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goup 7 part 1

medical billing and coding ashworth

____to read the medical record and determine which elements of the encounter require codes abstract
___ to place codes in the order dictated by the OGCR and instructional notes arrange
___ to determine codes that accurately describe a patient's condition, reflect the highest level of specificity possible, and contain the correct number of characters for that code. assign
___ a contiguous range of codes within a chapter block (icd-10-cm)
___ three characters in length category (icd-10-cm)
____ a subdivision od icd-10-cm that includes codes for a body system or related condition chapter (icd-10-cm)
___ the facts, signs, and symptoms that require an admission circumstances of admission
___ those conditions defined by the uniform hospital data discharge set (UHDDS) as "all condition that coexist at the time of admission, that develop subsequently, or that affect the treatment received and/or length of stay. clinically significant conditions
___ the final level of subdivision code (icd-10-cm)
___ the sequence of main terms and sub terms a coder must search in the index in order to locate the code. coding path
__ 2 or more conditions described by a single code combination code
__ the use of symbols, typeface, and layout features to succinctly convey interpretive information convention
__ the group that oversees all changes, which must be consistent with who's icd-10 coordination and maintenance committee
___ a code that may represent a condition most commonly associated with a main term, or it may represent the unspecified code for a condition, which usually ends in 9 default code
___ named after a person eponym
___ also means cause etiology
___ the diagnosis, condition, problem, or other reason for an encounter shown in the medical record to be chiefly responsible for the services provided. first-listed diagnosis
____a federal interdepartmental committee that oversees all icd-10-cm changes. four cooperating parties
__ the first encounter by the admitting physician during the current admission initial encounter
__ official coding directions throughout the icd-10- cm manual instructional note (icd-10-cm)
___ text that appears in parentheses after a code description; directs the user to alternative codes for closely related procedures or to codes that must or must not be used together instructional note cpt
___ a problem that occurs after active healing is completed late effect
___ the primary index entry main term
___ a sign or symptom manifestation
___ the use of two or more codes that are needed to fully describe a condition multiple coding
____ a word included in the default description of a code and does not need to be present in the medical record in order to use the code nonessential modifier
____ rules that provide information and direction in identifying the icd-9-cm and icd-10-cm diagnoses and icd-10-pcs procedures to be reported. official guidelines for coding and reporting (OGCR)
___ as defined by the uniform hospital data discharge set (UHDDS), the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care. principal diagnosis
___ all conditions that coexist at the time of admission, that develop subsequently, or that affect the treatment received and/or the length of stay. relevant
___ a late effect or problem after active healing is completed Sequela
___ the placement of codes in the order dictated by the guidelines and instructual notes Sequence
___ each level of subdivision after s category and before a code; ether 4 or 5 characters Subcategory (icd-10-cm)
___ a contiguous range of codes within a chapter Subcategory
___ treatment during the healing process Subsequent (icd-10-cm)
___ a word indented under each main term that further describes the main term in greater detail, such as an anatomic location or other disease variation. Subterm
___ Diagnosis preceded by the words probable, possible, ect. Uncertain diagnoses
Icd 9 code length 3 to 5 digits
Icd 10 code length 3 to 7 characters
Icd 9 code structure 3 digit category, 4th and 5th digits for etiology.
Icd 10 code structure 3 character category 4,5,6 characters for etiology, anatomic site, severity 7 character for additional information
Icd 9 first character Always numeric, except e and v codes
Icd 10 first character Always alphabetic
Icd 9 subsequent characters All numeric
Icd 10 subsequent characters 2nd character is always numeric, all other characters may be alphabetic or numeric
Icd 9 decimal point Mandatory after 3rd character, except e codes, where decimal points is after 4th character.
Icd 10 decimal point Mandatory after 3rd character on all codes
Icd 9 7th character None
Icd 10 7th character Some codes use a 7th character to provide additional information
Icd 9 place holders None
Icd 10 placeholder X is used as a placeholder on certain 6 and 7 character codes
() nonessential modifiers that describe the default vitiation of a term.
an incomplete term that requires more than one modifier is what symbol : (colon)
the codes in this should be sequenced 2nd [ ] (square brackets)
means and/or and
index/ main terms. code titles will be in boldface (heavy type)
when more than one code may be required to fully describe the condition you would see code also
___ when the medical record contains additional details about the condition, but there is not a more specific code available to use NEC (not elsewhere classifiable)
__ information to assign a more specific code is not available in the medical record NOS (Not otherwise specified)
____ it is necessary to reference another main term or condition to locate the correct code. See
___: Coder may refer to an alternative or additional main term if the desired entry is not found under the original main term See also
___: in a code title, means both or together With
____ : means that all codes beginning with L89 and ending in 0 ( - - )
The main reason for the services provided 1st listed diagnosis
do not code signs and symptoms when diagnosis is known
do not code uncertain diagnosis which will be represented with things like possible, probably, ect.
do code signs and symptoms when the diagnosis is uncertain
do code additional conditions and signs or symptoms that are not part of the confirmed disease process
do not code conditions that are resolved, or not treated
chief complaint is the reason for encounter for outpatients or reason for admission for inpatients
Neoplasms are indexed in the table of neoplasms located under n in the index of diseases and injuries
poisonings, adverse effects, and under dosing caused by drugs and chemicals are indexed in the icd-10 table of drugs and chemicals.
