antibiotics. Multiple drug-resistant organism (MDRO)
__ is any hospital-acquired infection. Nosocomial
__ a severe life-threating, system-wide reaction to infection caused by disease-causing organisms, especially bacteria, in the blood or tissue. Sepsis
___ is a life threatening low blood pressure due to sepsis. Septic shock
___ a systemic disease associated with the presence and persistence of bacteria, viruses, fungi, or other organisms or toxins in the blood. Septicemia
___ is an acute or multiple organ dysfunction (MOD) due to sepsis Severe sepsis
__ is an acute, system-wide inflammatory reaction with atleast two manifestations; fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, leukocytosis, and/ or leukopenia. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
__ is a contagious bacterial infection that involves the lungs but may spread to the other organs. Tuberculosis (TB)
__ is a preventable condition acquired during a hospital stay. HAC
Medicare will not reimburse hospitals for __ HAC
Inpatient hospitals are responsible to report whether conditions are ___. present on admission (POA)
Kaposi Sarcoma, and lymphoma are considered this type of complication? Malignancies
Candidiasis, Herpes Simplex, Herpes Zoster (Shingles), Pneumonia, toxoplasmosis, and Tuberculosis are considered this type of complication? Infections
Diarrhea, Lack of appetite, nausea, and vomiting are considered this type of complication? Gastrointestinal Symptoms
Confusion, memory loss, headaches, and visual changes are all considered this type of complication. Neurological symptoms.
Methicillin-susceptible staphylococcus aureus (MSSA), or methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) are located under the main term. MSSA and MRSA
The HIV code is? Z21
The AIDS code? B20
The code for contact with and exposure to HIV is? Z20.6
The code for encounter for screening for HIV is? Z11.4
The code for inconclusive laboratory evidence of HIV is? R75
The code for confirmed HIV (Asymptomatic HIV) is? Z21
The code for HIV counseling is? Z71.7
The HIV related codes can be found under main term ___ and sub term ___. Human, Immunodeficiency
The code for Sepsis unspecified is? A41.9
The code for Severe Sepsis/ acute organ dysfunction is documented with sepsis is? R65.2
When there is Sepsis without Septic shock assign the 5th character. 0
If there is Sepsis with Septic shock then assign the 5th character. 1
The code for Severe Sepsis with septic shock is? R65.21
The code for Escherichia Coli is? A41.51
The code category for Bacterial and Viral Infectious agents is? B95-B97
The coding category for the Diseases of the genitourinary System is? N00-N99
___ a gland that secretes mucus. Bartholins gland
___ a blood test used to determine the amount of creatinine present; an abnormal result suggest renal dysfunction. Blood Creatinine
___ the abnormal growth of epithelial cells of the prostate, causing compression or obstruction of the urethra; also called enlarged prostate (EP) or hyperplasia. Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy/ Hyperplasia (BPH)
__ the gland that provides a mucous secretion before ejaculation, which becomes part of the semen. Bulbo-urethral gland
___ a small sensitive protrusion that is part of the female genital system. clitoris
___ a treatment that filters the blood to remove waste, excess salts, and water. Dialysis
___ a deposit of the starchy substance amyloid in the joints due to dialysis. Dialysis-related amyloidosis (DRA)
___ a cancer that starts in the milk ducts of the breast. Ductal
__ a chemical compound that separates into charged particles in a solution. Electrolyte
__ the tube through which eggs are transported for fertilization and implantation in the uterus. Fallopian Tube
__ the body system that includes the urinary and genital system. Genitourinary system
__ a method used to measure kidney function and to determine the stage of kidney disease. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
__ a cluster of capillaries that separates the urinary space from the blood. Glomerulus
__ the condition of blood in the urine. hematuria
___ a method for removing waste from the blood in which blood is processed through a machine when the kidneys cease to function. Hemodialysis
