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2AX5X - 1

Self Test & URE Verbatim

List the personal characteristics that cause a person to perform an unsafe act or to overlook or tolerate an unsafe condition. Inattentiveness, excitability, impatience, and stubbornness.
What should be accomplished after any maintenance action? Police the area and leave it in a clean and orderly condition.
Failure to clean up drips and spills can cause what dangers? Slips and falls.
List the principles of RM. Accept no unnecessary risk; make risk decisions at the appropriate level; integrate RM into operations, activities and planning at all levels; and apply the process cyclically and continuously.
What’s considered to be the direct cause of many accidents? Unsafe acts and conditions.
What is defined as rough or boisterous play, but is a major cause of accidents? Horseplay.
What type of protective clothing do you wear while working around hot exhaust or tailpipes? Gloves and long-sleeve shirts.
What position do you assume to lift an object from a level lower than your waist? Squat with back straight; use legs to exert force.
Why must supervisors be given formal safety training? So they have a working knowledge of the fundamentals of accident prevention, and accident-prevention “know how” to train their personnel.
Name the two most frequent methods used in job safety training. (1) Personal interviews by the supervisor. (2) Stand-up talks.
When should you replace cracked or broken tools? Immediately.
What methods can you follow to prevent fires in maintenance areas? Don’t allow oily rags to accumulate, obey NO SMOKING signs, never put matches/cigarettes in wastebaskets, never allow your clothing to become saturated with flammables, and don’t store flammables in open containers.
What characteristics constitute a hazardous chemical? Combustible, unstable, irritant, explosive, water reactive, corrosive, flammable and toxic.
What should you do if your clothes become splashed or sprayed with chemicals? Leave the area immediately and remove them.
What information does MSDSs provide you? An explanation of the physical data of the chemicals you work with. Information includes, but not limited to the melting point, boiling point, flash point, toxicity, health effects, first aid, storage and spill procedures.
What information must be included on hazardous waste labels? The type of waste and the “accumulation start” entries.
What must be considered to make a sealant effective? Correct sealant be used for the specific area and applied correctly.
Sealants are packaged and available in what general U/Is? Two-part can kit, semkit cartridge, and premixed and frozen.
What TOs cover sealants, solvents, and adhesives? TOs 42A3-1-2 and 1-1-691.
What is the sealant application life? The length of time a mixed sealing compound remains usable at 77 °F and 50 percent relative humidity.
What is the purpose of solvents? Dissolve oily and greasy soils so they can be easily wiped away or absorbed on a cloth.
List three sources of antenna radiation. (1) High-frequency radio transmitters. (2) Radar. (3) Electronic countermeasure devices.
What are the effects of antenna radiation on the human body and vital organs? May cause burns beneath the skin, cataracts in the eyes, and internal organ damage as a result of heat produced as energy is absorbed into tissues.
Briefly describe the hazards associated with an overheated brake assembly. Blowout or fire.
From what direction do you approach an aircraft with overheated brakes? From the aircraft’s nose or tail direction—never in line with the axles.
List the major danger areas around an operating jet engine. Engine intake, exhaust, turbine plane of rotation, and high-intensity sound.
What’s normally considered a safe distance from an operating jet engine intake? 25 feet to the front and sides.
What is normally considered a safe distance to the rear of jet engine exhaust? 200 feet.
Why is the plane of rotation of the engine turbine wheel considered dangerous? If the turbine wheel disintegrates while you’re in the plane of rotation, there’s a good chance you’ll sustain serious or fatal injuries.
In addition to earplugs, what protective device do you wear when working in high-intensity noise areas? Headset or ear defenders.
Define an “explosives loaded” aircraft. An aircraft is “explosives loaded” when it carries munitions, internally or externally.
Where must an explosives loaded aircraft be parked? In a designated explosives parking area.
Which personnel are allowed to remove safety devices from explosive devices? Only weapons personnel.