___: at the end of an index entry indicates that additional characters are required. a short dash (-)
____: cancerous tumor of a gland adenocarcinoma
___ additional treatments when more than one type of treatment is used adjuvant therapy
___: malignant or benign behavior tumor
___: not life threatening benign
___: cells that have begun to change but are contained within the epithelial layer CA in situ
___ : a malignant tumor of epithelial cells, which line body cavities and organs; synonymous with carcinoma cancer (CA)
___ : a malignant tumor of epithelial cells, which line body cavities and organs carcinoma
___ a neoplasm diagnosed at late stage after it has metastasized and for which a physician is unable to determine the site of origin Carcinoma of unknown primary (CUP)
___ the characteristics or appearance of a cell cell type
___ a treatment that directs precise doses of x-ray beams at specific sites in order to kill or shrink tumors and cancerous cells external radiotherapy
___ the condition(s) that a patient's family member had in the past or currently has that causes the patient to be at higher risk of also contracting or developing the disease family history
___ type of tissues histology
___ the use of radioactive pellets or containers within a body cavity to target a malignant area internal radiotherapy
__ a malignant disease of the blood forming organs, does not produce tumors leukemia
__ life threatening malignant
__ to spread or invade organs other than that of origin Metastasize
__ an abnormal growth of new tissue neoplasm
__ a physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of tumors oncologist
__ contiguous sites where a tumor continues from one site to an adjacent one without interruption overlapping lesion
__ a condition a patient had in the past, was removed or resolved, and is no longer being treated, but has the potential for recurrence and therefore may require continued monitorin personal history
__ a tumor in which malignant cells break through the epithelial membrane into an organ primary malignant neoplasm
___ future knowledge; the expected course of the disease prognosis
___ the site or metastasis where a neoplasm spreads to secondary (malignant neoplasm)
___ the anatomic site where a growth begins site or origin
___ the process of determining how far a cancer has spread staging
___ the anatomic site where a growth beings topography
Benign neoplasm grows __ slowly
Malignant neoplasm grow __ rapidly
Benign neoplasm encapsulation is? t/f true
Malignant neoplasm encapsulation is? t/f false
benign neoplasm differenation. resemble normal cells from which they arose (well-differentiated)
Malignant neoplasm differenation. cells that undergo permanent change, abnormal rapid proliferation. (anaplastic and undifferentiated)
benign neoplasm growth pattern. by expansion and causes pressure on surrounding tissue
Malignant neoplasm growth pattern invasive growth and metastasis
benign neoplasm metastasis remains local
malignant neoplasm metastasis through bloodstream and lymphatic system
benign neoplasm metastasis recurrence does not recur when surgically removed
malignant neoplasm metastasis can recur if invasive growth has occured
benign neoplasm cachexia no
malignant neoplasm cachexia yes
__ finding in which the readings are not within the normal average range established for that particular test abnormal
__ a diagnostic statement that the physical is confident of confirmed
__ an effect produced on the mind of by outside stimuli impression
__ routine integral
__ a word that limits the meaning of another modifier
__ a diagnosis that is limited or uncertain qualified
___ a word that limits the meaning of another qualifier
__ a symptom, finding, or sign that is connected to a disease but is not integral to it related
__ a symptom, finding, or sign that Is not connected to a disease unrelated
symptom can not be observed
sign can be observed
__ an artificial opening between a hollow organ and the skin ostomy
___ codes that represent reasons for encounters; may be used in any health care setting when the reason for the encounter is not a disease z codes
__ describes what a person was doing when an injury occurred, such as running, playing sports, or preparing food activity
__ a negative physical reaction adverse effect
__ an event or action that results in an injury cause
__ an event or action that results in an injury causal event
__ an abnormal medical reaction that results from a medical or surgical procedure complication
__ an event such as an accident, force of nature, assault, or situation that causes an injury or adverse effect. external cause
__ a term describing whether an event was accidental or intentional intent
__ an error during a medical or surgical procedure misadventure
___ a category of external cause codes that describe where an injury occurred, such as a public street or a single-family home place of occurrence
__ the external cause code that describes a persons employment status in relation to the event that caused an injury. status
__ an event involving weapons of mass destruction or specific terrorism-related offenses terrorism
combination codes report both __ intent & cause
for place of occurrence (y92.) Report only __ place per injury and ___ at the initial encounter for treatment. on, only
With the activity code (What the person was doing at the time of the injury/ incident)(Y93.) Only report __ activity code per injury. one
Status code (Y99.) Report __ status code per injury event and __ at the initial encounter for treatment. one, only
Motor vehicle accidents. Main term- Subterm- next level subterm- 4- accident, transport type of vehicle driver or passenger?
__ an organ that assists an organ system carry out its functions but does not fulfill a major function of the system accessory organ
__ a continuous tube, approximately 30 ft long, that begins at the mouth and continues through the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine; and exits the body at the rectum and anus alimentary canal
__ the injection of a chalky substance into the colon through the anus and viewing the organs on an x-ray; also called a lower gi series barium enema
__ two diseases occurring together comorbidity
__ the body system that receives nutrients, break them down, absorbs them into the blood to be used by the body, and eliminates solid waste products; also called the gastrointestinal system digestive system
___ a bacterial infection of diverticula diverticulitis
__ pouches formed when the lining of the intestine pushes through the intestinal muscle layer diverticula
___ taking in food ingestion
___- breaking down food digestion
___- transferring nutrients to the body absorption
__- removing solid waste from the body elimination
__ one disease being caused by another causal relationship
___ - a common disease of the endocrine system resulting in elevated glucose concentrations over an extended period of time and excess excretion of urine, usually due to malfunction of the pancreas diabetes mellitus (DM)
__ the condition of high concentration of ketones that has accumulated in the blood and turns acidic diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
__ the body system the produces, stores, and releases hormones. endocrine system
__ a blood test that measures the glucose attached to hemoglobin Hba1c
__ chemical messengers that regulate many body functions including growth, development, metabolism, sexual function, reproduction, and mood Hormones
__ a severely elevated blood glucose concentration due to lack or deficiency of insulin. Hyperglycemia
___ an abnormally low blood glucose concentration often due to excessive use of insulin or other glucose- lowering medications. Hypoglycemia
__ pancreas does not produce insulin Type 1 diabetes
___ pancreas makes insulin but body does not use it type 2 diabetes
__ elevated glucose is caused by an external factor secondary diabetes
___ Elevated glucose is diagnosed during pregnancy gestational diabetes
___ one disease being caused by another Causal relationship
___ E00-E13 Diabetes
__ long term (current) use of insulin Z79.4
__ pertaining of covering (skin) integumentary
__ pertaining to oil Sebaceous
__ pertaining to sweat Sudoriferous
___ under the skin subcutaneous
___ applying an allergen to the skin to observe the reaction patch testing
___ scraping, punching, or cutting a piece of skin and examining it under a microscope Biopsy
___ performing a test to identify the microorganism that is causing an infection. Culture
__ tissue from the patient autograft
__ tissue from another person allograft
__ tissue from an animal xenograft
__ man made tissue Synthetic
__ inflammation under the skin cellulitis
__ autoimmune disease that erupts in blisters pemphigus
__ hives urticaria
__ overgrowth of horny tissue keratosis
__ red fluid-filled lesions that can cause layers of skin to fall off erythema multiforme
___ round red patches covered with white scales Psoriasis
__ rough dry scales Pityriasis
__ Eruption of flat papules lichen
___ a precancerous lesion Actinic keratosis
__ baldness alopecia
__ inflammation of space around the hair root folliculitis
Ulcer stage __ redness that does not go away 1
Ulcer stage___ damage to the epidermis that extends into the dermis 2
Ulcer stage __ damage through the full thickness of the dermis and into the subcutaneous tissue (fat) 3
Ulcer stage __ damage extending into the muscle, tendon, or bone 4
Ulcer stage is ___ ulcers covered with dead cells, eschar, or wound exudate that cannot be visually assessed unstageable
__ loss of pigmentation vitiligo
there are 3 classifications of burns and they are? 1, 2, and 3
1st degree burns are also named ___ and is damage to the ___ Superficial, epidermis
2nd degree burns are also named __ and is damage to the __ partial thickness, epidermis and part of the dermis
3rd degree burns are also named ___ and is damage to the __ full thickness, entire depth of the dermis
__ top layer of the skin epidermis
___2nd layer of skin located under the top layer dermis
the layer in-between the dermis (2nd layer) and the muscle is the __ subcutaneous fat
sunburns are classified by the ___ degree of the burn
Pressure ulcers are assigned a numerical stage from ___, based on ___ 1-4, depth
Skin discolored but intact is when pressure ulcer stage? stage 1
shallow open ulcer through part of the dermis is what pressure ulcer stage stage 2
Full-thickness loss of dermis with exposure of subcutaneous fat is what pressure ulcer stage? stage 3
Exposed bine, muscle, or tendon is what pressure ulcer stage stage 4.