__ the chronic inability to achieve or maintain a penile erection until ejaculation. Impotence
___ the part of the urinary system that produces urine and regulates the level of electrolytes and body fluid. kidney
___ the fold of flesh that surrounds and protect the opening to the vagina. Labia major
___ The fold of flesh that surrounds and protects the urethra. Labia minor
___ a breast cancer that starts in the lobules that produces milk. Lobular
__ A symptom that relating to urinary storage and voiding disturbances Lower Urinary Tract Symptom (LUTS)
___ The functioning part of each kidney that filters waste from the blood. Nephron
___ the gland in which eggs are produced in females. Ovary
__ The external male organ that carries urine and semen our of the body. Penis
___ a type of dialysis in which the peritoneal membrane is used to filter the blood. Peritoneal dialysis (PD)
___ The lining of the abdomen. Peritoneal membrane
__ a condition in which numerous cysts occupy much of the kidney tissue. Polycystic kidney disease.
__ an acute or chronic infection of the renal medulla and upper urinary tract as a result of untreated cystitis; also called pyelonephritis. Polynephritis
____ The part of the male genital system that secretes fluid to nourish the sperm. Prostate
___ a blood test used to screen for prostate cancer. Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)
__ a disease of the kidneys that results from a backward flow of urine into the kidneys. Reflux nephropathy
___ the portion of a kidney where urine collects. Renal pelvis
___ a part of the internal genital organs of the male reproductive system. Reproductive duct
__ the part of the male genital system that provides the male sex hormone testosterone. Testis
___ a tube that drains each kidney. Ureter
___ a tube that carries urine out of the body Urethra
___ a muscular sac that holds urine until it is expelled through the urethra. Urinary bladder
___ a bacterial infection of the urinary bladder; also called cystitis Urinary tract infection
__ a hollow muscular organ in females that provides for the development of a fetus; also called a womb. Uterus
___ the birth canal. Vagina
Prostat/o means? Prostate
Proct/o means? anus and rectum
Salpingitis of the fallopian tube is? part of the female reproductive system
Salpingitis of the Eustachian tube is? Located between the ear and the nasopharynx
colp/o means? Vagina
col/o or Colon/o means? Colon or large intestine
Chronic Kidney Disease is also referred to as? Chronic renal failure
___ the rapid loss of kidney function over a period of days or weeks, Acute kidney failure
__ Damage to the renal tubules due to reduced blood flow or toxins in the urine Acute tubular necrosis
__ stones that may accumulate in the kidneys, bladder ,or ureters. Calculi
___ The slow loss of kidney function over a period of months or years. Chronic kidney disease
___ Bacterial infection of the urinary bladder; also called a urinary tract infection. Cystitis
__ Accumulated damage to the glomerulus capillaries due to chronic high blood glucose Diabetic nephropathy
___ inflammation of the glomerulus of the kidney, allowing protein and blood into the urine. Glomerulonephritis
___ Distention of the renal pelvis due to excessive urine collection in the kidney, often due to ureteral obstruction. Hydronephrosis
___ the inability to control the bladder muscles. Incontinence
___ a collection of disorders affecting the kidneys characterized by nonpurulent inflammatory glomerular disorders that allow proteins and red blood cells to pass into the urine, resulting in proteinuria and hematuria. Nephritic syndrome
__ downward placement of the kidney from its normal location Nephroptosis
___ a collection of disorders affecting the kidneys, characterized by proteinuria but not hematuria Nephrotic syndrome
___ acute or chronic infection of the renal medulla and upper urinary tract as a result of untreated cystitis, also called polynephritis. Pyelonephritis
___ Toxic blood condition due to the inability of the kidneys to remove nitrogenous substances from the blood. Uremia
When there is an accumulation of waste products in the ____ you will feel deep, sighing respiration, and urine smell to breath. respiratory system
When there is an accumulation of waste products in the ___ you will feel an ammonia taste in the mouth, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Digestive system
When there is an accumulation of waste products in the ___ you will feel pyuria, hematuria, albuminuria, and casts. Urinary system
When there is an accumulation of waste products in the ___ you will feel drowsiness, dim vision, mental cloudiness, convulsions, or coma. Nervous system
Kidney damage with normal or slightly diminished kidney function with a gfr of 130-90 is? stage 1
Kidney damage with mild reduction in kidney function with a GFR of 90-60 is? stage 2
Kidney damage with moderate reduction in kidney function with a GFR of 60-30 is? Stage 3
Kidney damage with a severe reaction in kidney function with a GFR of 30-15 is? Stage 4
Kidney failure; end stage renal disease (ESRD) with a GFR of 15-0 is? Stage 5
___ is The abnormal growth of the epithelial cells of the prostate, causing compression or obstruction of the urethra also called benign prostatic hypertrophy or hyperplasia (BPH). Enlarged prostate (EP)
____ is the chronic inability to achieve or maintain a penile erection until ejaculation; also called impotence. Erectile Dysfunction (ED)
___ is a fluid-filled sack in the scrotum caused by abnormal fetal development, injury, hernia, or blockages. Hydrocele
___ is a problem in the male genital system that diminishes reproduction, such as inability to ejaculate, lack of sperm production, or lack of live sperm. Male factor infertility
____ is a neoplastic change in the epithelial cells of the prostate ducts showing some features or cancer, but not invasive; a potential precursor of carcinoma or adenocarcinoma. Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN)
___ is a benign cystic swelling of sperm in the ducts of the epididymis. Spermatocele
___ is abnormal changes in the cells on the surface of the cervix that may lead to cancer if not treated. Cervical dysplasia
___ is cervical dysplasia seen on a cervical biopsy, classified as mild dysplasia (CIN I), moderate to marked dysplasia (CIN ll), and severe dysplasia to cancer in situ (CIN lll). Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
___ is the growth of endometrial tissue in any area other than the uterus. Endometriosis
___ is a problem in the female genital system that diminishes reproduction such as scarring or obstruction of the fallopian tubes or abnormal interaction between sperm and the mucous membrane in the cervix. Female factor infertility
___ is lumps of benign fibrous tissue in the breast. Fibrocystic breast disease
___ is a downward displacement of the uterus or vagina to an abnormal position Genital prolapse
___ is an inflammation of the female reproductive tract above the cervix Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
___ is a cervical dysplasia seen on a pap test, graded as low grade (LSIL), high grade (HSIL), and possibly cancerous or malignant. Squamous Intraepithelial lesion (SIL)
___ is inflammation of the vulva and vagina due to yeast, bacteria, viruses, parasites, or skin care products. Vulvovaginitis
___ inflammation of the kidney. Nephritis
___ abnormal condition of the kidney Nephrosis
The coding category for Pregnancy, Childbirth, and Puerperium is? 000-09A
___ a membrane that surrounds the embryo; also called the ____? amniotic sac, amnion
___ the time period from conception to the beginning of labor. prenatal
prenatal is also referred to as ____, _____, or _____. prepartum, antepartum, or antenatal period.