Describe a composite material. Used throughout fuselage sections, wings, empennages, ventral fins, engine cowlings, and other panels and doors. Made of materials such as fiberglass, carbon fiber, Kevlar. Can present serious health and safety hazards.
As a minimum, what should the job safety training on composite materials include? Need for and use of approved PPE; maintenance and care of PPE; safe chemical handling procedures; and, emergency treatment practices in case of exposure, ingestion or inhalation of liquid, vapors, or dusts from composite operations
Besides being assigned to a crash recovery team, as a flight-line crew chief what is your most likely chance of being affected by the dangers of composite materials? Aircraft fire.
Why should AF personnel be so concerned about FOD? Because the damage it causes translates into the loss of resources, money, or, in a worse case scenario, someone’s life.
What can happen when loose objects are blown or washed onto the runway? An aircraft engine can ingest them into its intake.
Who is tasked with the overall responsibility for the FOD prevention program? WG/CV.
Who is responsible for preventing FOD by looking for and removing hazards? Everyone.
What must all workers account for at the beginning and end of each maintenance action? Tools and hardware.
If a missing tool is not found after a thorough initial search is completed, who initiates a lost tool report? The person issued the item or tool.
What must you wear when you are required to physically enter an aircraft engine’s intake or exhaust? Pocketless coverall (bunny suit) or equivalent.
To whom should you report damaged paving in aircraft parking areas and taxiways for immediate repair? Base airfield manager.
What is a dropped object as it relates to aircraft operations? Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item lost during aircrew operations from engine start to engine shutdown, unless intentionally jettisoned.
Who must develop a DOPP? All units that fly, service, or maintain aircraft.
What are the prime contributors to dropped objects? Latches and fasteners.
Who normally must investigate incidents as soon as they are discovered? QA.
What references provide guidance for servicing operations? AFI 91-203, TO 00-25-172, and specific aircraft TOs.
During fuel servicing, what three important points should you keep in mind? (1) Ensure you use the right grade fuel. (2) Protect yourself from health hazards. (3) Prevent fires and explosions.
What can result from prolonged fuel saturation on your skin? Skin can become irritated, and it could progress to a severe rash.
Why is it important to inspect fire extinguisher seals? To ensure the extinguisher wasn’t previously discharged.
What TO(s) lists criteria for positioning fire extinguishers? 00-25-172 and aircraft specific.
What’s the minimum safe distance for operating ground power equipment during oxygen servicing? 50 feet.
What should you do if a control valve becomes clogged with ice during LOX servicing? Thaw it with warm air or water.
What device is used to help prevent overpressurization of an aircraft component during pneumatic servicing? Pressure regulator.
Why do many job guides list nitrogen as the preferred choice for servicing compressed gas components? Because of nitrogen’s inert qualities.
When servicing aircraft hydraulic systems, what three measures should you take to prevent contaminating the aircraft systems? (1) When servicing with cans or drums ensure cleanliness and product integrity are maintained. (2) Keep products clearly identified and segregated. (3) Carefully read all labels before dispensing.
What references contain information about ground handling? Specific aircraft TO, AFI 11-218, AFI 91-203 and TO 00-25-172.
Where do most aircraft-specific TOs list safe for maintenance precautions? In the first couple steps of the task.
Preparations for aircraft launch include what? Checking the aircraft forms and obtaining all required AGE.
When the aircraft taxis after launch, what tasks are accomplished by the ground controller? Police the parking area and prepare the AGE for pickup.
During recovery, wing walkers are necessary under what conditions? When taxiing thru congested areas.
Why should an aircraft be moved in a straight line for 5 feet after a turn? To relieve the loads on the main landing gear.
As a general rule, where should you be positioned for marshalling your aircraft? In front of the aircraft and to the left of the pilot.
When is a safety observer positioned by a parked aircraft? When any portion of the aircraft extends into an active taxiway.
When mooring an aircraft, how do you position the aircraft in relation to the wind? Head the aircraft into prevailing winds.
What are the usual causes of towing accidents? Inexperienced personnel and failure to follow correct towing procedures.