When it comes to pressure ulcers and coding the main term is __ and the subterm is __, the second-level subterm is the ___ ulcer, pressure, anatomic site
when it comes to nonpressure ulcers and coding the main term is ___ and the subterm is ___ ulcer, anatomic site
___ falling off in scales and layers exfoliation
use the additional code ___ to identify percentage of skin exfoliation L49-
___ lowest layer of the epidermis basal cell
___ the part of the skeleton consisting of the arms, shoulders, wrists, hands, legs, hips, ankles, and feet, contains 126 bones. appendicular skeleton
__ 80 bones that are basically stationary and make up the skull, sternum, ribs, and vertebrae Axial Skelton
___ the main portion of the muscle body
__ the fibrous tissue found at the ends of bones cartilage
__ the status of a patient who has waited to seek care delayed
___ the long, narrow part of a long bone diaphysis
__ the rounded end of a bone farthest from the trunk distal epiphysis
__ the fibrous tissue that connects muscle to muscle fascia
__ a fracture of a bone that has been subjected to repeated use or impact fatigue fracture
__ thigh bone femur
__ a broken bone caused by disease rather than trauma fragility fracture
__ the root operation that identifies putting in a nonbiological appliance that monitors, assists, performs, or prevents a physiological function but does not physically take the place of a body part insertion
__ muscles that are controlled by a subconscious part of the brain involuntary
__ the location where two or more bones meet joint
___ fibrous tissue that connects bones to bones ligament
__ a condition when the ends of a fractured bones segments do not heal with proper alignment malunion
__ the fracture of a bone that has been subjected to repeated use or impact march fracture
__ the invasion of a bone by cancer that begins in another organ metastatic bone disease (MBD)
__ provides for movement of the body as well as the operation of individual organs, maintenance of body posture, and production of heat. muscular system
__ the skeletal and muscular systems of the body that support the body, protect internal organs, produce blood cells, store minerals, provide movement to the body, maintain body posture, and produce heat. musculoskeletal system (MS)
__ area between the proximal epiphysis and the shaft neck (of bone)
__ the failure of the ends of fractured bone segments to reunite nonunion
__ the point at which a muscle is attached origin
__ pertaining to a bone osseous
__ a fracture caused by disease rather than trauma pathological fracture
___ the rounded end of a bone that is closest to the trunk proximal epiphysis
__ use of a sharp instrument shaft
__ the system that supports the body, protects internal organs, produces blood cells, stores minerals, and serves as point of attachment for the skeletal muscles. skeletal system
___ fibrous tissue that connects bones to muscles tendons
__ an acute current injury that results from an accident traumatic
__ a bony segment of the spine vertebra
__ a muscle a person can choose to contract and relax voluntary
___ damage or inflammation of the joint arthritis
___ inflammation of fluid around a joint bursitis
___ breakdown of bone r tissue degeneration
___ two bones out of place at the joint Dislocation
___broken bone fracture
___ muscle or bone inflammation due to an infectious agent infection
___ thinning of bone tissue and loss of bone density osteoporosis
__ over stretching, bruising, or tearing of a ligament sprain
___ over stretching, bruising, or tearing of a bone or tendon strain
___ partial dislocation of bones in a joint subluxation
___ inflammation of a tendon, often caused by over use tendonitis
Musculoskeletal system and connective tissue is what codes? M00-M99
___ are damage to skin by heat, electricity, or radiation burn
__ are damage to skin due to chemicals corrosions
Both burns and corrosions are described by the ___ (__) of the burn degree (Depth)
__ collar bone clavicle
__ the bone breaks through the skin open
__ the bone does not break through the skin closed
___ the fragments of bone move out of alignment displaced
___ the fragments of bone remain properly aligned nondisplaced
Open fractures are classified using the ____ Gustilo classification system
Epiphysis fractures are classified using the ___ Salter-Harris classification
Gustilo classification of open fractures Stage __ wound smaller than 1 cm with minimal soft-tissue injury and clean wound bed. fracture is usually a simple transverse, short oblique fracture, with minimal communication. Stage 1
Gustilo classification system stage ___ Wound larger than 1 cm with moderate soft-tissue damage without flaps, avulsions. fracture is usually a simple transverse, short oblique fracture, with minimal comminution. stage 2
Gustilo classification of open fractures stage ___ fractures that involve extensive damage to the soft tissues, including muscles, skin, and neurovascular structures. the injury is often accompanied by a high-velocity injury or a severe crushing component Stage 3
Salter-Harris classification of epiphysis fractures Type ___ a transverse fracture through the physis 1
salter-Harris classification of epiphysis fractures Type ___ a fracture through the physis and the metaphysis, sparing the epiphysis 2
Salter-harris classification of epiphysis fractures type __ A fracture through the physis and epiphysis, sparing the metaphysis 3
salter-harris classification of epiphysis fracture type ___ a fracture through all three elements of the bone, the physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis 4
salter-harris classification of epiphysis fractures type ___ a crush or compression fracture of the physis 5
Because burns often involve multiple body areas, report the percentage of the _____ When burns involve multiple body areas, specific anatomic sites may not be documented, when that is the case report the percentage of the __ total body surface area (TBSA)
TBSA uses the ___ rule of nines
when coding burns the main term is ___ and the subterm is ___ burn, anatomic site.