____ the period of true labor and active delivery; also called _____. childbirth, parturition
____ the outer layer of the membrane that surrounds the amnion chorion
___ the fertilization of the female ova by the male sperm. conception
___ the expulsion of the fetus and placenta from the uterus delivery
___ 2 embryos developed from separate zygotes, resulting in each embryo having its own amnion and chorion. dichorionic-diamniotic (didi)
___ outside the uterus. ectopic
__ the anticipated due date of a pregnant woman determined by counting 40 weeks from the last menstrual period (LMP) estimated date of delivery (EDD)
__ the number of weeks and days since the last menstrual period estimated gestational age (EGA)
___ a cause of obstructed labor due to a mismatch between the size of the fetal head and the mothers pelvic brim; also called _______. cephalopelvic disproportion, fetopelvic disproportion
____ the time during a pregnancy when the gestational age is less than 14 weeks, 0 days first trimester
___ a condition that is first diagnosed during pregnancy gestational condition
__ a woman who has had 5 or more previous pregnancies resulting in a viable fetus grand multipara
___ the number of pregnancies a woman has had. gravida
___ the last menstrual period that a woman has before becoming pregnant, which is used to determine the estimated date of delivery last menstrual period (LMP)
____ multiple fetuses sharing the same amnion. monoamniotic
___ multiple fetuses sharing the same chorion. monochorionic
___ a pregnancy that involves more than one fetus. multiple gestation
__ the presentation of a fetus in which the back of the baby's head is slightly off center in the pelvis, with the back of the head towards the mothers left thigh. Occipitoanterior (OA)
___ the number of pregnancies resulting in a fetus of viable gestational age (20 weeks), regardless of whether the fetus was alive at birth. para
__ birth partum
___ the period comprising the last month of pregnancy to 5 months postpartum. peripartum
___ the organ that allows for the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste between the fetus and mother placenta
___ the 6 week period following childbirth in which the female reproductive organs return to the prepregnant state; also called ___ or _____. Puerperium, puerperal, or postpartum
___ a normal temporary condition that occurs in the female body, beginning at the time of conception and ending with the birth of a fetus pregnancy
__ the development of hypertension after 20 weeks gestation in a woman who previously was not diagnosed with hypertension also called _____ gestational hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension
___ the time in a pregnancy when the gestational age is between 14 weeks, 0 days and less that 28 weeks, 0 days. second trimester
___ a pregnancy with one fetus singleton
__ the time in a pregnancy when the gestational age is between 28 weeks, 0 days, and delivery. third trimester
___ a description of parity that identifies the number of term births (T), preterm births (P), spontaneous or induced abortions (A), and living children. TPAL
__ the period during which the uterine contracts the cervix dilates. true labor
___ a fertilized egg zygote
anti-__ against
ante-____ before
dystocia- ___ difficult labor
dyspnea-___ difficulty breathing
mastalgia-____ breast pain
mastitis-_____ inflammation of the breast.
____- any of a wide range of disorders in which a fetus has an abnormal number of chromosomes or a structural abnormality in one or more chromosomes. chromosomal abnormality
_____- convulsions occurring during pregnancy or the Puerperium associated with preclampsia eclampsia
_____- severe preeclampsia with Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. HELLP syndrome
____ fertilization of an ova in a laboratory dish, followed by introduction into the uterus. In Vitro fertilization (IVF)
____ a metabolic disorder of pregnancy that develops after the 20th week and involves gestational hypertension and proteinuria. preeclampsia
___ a condition in which mother is RH negative and develops antibodies against a fetus that is RH positive. Rhesus (RH) incompatibility
____- a delievery of the fetus using mechanical assistance, such as forceps or vacuum extractor; pharmacologic assistance, such as drugs to induce labor; or medical assistance, such as manual rotation of the fetal position. assisted delivery
___- a cause of obstructed labor due to a mismatch between the size of the fetal head and the mothers pelvic brim; also called ______ cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD), fetopelvic disproportion
____- delivery of the fetus by making a surgical incision into the abdominal wall and uterus; also called ______ Cesarean delivery, abdominal delivery
___- extraction of a fetus from the birth canal by grasping the head with forceps (tongs). Forceps delivery
___- any presentation of the fetus other than Occipitoanterior (OA) malposition of fetus
____- vaginal delivery without mechanical, pharmacologic, or medical assistance normal spontaneous vaginal birth (NSVB)
___- the condition of the umbilical cord becoming wrapped around the neck of the fetus. nuchal cord
___ labor in which the fetus cannot progress into the birth canal, despite adequate uterine contractions, due to a physical blockage. obstructed labor
___- a scarring of the placenta due to inadequate blood supply. placental infarction
____- pain at the back of the pelvis pelvic girdle pain (PGP)
___- a condition in which the placenta partially or fully covers the cervix, posing a risk that it may separate from the wall of the uterus during labor. placenta previa
___- the rupture of the amniotic sac and chorion before the onset of labor. premature rupture of membranes (PROM)
___- repeated changes in the fetal position during or after the 36t week of pregnancy unstable lie
___ delivery through the vagina after having a cesarean delivery in a previous pregnancy vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)
___- Delivery of the fetus from the uterus through the cervix to the vagina (birth canal) vaginal birth
___- moderate to severe depression after giving birth. postpartum depression
___ - excessive bleeding following the delivery. postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)
___- sudden dramatic onset of psychotic symptoms after giving birth, often occurring in patients with bipolar disorder. Postpartum psychosis