always code the most severe __ first. injury
when coding poisonings, the first code should be from categories __ to ___. T36-T50
___ a myocardial infarction (heart attack) that occurred within the past 4 weeks; also called a current myocardial infarction acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
__ an xray taken after an opaque dye is injected into a blood vessel angiography
__ insertion into a blood vessel of an inflatable catheter that expands to compress plaque against the walls of the vessels. angioplasty
___ the first artery leading out of the heart to the body which then repeatedly subdivides into smaller arties that lead to each body region and anatomic site aorta
__ the valve that controls blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta aortic valve
__ an irregular heart beat arrhythmia
__ any blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to the body tissues artery
_ a small artery arteriole
____ a group of cardiac muscle fibers that connect the atria with the ventricles atrioventricular bundle
atrioventricular bundle is also known as the __ bundle of his
__ an electrical relay station between the atria and the ventricles atrioventricular (AV) node
___ a valve that controls the flow of blood from the body and the lungs atrioventricular (AV) valve
__ 2 of the four chambers of the heart that receive blood from the body and the lungs atrium/ atria
___ from the same patient autologous
__ an eponym for mitral valve prolapse Barlow syndrome
___ a division of the bundle of his bundle branch
___the creation of a new route around a blockage in a blood vessel using a vessel from part of the body, another person, or a synthetic substitute bypass graft
__ the very-thin-walled membrane at the end of arterioles that allows blood to diffuse into body tissues and receives waste products from the tissues to send back into the bloodstream capillary
___ the passage of a thin tube through a blood vessel to the heart to visualize the structure, collect blood samples, and determine monitor testing, and stress testing cardiac catheterization
__ a measurement of the capacity of the heart in real time; tests include cardiac catheterization, electrocardiography, holter monitor testing and stress testing cardiac function test
__ a scan of the heart after a patient receives radioactive thallium intravenously cardiac scan
__ the body system that distributes blood throughout the body and includes the heart and blood vessels; also caked the circulatory system. cardiovascular (CV) system
__ an object located within the brain cerebral
___ the body system that distributes throughout the body and includes the heart, and blood vessels; also called the cardiovascular system. Circulatory system
___ a blood disorder characterized by a reduction in the number of red blood cells, which results in less oxygen reaching the tissues anemia
___ anemia due to loss of or lack of production of red bone marrow aplastic anemia
___ the bodily fluid that transports and passes nutrients, oxygen, carbon dioxide, water, proteins, and hormones to cells and transports waste products to excrete oxygen; also called the hemic system blood
___ connective tissue in the cavities of bones bone marrow
___ a red blood cell erythrocyte
__ a blood cell formed element
__ the method to transport and pass nutrients, oxygen, carbon dioxide, water, proteins, and hormones to cells and transport waste products to excretory oxygen; also called blood. hemic system
___ the oxygen-carrying component of erythrocytes hemoglobin
__ anemia due to excessive loss of erythrocytes hemolytic anemia
__ the stoppage of bleeding or hemorrhage hemostasis
__ white blood cell leukocyte
___ an anemia due to malabsorption or poor dietary intake of iron, folate, and/or vitamin b12 nutritional anemia
__ clear fluid plasma
___ the return of disease after remission relapse
__ blood counts returns to normal and bone marrow samples show sign of disease remission
__ a platelet thrombocyte
__ a form of sickle cell crisis in which the patient experiences severe pain due to infarctions, which may occur in nearly any location vassoocclusive crisis
__ a condition that diminishes the body's immune response and increases the risk of infection white blood cell disorder
__ blood condition emia
__ lack of penia
__ stoppage of bleeding hemo
__ the maintenance of a stable internal physical state homeo
__ attraction phil
___ formation poiesis
___ anemia due to lack of folic acid folic acid deficiency anemia
__ a genetic disorder in which blood takes to long to clot hemophilia
__ a deficiency of gamma globulins (protein fraction) and antibodies in the blood hypogammaglobulinemia
__ anemia due to insufficient iron to manufacture hemoglobin iron deficiency anemia
___ a decrease in neutrophils neutropenia
__ an abnormal reduction in the number of all (medical prefix pan-) types of blood cells: red, white, and platelets pancytopenia
__ anemia due to insufficient absorption of vitamin b12, which is necessary for erythrocyte production. pernicious anemia
___ an abnormal increase in the number of circulation red blood cells polycythemia
__ small hemorrhages in the skin purpura
__ formation of nodules in the lymph nodes, lungs, bone, and skin sarcoidosis
__ a genetic disorder in which red blood cells take on a sickle (curved) shape and lead to hemolytic anemia; also called sickle cell disease (SCD) sickle cell anemia
__ a genetic disorder that results in defective formation of hemoglobin thalessemia
___ a tendency to create blood clots (thrombi) thrombophilia
__ a genetic disorder marked by bleeding of the mucosa Von Willebrand Disease
physicians diagnose blood disorders using ____, ___, and ___. blood tests, microscopic examination of blood cells, and bone marrow biopsy
Treatments for blood disorders include ___, and other ____, or ____ to correct the symptom or underlying problem, and transfusion of ____ or a particular component of the blood correction of nutritional deficiencies, lifestyle changes, medication, whole blood
Diseases of the blood and blood- forming organs and certain disorders involving the immune mechanism code category is ___ D50-D89
Sickle cell anemia is caused by an inherited ______ in HB synthesis. autosomal recessive defect
When coding anemia the main term is ___ followed by the sub term ____. anemia, specific type.
the code for anemia due to cancer itself D63.0
Code for aplastic anemia due to chemotherapy D61.1
Code for anemia due to chemotherapy D64.81
When coding for anemia due to radiotherapy , first assign a code for the _____, then assign a code for the ____, assign an external cause code for the ______. anemia, neoplasm, complication.
when coding for adjunct therapy first assign the appropriate ___ code for the therapy encounter. secondly assign a second code from the table of ______. z code, table of drugs and chemicals
when coding for adjunct therapy thirdly assign ____, fourthly assign ___, then fifthly assign ___ if the encounter was for radiotherapy. anemia, neoplasm, Y84.2
The code category for diseases of the blood and blood-forming organs and certain disorders involving the immune mechanism is ____. D50-D89
Neoplasms are solid ___. tumors
The 3 common types of blood cancer are? Leukemia, myeloma, and lymphoma
When coding cancer use the main term ___, and the sub term ____. that describes the condition, and then which describes the location.
Leukemia has 3 different codes based on ___ the status of the disease.
When referring to leukemia. ___ is when the blood counts return to normal and the bone marrow samples show no sign of disease. The final digit is ___. Remission, 0
when referring to leukemia. ___ is the return of the disease after remission. the final digit is ___. Relapse, 2
When referring to leukemia when a patient is in remission it is considered the digit of ___ 1
___ a sudden increase in the intensity or type of symptoms, such as shortness of breath, wheezing, and chest tightness acute exacerbation
___ common cold acute rhinitis
____ medication suspended in a mist that is inhaled aerosol therapy
____ a reduction in the amount of air inhaled during each breath, most commonly caused by a reduction in the diameter of the bronchioles due to inflammation. airway obstruction
___ hay fever allergic rhinitis
___ the small air sac where the bronchioles end alveolus
___ asthma due to allergies atopic
___ a medication that relaxes muscle spams in bronchial tubes bronchodilator
___ of bronchial origin bronchogenic
___ the air tubes that begins at the end of the trachea and leads to the lungs bronchus
___ the configuration of bronchi subdividing into smaller and smaller branches bronchial tree
___ the smallest bronchus in the bronchial tree; does not contain rings of cartilage bronchiole
___ an inflammation of the bronchi with a productive cough for three months in 2 consecutive years. chronic bronchitis
___ chronic obstructive pulmonary disease COPD
___ a lab test of secretions, such as sputum, to observe bacterial growth and determine antibiotic effectiveness culture and sensitivity
___ the enlargement and rupture of alveolar sacs at the end of the bronchioles, causing an abnormal accumulation of air in the tissue emphysema
___placement of a tube through the mouth and glottis into the trachea to create a viable airway endotracheal intubation
__ the process of obtaining oxygen from the airway and delivering it to the lungs and blood for distribution to tissue cells, and removing the gaseous waste product, carbon dioxide, from the blood and lungs expelling it exchange
____ asthma due to allergens; also called atopic extrinsic (asthma)
___ a serious condition that develops after admission hospital-acquired condition (HAC)
___ a high carbon dioxide concentration hypercapnia
____ low oxygen concentration hypoxemia
___ inflammation of the larynx, resulting in hoarseness laryngitis
___ the voice box larynx
___ a segment of lung lobe
___ consists of the trachea, bronchi, and lungs lower respiratory tract
___ a respiratory organ composed of the spongy tissue that receives deoxygenated blood from the heart through the pulmonary artery, re-oxygenates it, and sends it back to the heart through the pulmonary vein lung
____ is not due to allergens; also called nonatopic intrinsic (asthma)
____ sore throat; inflammation of the throat pharyngitis
___ the throat pharynx
___ a cough with sputum productive cough
___ a diagnostic test that measures airflow into and out of the lungs, lung volumes, and gas exchange between the lungs and blood. pulmonary function test
___ the system that obtains oxygen from the air and delivers it to the lungs and blood for distribution to tissues cells and removes the gaseous waste product carbon dioxide from the blood and lungs and expels it respiratory system
___ sinus infection sinusitis
___ an acute exacerbation that does not respond to the standard medical treatments with bronchodilators and steroids. sinus asthmaticus
___surgical puncture of the chest wall to remove fluid . thoracentesis
____ the windpipe trachea
____ the part of the body that keeps the trachea and bronchi open tracheal cartilage
___ a surgical opening in the neck leading to the trachea tracheostomy tube
___ a part of the respiratory system that contains the nose, pharynx, and larynx upper respiratory system
___a nuclear medicine test useful in identifying pulmonary emboli by showing whether blood is flowing to all parts of the lung. ventilator-perfusion scan
____ pneumonia that develops 48 or more after mechanical ventilation is initiated ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)
___ a machine that assists with breathing ventilator
___ inflammation of the bronchus chitis
___ inflammation of the bronchiole chiolitis
___ pus in the chest pyo
___ air in the chest pneum
___ abnormal accumulation of air in the body tissue phy
___ pus in the body cavity pye
___ acute respiratory failure that results in widespread injury due to the endothelium in the lung, caused by sepsis, massive blood transfusion, aspiration of gastric contacts, or pneumonia acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
____ insufficient oxygen passing from the lungs to the blood, due to hypercapnia, hypoxemia, or both acute respiratory failure (ARF)
____ a chronic lung disease that affects the bronchi and is characterized by inflammation of the airway, a reversible obstruction, and reshaping of the airway. asthma
____collapse of a lung preventing the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide atelectasis
___ an a cute respiratory infection with sudden onset caused by a virus and characterized by fever, chills, headache, muscle aches, cough, and sore throat influenza
_____ bacterial pneumonia that primarily affects one lobe of the lung lobar pneumonia
____ pneumonia that primarily affects the bronchi and lobules also called bronchopneumonia lobular pneumonia
_____ clusters of alveoli that surround each bronchial branch bronchi and lobules
____ inflammation of the lining of the lungs and thoracic cavity with oozing of fluid or fibrinous material into the pleural cavity pleurisy
___ abnormal condition of the lung caused by inhalation of dust particles, such as coal dust, asbestos, iron dust, or quartz pneumoconiosis
___ a collection of air between the chest wall and lungs, which may cause lung to collapse pneumothorax
____ an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the lungs, especially the alveoli, resulting in dyspnea pulmonary edema
___ inflammation of the tonsils tonsillitis
The coding category for diseases of respiratory system is ___ J00-J99
When coding for asthma, code the main term ___ in the index because the second-level sub terms with ___ and with ____. Appear under multiple first-level sub terms asthma, exacerbation, status asthmaticus
___ code for other chronic obstructive pulmonary disease J44
___code for asthma J45
___ code for asthma with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease J44.9
to locate code for VAP on the index search main term ___ then sub term ____. Pneumonia, Ventilator associated
Codes for neoplasms of the respiratory system appear in category block ___ C30-C39
code category for diseases of the nervous system and sense organs is ____ G00-G99