____- bacterial infection of a cesarean delivery wound. postpartum wound infection
___- inflammation or infection of the mammary gland in the breast during the postpartum period. puerperal mastitis.
can a patient have both preexisting and gestational diabetes? no
can a patient have both preexisting hypertension and gestational hypertension. no
index group codes for pregnancy are under the main term. pregnancy
index group for labor and delivery are under the main term. labor and delivery
___ any of a wide range of disorders in which a fetus has an abnormal number of chromosomes or a structural abnormality in one or more chromosomes. chromosomal abnormality
___- a change in the size or shape of a structure due to physical forces. deformation
___- a blood disorder that occurs when the blood types of a mother and baby are incompatible ; also called ______. erythroblastosis fetalis, hemolytic disease of the newborn
___- a permanent abnormal shape of an organ or body region, resulting from arrested, delayed, or abnormal development of an embryo. malformation
___ death before 29 days of age. neonatal mortality
___ an infant during the first 28 days of life; also called a ____ neonate, newborn
___ a code that identifies the location of birth, the delivery method, and the number of multiplies. newborn birth status
_____- a condition in where the newborn needs clinical evaluation, therapeutic treatment, diagnostic procedures, extended length of hospital stay, and increased nursing care or monitoring or presents implications for future health care needs. newborn clinically significant condition
____- a condition that develops before birth or during the first 28 days after birth, but excludes malformations, deformations and chromosomal abnormalities. perinatal condition
____- the time before birth that continues through the 28th day following birth. perinatal period
___ - temporary transitory
omphal/o- umbilicus or navel
oophor/o- ovary
amni/o- amniotic sac
ammon/o- ammonium
amin/o- amino acid
___- infection or inflammation of the amniotic sac. amnionitis
___- an evaluation of a newborn's physical condition, performed 1 and 5 minutes after birth, to determine any immediate need for extra medical or emergency care. apgar score
___ a fetus or newborn infant whose size is within the normal range for his or her gestational age. appropriate for gestational age (AGA)
___ any physical injury to the infant during delivery. Birth trauma
____- the temporary enlargement of breasts on female or male newborns, due to high levels of maternal hormones in the infants blood. breast engorgement
___- a collection of symptoms of drug withdrawal in an infant who was exposed to narcotics in the uterus; also called ______. drug withdrawal syndrome, neonatal abstinence syndrome
___- birth weight more than 4,500 grams (9 lbs, 15ounces) exceptionally large newborn
___- birth weight of less than 1,000 grams (2 pounds, 3 ounces) extremely low birth weight.
___- inadequate physical growth marked by child's weight for age below the fifth percentile of the standard growth chart. failure to thrive (FTT)
___- a blood disorder that occurs when the blood types of a mother and a baby are incompatible. Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
___- birth weight greater than 4,000 grams (8 pounds, 13 ounces) high birth weight (HBW)
____- high concentration of bilirubin in the blood, which causes the infants skin and sclera to turn yellow. Hyperbilirubinemia
___- an infant born to a woman who is diabetic. Infant of diabetic mother
___- poor growth of a baby while in the mothers womb during pregnancy. specifically, it means the developing baby weighs less than 90% of other babies at the same gestational age. Intrauterine growth restriction
___- bleeding in the brain in very low birth weight premature babies, which usually resolves within a few days. intraventricular hemorrhage
___- a condition due to high bilirubin that causes the skin and parts of the eyes to turn a yellow color. Jaundice
___ a fetus or newborn infant who is larger in size than normal for the baby's sex and gestational age, most commonly defined as weight, length, or head circumference above the 90th percentile at gestational age. Large for gestational age _LGA)
___- birth weight less than 2,500 grams (5lbs, 8 ounces) Low birth weight
___ condition in which the newborn breathes a mixture of meconium and amniotic fluid into the lungs prior to or during delivery. Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
____- infection of the peritoneal cavity due to perforation of the bowel and leakage of meconium. Meconium peritonitis
____- An infant with blood type A or B affected by comingling of type O blood from mother with blood type O. Newborn ABO incompatibility
____- A condition in which the alveolar sacs collapse due to lack of surfactant. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
___- The abnormal growth of blood vessels in the eye that can lead to vision loss. Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
____- A fetus or newborn infant who is smaller in size than normal for the baby's sex and gestational age, most commonly defined as weight, length, or head circumference below the 10th percentile for the gestational age. Small for gestational age (SGA)
_____- short-term condition less than 24 hours of rapid breathing sue to retained lung fluid that occurs shortly after birth in full term or near term newborns. Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)
___- birth weight of less than 1,500 grams (3 pounds, 4 ounces) Very low birth weight (VLBW)
when discharge includes the birth place, assign a code from category ___. Z38
When a newborn is transferred from another hospital , the hospital where the infant was born will report a code from category ___. Z38
For a newborn birth status look for the code under main term ____ and sub term ______. newborn, born
For multiple births look for the code under main term ___ and sub term _____. newborn, twin, triplet ect.
The code for outcome of delivery is ____ Z37
The code ____ is for the mother and the code ____ is for the newborn. Z37, Z38
with main term newborn only use the sub term ____ when the newborn is specifically affected by a condition. Affect by
Under main term newborn only use the sub term ___ when you are describing the effect on a newborn from a condition that the mother has during pregnancy, labor, or delivery. maternal
With the main term newborn the sub term ____ means that the condition was temporary. Transitory
For routine neonatal exams are coded/ reported with ___ codes. Z
For examinations is under main term ___ and sub term ____. Newborn, examination
Routine examinations for infants over 28 days should be coded as ____ for encounter for routine child health examination Z00.12
Birth status of infant code is ____. Z38
Birth weight is main term ___ and sub term___ Low, birth weight
Birth weight code is __ or ___ P07.0 or P07.1
Weeks of gestation main term is ___ sub term ___. Preterm, newborn
Weeks of gestations code is ___ or ___ P07.2 or P07.3
The coding category for Congenital Malformations Deformations, and Chromosomal Abnormalities is? Q00-Q99
_____- embryonic development of a structure that occurred on schedule but took on an uncommon physical variation or development in the womb. abnormal development
___ -a permanent abnormal shape of an organ or body region, resulting from arrested. anomaly
____- embryonic development of a structure that stopped before it should have. arrested development
___ a specific type of perinatal condition that originates during pregnancy or the first 28 congenital abnormality
___- the embryonic development of a structure that is started late or progress slowly. delayed development
Hydrocele-___ bulge of fluid
hydrocephalus- ___ water or fluid in the head/brain
polydactyly-____ many fingers or toes
syndactyly-____ webbed fingers or toes
____- a narrowing of the aorta aortic coarctation
____- a notch or division of the upper lip or roof of the mouth. cleft lip or palate
_____- disruption in the normal relationship between the head of the femur and the acetabulum (hip socket) developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
___- a genetic condition in which a person has 47 chromosomes instead of the usual 46, also called trisomy 21. down syndrome
___- an abnormal ring of tissue around the esophagus esophageal ring
___- a buildup of fluid inside the skill hydrocephalus
____- excessive collection of urine in the kidneys. Hydronephrosis
____- a congenital condition in which the opening of the urethra is on the underside, rather than the end, of the penile shaft, and may be located as far down as in the scrotum or perineum. hypospadias
_____- a genetic disorder of the connective tissue characterized by elongated bones and ocular and circulatory defects. marfan diverticulum
____- a congenital bulge in the intestine caused by a remnant of the embryonic yolk stalk. meckel diverticulum
___- an opening in the septum between the two atria of the heart. patent foramen ovale
____- a genetic disorder due to a deletion of paternal chrom 15 and characterized by short stature, intellectual disability, muscle weakness, abnormally small hands and feet, nonfunctioning gonads, and uncontrolled appetite leading to extreme obesity. Prader-willi syndrome
___-abnormal position of the femur or tibia. rotational deformities
___ a birth defect in which the backbone and spinal canal do not close before birth. spina bifida
___- a congenital heart defect consisting of four malformations; pulmonary stenosis, ventricle septal defect, dextraposition or overriding aorta, and hypertrophy of the right ventricle. tetralogy of fallot
___- a condition in which the aorta and pulmonary artery are switched, preventing pulmonary circulation. transposition of the great vessels.
___- a genetic disorder in which a person has 3 copies, rather than 2 of genetic material. trisomy
___- a set of four congenital defects; a supravalve mitral membrane (SVMM), parachute mitral valve, subaortic stenosis, and coarctation of the aorta shone syndrome
when coding for down syndrome use code ___. Q90.
1. Which one of the following choices is an example of an ICD-10 diagnosis code? A. I50.21 B. 428.0 C. E0465 D. 44380 A
2. A nursin home patient has a pressure ulcer of the right buttock due to being bedridden. Which of the following Main Terms would a coder look up in the index when assigning the principal diagnosis? A. Ulcer B. Pressure C. Buttock D. Bedridden A
3. An undetermined type of poisoning due to Trimeton would be coded to which one of the following groups? A. T45.0X1. B. T45.0X2. C. T45.0X3. D. T45.0X4. not A
4. A patient is being seen for a hernia at a colostomy site. Which ICD-10-CM code(s) should be assigned? A. Z43.3 B. Z93.3 C. K94.03 D. 0D1H0Z4 C
5. What degree is a burn if it completely damages the epidermis and then part of the dermis? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Need more information B
6. A patient is seen for synovium rupture in the right shoulder and right elbow. Which of the following choices is the correct code and sequencing for this scenario? A. M66.111 B. M66.121 C. M66.111, M66.121 D. M66.121, M66.111 C
7. Which of the following episodes of care indicates that the patient received active treatment for an injury during the current encounter? A. Initial B. Subsequent C. Sequela D. Status A
8. A pt was admitted to the hosp. w/ slurred speech, facial droopin & left arm weakness. On discharge the physician doc possible stroke What should be listed as the principal dx? A. Slured spech B. Facial droopin C. Left arm weakness D. Stroke D
9. Which 1 of the followin choices is defined as the condition established after study to be chiefly resp for occasionin the admission of the patient to the hospital? A. Principal procedure B. Principal dx C. Secondary dx D. Secondary procedure B
10. Which one of the following choices is a tissue replacement using tissue from another person? A. Autograft B. Allograft C. Xenograft D. Synthetic B