___ a seizure characterized by muscle twitching or jerking for several seconds absence seizure
___ a progressive degenerative brain disease that doubles in prevalence with every five year of age Alzheimer's disease (AD)
___ a seizure characterized by a sudden loss of consciousness and falling down; affects the entire brain atonic (seizure)
___ a sensation of hearing voices or seeing colored light aura
___ the organ that governs perception of the senses, emotions, consciousness, memory, and voluntary movements brain
___ the control center for the nervous system, which processes information and provides short term control over other organ systems; consists of the brain and spinal cord central nervous system (CNS)
___ a type of seizure characterized by a series of muscle contractions and relaxations on both sides of the body clonic
___ a seizure associated with both sides of the cerebrum; causes a change in or loss of consciousness; also known as ___, & ____ complex partial, psychomotor, spinal cord
____ a progressive loss of brain function that affects memory, thinking, language, judgment, and behavior dementia
___ a seizure that is the result of abnormal activity on both sides of the brain; also called a generalized seizure distributed
___ the side of the body an individual favors, such as being left-handed or right-handed. dominance
____ Alzheimer disease that is diagnosed before age 65 early onset
___ a type of seizure that occurs in one part of the brain; also known as focal, partial
___ a distributed seizure generalized
___ a seizure characterized by a sudden loss of consciousness and falling down; affects the entire brain grand mal
___ a sense of taste gustatory
___ paralysis of one side of the body hemiplegia
___ the stoppage of bleeding or hemorrhage hemostasis
___ of unknown causes idiopathic
___ a migraine that is resistant to treatment; may also be called pharmaco-resistant or refractory intractable (migraine)
____ Alzheimer disease that is diagnosed after age 65 late onset
___ a type of seizure that occurs in one part of the brain localized
____ paralysis of one limb monoplegia
____ a seizure characterized by jerking and twitching in the upper body arms and legs myoclonic
___ the body system that directs the body's responses to internal and external stimuli and coordinates the activities of other organ systems nervous system
___ a cluster of nerve cells neuron
___ the sense of smell olfactory
___ a degenerative disease that affects muscle control and coordination, usually occurring in midlife. Parkinson disease
____ a combination of conditions in which dementia is diagnosed first, followed later by an additional diagnosis of Parkinson disease; also referred to as parkinsonism, parkinsonian
___ consists of the 12 nerves radiate out from the brain and the 31 pairs of nerves that radiate from the spinal cord to all other areas of the body peripheral nervous system
___ a type of seizure characterized by muscle twitching or jerking for several seconds petit mal
_____ resistant to medication pharmacoresistent
___ paralysis of all limbs quadriplegia
___ a chronic pain syndrome in which an extremity experiences intense burning pain and changes in skin texture and temperature reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
___ resistant to treatment refactory
____ Parkinson type abnormal movements that are caused by medication or another condition secondary parkinsonism
___ a seizure that affects only a small region of the brain and does not cause loss of consciousness simple partial
____ an epileptic seizure that lasts more than 30 minutes or is a near-constant state of seizures status epilepticus
____ a migraine that lasts more than 72 hours status migrainosus
___ a seizure characterized by prolonged muscle contractions or stiffening tonic
_____ a seizure characterized by a sudden loss of consciousness and falling to the floor; affects the entire brain tonic-clonic
A disorder in which the two leaflets that compose the valve fall backward into the left atrium, resulting in regurgitation also called ____. Click murmur syndrome
___ open heart surgery to create a bypass around a blocked coronary artery, usually using the internal mammary artery (ima) or a vein in the leg. Coronary artery bypass graft (cabg)
___ blood flow that occurs within the heart; carries blood from the aorta to the tissues of the heart to maintain the function of the heart itself. Coronary circulation
__ a myocardial infarction that has occured within the past four weeks Current mi
Mi= Myocardial infarction
Tia= Almost/ little myocardial infarction.
___ the time during the heart cycle when the chamber relaxes as it fills with blood Diastole
___ an image created by measuring sound-wave echoes offof tissues and organs Doppler ultrasonography/ultrasound
__ the use of noninvasive ultrasound to visualize internal cardiac structures Echocardiography
___ the graphical recording of the electrical activity of the heart Electrocardiography (ecg,ekg)
__ the removal of a clot from a blood vessel Embolectomy
__ excision of the lining of a vessel Endarterectomy
__ the smooth inner layer that reduces friction as blood flows through the heart. Endocardium
__ the inner layer of the pericardium; also called the _____. Epicardium ; visceral pericardium
___ a portable ecg machine worn by a patient for an extended period of hours or days to measure heart activity in a variety of situations Holter monitor
__ the largest veins that carry deoxygenated blood back to the right ventricle Inferior vena cava
___ the blood vessel located on the inside of the chest cavity, which is resistant to cholesterol buildup; often used in coronary artery bypass graft Internal mammary artery (ima)
___ The upper left chamber of the heart, Which receives Blood from the lungs Left atrium
___ the Lower left chamber of the heart. Which ejects blood to the body. Left ventricle
__the valve That controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle Mitral valve.
___ A disorder in which the 2 leaflets that compose to valve Fall backward in to the left atrium, Resulting in regurgitation also called click murmur syndrome Mitral valve prolapse
__ A narrowing of the valve opening, Which may be caused by calcification, As Often occurs with the aortic valve, or rheumatic fever. Mitral valve stenosis
__ the Death of heart tissue caused by an interruption to the blood supply, Commonly known as a heart attack Myocardial infarction
__ The thick muscular inner layers that contract to pump blood Myocardium
__ A patient's original blood vessel Native
__ Another word for vessel Native
__ From a source other than a patient such as cadaver or animal Nonautologous
__ A grafted vessel from a synthetic source Nonbiological
__ A myocardial infarction in which the ST segment on an EKG is non elevated indicating that a vessel is only partially blocked Non ST elevation MI
__ The death of heart tissue that affects only a small portion of the heart wall, Usually due to a decreased but not totally occluded blood supply, Also called a ___ Subendocardial infarction ; nontransmural infarction
__ A blockage Occlusion
__ An Mi More than 4 weeks old Old (healed) mi
__ Is small electric device that is implanted in the chest to correct arrhythmia by speeding up slowing down smoothing out or cordinating the heart beat. Pacemaker
__ The outer layer of the pericardium Parietal pericardium
__ A double walled sack filled with fluid which is the outer layer Pericardium
__ A build-up of cholesterol inside the wall of blood vessels Plaque
__ Located outside of the brain Precerbral
__ Occurs between the heart and the lung, Carries Deoxygenated Blood from the heart to the lungs, Where it is replenished with oxygen then back to the heart Pulmonary circulation
__ The valve that controls the blood flow from the right ventricle To the pulmonary artery Pulmonary valve
__ The cardiac muscle that rapidly transmits impulses from the atrioventricular node to the ventricles Purkinje fiber
__ The backward leakage of blood through the opening of the left atrium Regurgitation
__ The right