11. A negative physical reaction is coded as a(n) A. adverse effect. B. complication. C. misadventure. D. external cause. A
12. Neoplasms of the endocrine system appear in which code set? A. E00–E89 B. C00–C49 C. L00–L99 D. M00–M99 B
13. A living patient is donating a kidney. Which one of the following diagnosis codes indicates a kidney donor? A. Z31.5 B. Z34.01 C. Z52.4 D. Z28.01 C
14.A pt sprains her ankle, but under ankle, theres a note that states see condition. Which 1 of the followin Main Terms should the coder look up 1st wen tryin to find the code 4 ankle sprain? A. Condition B. Ankle C. Sprain D. Term B
15. Which term means “to spread and invade organs”? A. Neoplasm B. Malignant C. Metastasize D. CA in situ C
16.a doc documents hx of breast cancer, which is the corect way to search the index for the code assignment? A. Hx>personal>malignant neoplasm B.Malignant>neoplasm>hx C.Neoplasm >hx> personal D.Personal >hx> neoplasm A
17. Which one of the following ICD-10-CM codes indicates a malignant neoplasm of the prostate? A. C78.5 B. D38.1 C. D23.5 D. C61 D
18.A pt sees a doc 4 management of type 2 diabetes. She also has peripheral neuropathy. Which 1 of the followin choices is the correct code and sequencing for this encounter? A.G62.9 B.E11.9 C.G62.9 as principal, E11.9 as second D.E11.9 as princip D
19. A patient has received one test that indicated hyperglycemia. How should it be coded? A. Abnormal test result B. Hyperglycemia C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus B
20. A patient presents with a fractured radius that is protruding through the skin due to a fall off of a skateboard. This fracture would probably be coded as A. pathological. B. open. C. closed. D. nondisplaced B
21. When sequencing burn codes, what should be sequenced first? A. The burn over the largest area B. The burn listed first in the physician documentation C. The highest degree of burn D.Any burn can be listed 1st when mult burns are being coded C
22. What is the correct code for Crohn’s disease of the large intestine with abscess? A. K50 B. K50.1 C. K50.11 D. K50.114 D
23. When the coding manual index doesn’t provide one code for multiple sites, then assign A. a combination code. B. sequence the combination code first. C.only one main site code. D.as many separate codes as need to cover all sites D
24. Which one of the following ICD-10-CM codes is an example of a sign or symptom code? A. I50.2 B. R30.0 C. K36 D. S72.03 B
25. If a physician documents “metastatic cancer in lung, liver, and bone,” what’s the primary cancer site? A. Bone B. Liver C. Lung D. Unknown D
26. A patient comes into an office to have allergens applied to his skin to see if reactions occur. This is called A. patch testing. B. biopsy. C. culture. D. xenograft. A
27. A patient sees a doctor for diabetic cataracts. He also has diabetic neuropathic arthropathy. How many codes will be assigned for this encounter? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 not a
28.A pt was admitted for surgical removal of a neoplasm w/ adjunct chemo. While in the hospital, the patient’s COPD and hypertension were also monitored. Which dx should be coded as the principal dx? A.Neoplasm B.COPD C.Hypertension D.Chemo A
29. In the pt record is documented diabetes w/ gastroparesis. What ICD-10 dx code should u assign as the princ dx? A.1 code 4 diabetes B.1 code for gastroparesis C.1 combination code for the diabetes & gastroparesis D.Additional info is required C
30.On May 15, the physician documents “Hypertension based on multiple elevated blood pressure readings from March, April & May. you should assign code 4 A.elevated blood pressure readings & hypertension B.hypertension C.hypertension 4 March, April B
31. What is the first step in ICD-10-CM diagnosis coding? A. Review the operative or procedure report for procedure codes. (no) B. Note the patient’s gender. C.Review documentation to identify dx D.Document if the pt is an inpt or an outpatient Not A or D
32. Which of the following is the most common cancer of the musculoskeletal system? A. BC B. SCC C. MBD D. MS C
33. When coding burns for multiple sites, it’s important to remember to assign A. separate codes for each burn site. B. only one main burn code. C. only one combination code. D. one code only for the highest degree of burn. A
34. Symptoms that most patients experience with a given condition are known as A. integral symptoms. B. related symptoms. C. unrelated symptoms. D. uncertain diagnoses. A
35. The organ that receives a hormone is classified as the A. exocrine organ. B. serum assay. C. target organ. D. HHNS. C
36. Which one of the following code sets describes the circumstances or events that caused a medical problem or an injury? A. V00–V99 B. Z00–Z99 C. R00–R99 D. C00–D49 A
37. If the ends of a fractured bone segment didn’t heal with proper alignment, then it’s called A. pathologic. B. traumatic. C. nonunion. D. malunion. D
38. A patient with type 1 diabetes comes into the office for wound care of a diabetic foot ulcer with muscle necrosis on the heel of the left foot. Which dx code is sequenced 1st? A.Type 1 diabetes B.Combination code 4 type 1 diabetes w/ foot ulcer B
39. A patient overdoses on a prescription drug because he was accidentally following the incorrect doses set by the physician. This incident would be classified as a(n) A. adverse effect. B. poisoning. C. underdosing. D. toxic effect. B
40. In the ICD-10-CM coding manual, an instructional note at the beginning of a category applies to A. codes before the category. B. all codes in that category. C. codes in the previous category. D. codes in the next category. B
41. A 61-year-old female patient is seen for a pathological fracture of the femur due to age-related osteoporosis. It’s best to start with which Main Term when searching the ICD-10-CM coding manual? A. Pathological B.Fracture C.Osteoporosis D.Femur B
42.Which 1 of the followin choices is a result of usin external cause codes? A.Higher reimbursement 4 hosp. B.More complicated code assignments C.Ability to track who is at fault 4 medical costs D.Database of nationally required mandatory reportin Not B or D
43. In ICD-10-CM, which one of the following choices is a code placeholder that has no meaning? A. Z B. 0 C. –51 D. X D
44. If a pressure ulcer is damaged to the full thickness of the dermis and into the subcutaneous tissue, it’s classed as which stage? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. Need more information C
45. Which one of the following choices is the correct code for osteochondropathy of the elbow and ankle? A. M93.90 B. M93.97- C. M93.92- D. M93.99 D
46. When coding the ICD-10-CM diagnosis submandibular salivary gland abscess, what’s the best Main Term to look up? A. Submandibular B. Salivary C. Gland D. Abscess D
47. John Doe visits a physician office for a required pre-employment examination for a new job. Which diagnosis code should be assigned? A. Z00.110 B. Z02.1 C. Z00.00 D. Z08 Not A or C
48. Neoplasms of the integumentary system are covered under which code set? A. L00–L99 B. C43–C44 C. E00–E89 D. M00–M99 B
49. A patient comes to the physician’s office for a prophylactic vaccination. What diagnosis code set will the patient code from in this instance? A. A codes B. Y codes C. R codes D. Z codes D
50. A patient previously smoked for 14 years, but no longer smokes. Which one of the following choices is the correct ICD-10-CM code for history of tobacco use? A. Z72.0 B. F17 C. Z87.891 D. V15.82 C
51. Nausea and pain are both examples of A. signs. B. symptoms. C. abnormal laboratory tests. D. abnormal clinical findings. B
52. When should an external cause code be assigned for intent and cause? A. Only when it’s listed as the principal diagnosis B. Only as the principal procedure C. Once for the initial mention D. Every time the pt receives treatment 4 the injury D
53. The principal diagnosis code for arthritis of the right elbow due to Staphylococcus is reported as which of the following? A. M76.6- B. M00.021 C. B95.61 D. M86.612 B
54. A patient is admitted for treatment of malignant neoplasm of the bladder that has metastasized to the uterus, ovaries, and rectum. What should be sequenced first? A. Bladder B. Uterus C. Ovaries D. Rectum A
55. Digestive system neoplasms appear in which code set? A. C00–D49 B. K00–K95 C. E00–E89 D. L00–L99 A
56. When a primary malignancy has been surgically removed, but the patient is still receiving treatment, which code should be assigned first? A. Personal hx of malignant neoplasm B.Encounter 4 therapy C.Neoplasm(as if it existed) D.Secondary site Not B
57. A code used to designate cooking or swinging on a swing is an example of a(n) A. status code. B. place of occurrence. C. activity code. D. intent. C
58. When coding stress fractures and soft-tissue disorders caused by overuse or pressure, it’s important to remember to A. assign only one code B.sequence the external cause as principal C.code also the external cause D.not assign an activity code C
1. Transient left ventricular apical ballooning syndrome is coded to which ICD-10-CM code? A. I51.5 B. I51.7 C. I51.81 D. I51.89 C
3. A diagnosis of acute serous otitis media in both ears is coded as A. H65.00. B. H65.01. C. H65.02. D. H65.03. D
4.Preterm newborn, 28 gestational weeks completed, is coded as A. P07.3. B. P07.30. C. P07.31. D. P07.37. C
6. Which one of the following choices is the correct code for Tetralogy of Fallot? A. Q21 B. Q21.1 C. Q21.2 D. Q21.3 D
7. The inability to distinguish between thoughts and reality, think logically, and have normal emotional and social relationships is coded to A. F20.0–F20.5. B. F25.-. C. F60.1. D. F21. A
8. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus can be located in the index under A. aureus. B. methicillin. C. MSSA. D. MRSA. D
9. How should an initial myocardial infarction that occurred within the past four weeks be classified? A. Current MI B. Subsequent MI C. Old MI D. NSTEMI A
11. A patient is being seen for management of anemia associated with an adverse effect of radiotherapy for a neoplasm. Which diagnosis code should be sequenced first? A. Anemia B. Adverse effect C. Radiotherapy D. Neoplasm A
12. Which one of the following choices is a toxic blood condition caused by the inability of the kidneys to remove nitrogenous substances from the blood? A. Acute kidney failure B. Cystitis C. Uremia D. Incontinence C
13. Which one of the following choices is a metabolic disorder of pregnancy that develops after the twentieth week & is characterized by gestational hypertension & proteinuria? A.Eclampsia B.Gestational hypertension C.Preeclampsia D.Rh incompatibility C
15. When coding circulatory system diseases, codes must be specific to A. anatomic site. B. nature of disease. C. comorbidities. D. anatomic site, nature of disease, and comorbidities. D
16. A patient had a failed attempted vaginal birth after having a previous C-section. How is this coded? A. O66.40 B. O66.41 C. O66.8 D. O66.9 B
17. A congenital anomaly of buildup of fluid inside the skull is diagnosed as A. hydrocele. B. hydrocephalus. C. hydronephrosis. D. hypospadias. B
18. Which one of the following choices is a virus that can cause cervical cancer? A. HIV B. HPV C. MORO D. TB B
19. Persistent asthma with mild status asthmaticus is coded to A. J45.30. B. J45.32. C. J45.42. D. J45.52. B
23. Persistent inflexible patterns of behavior affecting interpersonal relationships can be categorized as which disorder? A. Anxiety B. Dissociative C. Personality D. Somatoform C
25. Male sexually transmitted diseases are covered under which code range? A. A00–B99 B. N00–N99 C. O00–09A D. P00–P96 A
26. Neoplasms of the respiratory system are coded to which section? A. J00–J99 B. C30–C39 C. J00–J20 D. C27–C30 B
27.A pt has been dx w/ ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). How should this be coded? A.1 for the VAP, & code the organism B.combo code $ the VAP & organism C.1 code for the VAP D.A code for the VAP, code for the infectious organism & code J12-J18 A