upper chamber of the heart, receives blood from the body Right atrium
__ The right lower chamber of the heart which ejects blood to the lungs Right ventricle
__ The pacemaker of the heart Sinoatrial (sa) node
___ A myocardial infarction in which the ST segment of an EKG is elevated indicating that the Mi completely occluded a vessel St elevation mi (stemi)
___ Placement of a mash 2 and a blood vessel to keep it open necessary in atherosclerosis Stent insertion
__ Measuring ekg and oxygen concentrations As a patient performs an increasing level of exercise on a treadmill or stationary bicycle Stress testing
__ The death of heart tissue that affects only a small portion of the heart wall, Usually due to a decreased, But not totally occluded, blood supply Subendocardial infarction
__ an Mi that occurs within 4 weeks of a previous AMI Subsequent MI
__ One of the largest change that carry DEoxygenated blood back to the right ventricle Superior vena cava
__ The section of the circulatory system that occurs between the heart and the rest of the body Systematic circulation
___ The time during the heart cycle when the chamber Contracts as it Ejects blood Systole
__ The death of heart tissue that extends through the entire thickness of the heart muscle Transmural MI
__ Without that controls muscle blood flow from the right atrium to the right Ventricle Tricuspid Valve
__ The correction of a physical defect of the heart Valve repair
__ The replacment of a heart valve with a synthetic or porcelain (pig) valve Valve replacement
__ A tube that carries blood from the capillaries back to the heart and excessively large veins leading to the superior Vena cava and inferior vena cava Vein
__ X-ray of veins by tracing the Venous pulse Venography
__ One of the lower heart chambers that ejects blood to the lungs and the body Ventricle
__ a small vein Venule
The heart rate is regulated by the ___ Autonomic nervous system
__ resembling blood Hemorrhoid
__ flow of blood Hemorrhage
__ plaque Ather/o
__ arteri/o Artery
__ joint Arthr/o
__ sack around the heart Pericardium
__ the area between the external genitalia and the anus Perineum
Neoplasms of the cardiovascular system are rare and are normally ____ Benign
Secondart or metastatic neoplams of the heart occur in __ of the population 1%
__ A bulge in the wall of an artery due to weakening, Most commonly occurring in the abdominal aorta and cerrbral arteries Aneurysm
__ Intense Pain and spasms Angina
__ irregular heartbeat Arrhythmia
__ Irregular heart beat in the atria characterized by an abnormal quivering of heart fibers Atrial Fibrillation (a-fib)
__ The blockage of the conduction of electrical impulse through the branches of the atrioventricular bundle Bundle branch block(bbb)
__ A sudden decrease in blood a supply to the brain, Also known as __ Cerebrovascular accident (cva) Stroke
__ The inability of the heart to maintain circulation often resulting and water retention and edema Congestive heart failure (chf)
___ Insufficient blood supply to the heart due to an obstruction of one or more coronary artery Coronary artery disease (cad)
__ The formation of a thrombus within a deep vein usually in the leg or pelvis Deep vein thrombosis
__ An abnormal particle circulating in the blood such as an air bubble or thrombus that has broken loose from its point of origin Embolus
__ High blood pressure readings exceeding 140/90 mm hg Docky minute repeatedly over an extended period of time. Hypertension
__ Inflammation of the pericardial sac that surrounds the heart Pericarditis
Laboratory tests measure the levels of substances in the blood such as the following __, ____, ___ Cardiac enzymes, cholesterol, triglycerides
The 3 cardiac and signs that is measured in the blood is? Creatine phosphokonase (cpk), lactate dehydrogenase (ldh), glutamic oxaloacetic transamonase (got)
Diseases of the circulatory system code is I00-i99
Congenital malformations, deformations, and chromosomal abnormalities code is Q00-q99
Diseases of the blood and blood forming organs and certain disorders involving the immune mechanism code is D50-d89
When abstracting for the CV system because codes must be specific to the ____,__,____. Anatomic site, nature of disease, and comorbidities
Assign a code for hypertension only when the physician has Documented for this condition
When coding for hypertension the main term is Hypertension in the index
The default code for Essential hypertension is I10
When assigning hypertension and chronic kidney disease together a sign the code from the category I12 hypertensive chronic kidney disease Based on the stage document it
When assigning codes for hypertension and chronic kidney disease asana code from the category __ As an additional code to identify the stage of chronic kidney disease N18
What is the code for hypertensive chronic kidney disease with stage one through stage four chronic kidney disease or unspecified chronic kidney disease
What is the code for chronic kidney disease, Stage for severe N18.4
When there is a relationship between heart failure and hypertension assign a code from the following category I11 hypertensive heart disease
When assigning the code hypertensive heart disease also assign a code from category I50 heart failure
What is the code for myocarditis, undspecified I51.4
What is the code for myocardial degeneration I51. 5
What is the code for cardiomegaly I51.7
What is the code for other ill defined heart diseases I51. 8
What is the code for heart disease unspecified I51.9
What is the code for chronic combined since systolic congestive and I diuastolic congestive heart failure I50.42
To locate the code for CHF in the index search for the main term __ and the subterm ___ Failure, heart
___ Hardening of an artery Arteriosclerosis
Arteriosclerosis normally caused by Atherosclerosis
___ hardening of a vessel due to plaque Athetodclerosis
When coding MI use the main term __ And the sub term ___ Infarct, myocardium
When coding CAD and Ami Sequence the ___ first and The ___ As in additional code Ami, cad
When coding to locate CAD in the index search for the main term ___, the first level subterm ___ , and the second level subterm ____ Disease, heart, ischemic
When coding for A Ami and a second ami assign code ___ to the first ami and assign code ___ for the second I21, i22
When coding for a current ami and for an old or hesaled mi code the current in category ___ and the old in category ___. I21, i25.2
The code for tobacco use is Z72. 0
__ A blood disorder characterized by a reduction in the number of red blood cells which results in less oxygen reaching the tissues Anemia
__ Anemia due to loss of or the lack of production of red bone Marrow Aplastic anemia
__ The bodily fluid that transports and passes nutrients oxygen carbon dioxide water proteins and hormones to cells And transports waste productions to excrete oxygen also called the __ Blood, hemic system
__ Connective tissue use in the cavities of bones Bone marrow
__ a red blood cell Erythrocyte
__ a blood cell Formed element
___ The oxygen carrying components of erythrocytes Hemoglobin
__ anemia due to excessive loss of erythrocytes Hemolytic anemia
___ the stoppage of bleeding or hemorahgage Hemostasis
__ white blood cell Leukocyte
__ Anemia due to malabsorption or poor dietary intake of iron for late and/or vitamin B12 Nutritional anemia
__ clear fluid Plasma
____ enlargement of blood vessels Vasodilation
The coding category for diseases of the nervous system and sense organs is ___ G00-g99