28. Which of the following choices refers to inflammation of the female reproductive tract above the cervix? A. CIN B. SIL C. PID D. BPH C
30. A patient has asthma with COPD. Which of the following indicates the diagnoses that should be coded? A.code for the acute asthma B.code for the COPD C.combo code that includes asthma&COPD D.code for the COPD& an additional code for type of asthma C
31. How are codes for cleft palate assigned? A. Bilateral B. Unilateral C. Anatomic site D. Complete C
32. A physician documents PGP. This condition would be coded as A. obstructed labor. B. pelvic girdle pain. C. placental infarction. D. VBAC. B
34. patient has insufficient oxygen passing from the lungs to the blood due to hypercapnia. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A. ARDS B. ARF C. COPD D. VAP B
37. When an ear condition results from an adverse effect of a drug, what should be coded? A.Only the ear B.Only the adverse effect of the drug C.1st the ear, followed by the adverse effect D.1st the adverse effect followed by the ear condition C
38. Kidney damage with a mild reduction in kidney function occurs in which stage of chronic kidney disease? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 B
39. What is the cross-referencing instruction in the index for nephritic syndrome? A. See also disease B. See also nephritis C. Code first underlying disease D. Code first chronic kidney disease B
40. A patient has a diagnosis code of agranulocytic anemia. In the ICD-10-CM coding manual, under what term would the actual code appear? A. Anemia B. Agranulocytic C. Agranulocytosis D. Need more information A
21. Diabetic eye disorders are coded to which code set? A. H00–H59 B. E00–E89 C. F01–F99 D. G00–G99 B
42.A pt is bein seen for classic migraine w/ associated seizure. What dx should be reported, what is the code sequence? A.only for classical migraine B.only for the seizure C. combo code 4 migraine&seizure D.classical migraine then associated seizure D
44. A patient indicates that she has one glass of wine twice a week. It’s not creating any medical or personal issues in her life. This would be classified as which substance category? A. Use B. Abuse C. Dependence D. In remission A
45. Diseases of the blood are coded to which section? A. I00–I99 B. Q00–Q99 C. D50–D89 D. G00–G99 C
46.When assignin a code for Down syndrome, what should a coder always remember? A.assign a code for Tetralogy of Fallot B.code for atrial septal defect w/ DS C.assign the degree of intellectual or physical conditions D.Never assign from F70–F79 w/ DS C
20. A patient is seen for senile entropion of the right and left upper eyelids. How many total codes will be assigned to cover these conditions? A. 1 no B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 B
22. A patient has the diagnosis of end stage renal disease requiring chronic dialysis. Which of the following illustrates the best way to code and sequence this scenario? A. N18.6 B. Z99.2 (NO) C. N18.6, Z99.2 D. Z99.2, N18.6 C
48. A patient is being seen for bipolar disorder with a current depressed episode. Which term should the coder look up first in the index? A. Disorder B. Bipolar C. Current episode D. Depression A
49. How are causal agents coded? A. Only as a secondary diagnosis B. Only as a principal diagnosis C. Only as a combination code D. Only as an organism A
2. A patient has sickle cell anemia with associated fever. What is the correct way to code and sequence this scenario? A. Sickle cell anemia only B. Fever only C.Combo code for sickle cell anemia D.Sickle cell anemia w/ code for associated fever D
10.A pt has sepsis w/ associated acute organ dysfunction. How should the sepsis be coded? A.acute sepsis B.severe sepsis C.acute organ dysfunction sepsis as a combo code D.Query the physician to see if it should be coded as severe sepsis D
50. A patient is being seen for inflammation of the pinna. This diagnosis would be coded to which of the following choices? A. Eye B. Ear C. Nervous system and sense organs D. Disorders involving the immune mechanism B
52. How should you code neoplasm and anemia? A. Code only the neoplasm B. Assign a combination code that covers the neoplasm with anemia C. List first the neoplasm, followed by the anemia D. List first the anemia, followed by the neoplasm C
5. What is important to remember when assigning codes from P05? A. Don’t assign additional codes from P07 with P05. B.Dont assign from P05 for slow fetal growth C.Dont assign from P05 for fetal malnutrition D.Dont assign from P05 for full-term infants A
43. Which one of the following choices is a collection of pain conditions that lasts more than six months and that doesn’t respond to treatment? A. ALS B. CPS C. RSD D. PD B
54. What code category is always sequenced as the principal diagnosis on a newborn’s record? A. P36.19 B. Z38 C. P07.0 D. P22.1 B
The physician has documented a female patient’s condition as G2 P1. This means that the woman A. is currently pregnant and has had one other pregnancy. B. has had two other pregnancy events. C. has been pregnant only once. D.has had one miscarriage A
24. A patient has a personal history of a congenital malformation. Which Main Term should first be searched in the coding index? A. Personal B. History C. Congenital D. Malformation B
29. If a condition isn’t noted as whether it’s congenital or acquired, how should it be coded? A. As congenital B. As acquired C. Using the default code in the coding manual D. However the physician states it should be coded C
Migraine with acute-onset aura, not intractable, is coded to A. G43.1 B. G43.10 C. G43.109 D. G43.101 C
36. What is E. coli is an example of? A. Fungus B. Protozoa C. Virus D. Bacteria D
14. A male patient is diagnosed with EP with LUTS and urinary frequency. What is the correct code(s) for this diagnosis? A. N40.0 B. N40.0, N40.1 C. N40.0, R35.0 D
38. Congenital diseases of the circulatory system are coded to which section? A. I00–I99 B. Q00–Q99 C. D50–D89 D. G00–G99 B
Created by: xokitty17xo