The cervical nerves are ___ C1-c8
The thoracic nerves are ___ T1-t12
The lumbar nerves are ____ L1-l5
Sacral nerves are ____ S1-s5
The last nerve of the spinal cord is the Coccygeal nerve
__ word root meaning blood Heme
___ prefix meaning half Hemi
___ pertaining to vessels of the brain Cerebr
___ pertaining to vessels of the heart Cardi
___ recording of the electrical activity of the brain Encephalo (electroencephalogram / eeg)
___ recording of the electrical activity of the heart Cardio (electrocardiogram / ekg / ecg
___ the largest structure of the brain that controls sensory and motor activity Bru (cerebrum)
__ the portion of the brain located behind the cerebrum Bell (cerebellum)
___ are severe debilitating headaches caused by vasodilation Migraine headaches
____ is a brain disorder which neurons signal abnormally, causing seizures and/or unconsciousness Epilespy
__ are classified as localized or generalized based on the source within the brain Seizure
__ a chronic, terminal neurological disease characterized by a progressive loss of motor neurons and muscle atrophy Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (als) or lou gehrig disease
___ inflammation of the seventh cranial nerve,the facial nerve Bell palsy
__ a functional disorder of the brain manifested by motor impairment Cerebral palsy
__ a collection of pain conditions lasting more than six months and unresponsive to treatment Chronic pain syndrome (cps)
__ unilateral pain in the eye or temple Cluster headache
__ a chronic pain syndrome in which an extremity experiences intense burning pain and changes in skin texture and temperature;also called ___ Complex regional pain syndrome/ reflex sympathetic dystrophy (rsd)
__ a class of diseases marked by degeneration of nerves and brain tissue, resulting in abnormalities in muscle and sensory functions Degenerative neural disease
__ a loss of brain function that affects memory, thinking, language, judgement,and behavior Dementia
__ erratic jerky movements due to improperly functioning muscle tension Dystonia
__ a viral inflammation of the brain and meninges Encephalitis
____ a brain disorder in which neurons signal abnormally, causing seizures and/or unconsciousness epilepsy
___ an inherited progressive, degenerative disease involving loss of muscle control and personality changes. Huntington chorea
__ excess cerebrospinal fluid trapped in the brain Hydrocephalus
__ a contagious, acute inflammation of the pia mater and the arachnoid mater in the brain Meningitis
___ A severe, debilitating headache caused by vasodilation Migraine Headache
___ A chronic, progressive disorder of the CNS characterized by muscle impairment due to impairment due to patches of hardened tissue in the brain or spinal cord Multiple Sclerosis
___ A condition characterized by brief sudden attacks of deep sleep Narcolepsy
____ A degenerative disease that affects muscle control and coordination Parkinson disease
___ A congenital neural tube defect in which vertebra do not fuse Spina Bifida
Code Category for Neoplasms of the nervous system is ___ C70-C72
___ using a substance in a quantity or frequency that creates legal, employment, social, or family problems, or places the individual at physical risk without causing physical dependence. abuse substance
__ a usage pattern that involves compulsive reliance on a substance to the extent that is physically or psychologically difficult to stop, despite the significant problems it creates; also called ____ addiction, dependence
___ the manifestation of a mental disturbance that results in extreme or disruptive conduct, such as rage, withdrawal, or substance abuse behavioral disorder
___ an action that includes aggression, wandering, depression, delusion or hallucinations, sleep disturbances, or poor eating habits. behavioral disturbance
___ a measurement of the amount of alcohol present in the blood; also called ____ blood alcohol level, blood alcohol concentration
___ a state of confusion, restlessness, and incoherence delirium
___ a false belief that hinders the ability to function delusion
___ false visual, auditory, olfactory, or tactile perception hallucination
__ the modern term for mental retardation intellectual disability
___ a state of impaired function that occurs when more of a substances is consumed than a person can physically tolerate, resulting in behavioral or physical abnormalities intoxication
___ a psychological or physical condition that disrupts an individuals personality, mind, and emotions in such a way that it affects the ability to function and interact with others Mental disorder
__ a condition that results from impaired development of the nervous system during infancy or child hood Neurodevelopmental disorder
___ a mental condition of delusions of persecution Paranoia
___ the misinterpretation of surroundings or events Perceptual disturbance
___ a substance that has the ability to alter behavior, impair judgment,or create medical problems Psychoactive substance
__ a method of using nonphysical techniques, such as talking, interpreting, listening, rewarding, and role playimg, to treat disorders Psychotherapy
__ a condition characterized by the inability to distinguish between thoughts and reality, think logically, and have normal emotional and social relationships. Schizophrenia
___ a tendency towards being severely introverted schizothymia
__ the ability of a patient to absorb a substance before experiencing behavioral or physical abnormalities.q tolerate
___ consuming a substance in moderate amounts that do not create significant legal, social, employment, family, or medical problems use (Substance)
___ a form of dementia due to many small strokes Vascular dementia
para means ___ beside or beyond
noia means ___ mind
thymia and phrenia both mean ___ mind
___ abnormal difficulty in responding to life changes Adjustment
___ abnormal anxiety that interferes with normal activities anxiety
__ failure to develop or deterioration of mental comprehension Cognitive
____ Disruption in consciousness, memory, identity, or perception dissociative
__ serious disturbance in eating behavior eating
___ extreme difficulty in controlling impulses, despite the negative consequences impulse-control
___ instability of mood mood
___ persistent inflexible patterns of behavior that affect interpersonal relationships personality
____ delusions and hallucinations psychotic
___ repetitive and prolonged sexual activity and sexual dysfunction that interferes with normal relationships or daily activities sexual
___ abnormal sleep problems sleeping
___ physical symptoms that are not explained by medical conditions somatoform
___ drug and alcohol use, abuse, and addiction substance
__reduces tension, promotes relaxation alcohol, barbituate
___ reduces physical pain and anxiety narcotic (opiate)
___ stimulate, increases of feelings of confidence and elevates moods nicotine
___ increases feelings of confidence, alertness, and well-being stimulant
___ reduces anxiety, induces sleep tranquilizer
When coding mental, behavioral, and neurodevelopmental disorders it is in coding category ___ F01-F99
Coding Categories for mental, behavioral, and neurodevelopmental disorders due to psychoactive substance use coding category ___ F10-F19
Coding Category for intellectual disabilities use coding category ____ F70-F79
Created by: xokitty17xo