What’s the minimum number of tow crew members? Three.
During towing, why do you start and stop all movements slowly? Sudden starts and stops may break rivets, bolts, tubing and aircraft structural members.
What should you do before towing an aircraft across an active taxiway? Get clearance from the control tower.
In addition to your aircraft’s -2 TO, what TO sets down the basic rules for grounding an aircraft? 00-25-172.
What are some of the reasons for jacking an aircraft? To weigh the aircraft, change a landing gear or gear component, repair a landing gear or gear component, perform a retraction check, or change a tire or brake.
What jacking accessory is positioned under reinforced areas of the aircraft and prevents damage to the aircraft structure? Jack pads.
If the aircraft TO doesn’t establish it, what’s the maximum wind velocity for a jacking operation? 15 mph.
The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2.
What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards? 98.
Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures? Manuals, TOs, and handbooks.
What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen? Initial.
A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than 0.1 percent.
Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by EPA.
Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days.
What affects radiation hazards? Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of 45°.
Which symptom is a sign of noise fatigue? Symptoms of sickness or injury; pain, a feeling of fullness, and a ringing or burning of the ears (tinnitus); dizziness, impaired mental concentration, and, occasionally, nausea, vomiting, or weakness; Emotional irritability.
When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices? Weapons personnel.
Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar you must remove all ammunition and explosives.
All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT (form)? 55.
The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to identify all possible sources of FOD.
Who is responsible for FOD prevention? Everyone.
When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent.
In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects? QA.
The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the green markings.
Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a 20-foot radius.
Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check? The aircrew.
When serving as fireguard, you position yourself even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 45 angle outboard of the engine being started.
What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals? AFI 11-218.
During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the “all clear to move” order? Supervisor only.
What is the basic function of maintenance? To ensure assigned aircraft and equipment are safe, serviceable, and properly configured to meet mission needs.
The degree of maintenance capability depends on what? Mission requirements, economics of repair, transportation limitations, component reliability, workload agreements, facility requirements, frequency of tasks, and special training required.
What are the two basic types of maintenance performed at unit level? (1) On-equipment. (2) Off-equipment.
What does preventive maintenance on our equipment help ensure? It is ready and available when needed.
What TO describes preventative maintenance concepts? 00-20-1.
What, if properly used, helps determine where your organization has been, where you are going, Maintenance Performance Indicators.
Which MPI is perhaps the best-known yardstick for measuring a maintenance unit’s performance? MC rate.
What are some of the issues that can contribute to a low MC rate? Experiencing many hard breaks, parts supportability shortfalls, workforce management issues, or high commitment rates.
Which MPI is perhaps the most important and accurate measure of a unit’s maintenance quality? Repeat/recur rate.
What can you do to contribute to keeping a low R/R rate? Ensure that you always use the proper technical data in all parts of inspecting, troubleshooting, and repairing aircraft.
When are discrepancies considered deferred/delayed? They are discovered and the decision is made to defer them; they are scheduled with a start date greater than five calendar days after the discovery date; or, they are AWPs with a valid off-base requisition.
What should you do if you have a lot of DDs and it will be a long time before your aircraft is scheduled for extended downtime? Coordinate with your production superindent and PS&D scheduler to get some downtime scheduled so that you can fix as many DDs as possible.
List three processes of the MDD system. (1) Collection. (2) Storage. (3) Retrieval.
What off-base agencies use the information provided through MDD? AFMEA, MAJCOMs, and the DOD.
On base, which individuals receive MDD information feedback? Base managers and supervisors.
Which major command is responsible for the overall material management of Air Force systems and equipment? AFMC.
What does ACM provide unit managers the capability to determine? Actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft.
In what TO can you find the details for recording specific entries of AFTO 781 series forms? 00-20-1.
What AFTO 781 series form is the identification document for the series binder? 781F.
What AFTO 781 series form is used for recording flight time, sorties, or events for input into the MIS? 781.
Aircraft maintenance status and servicing information is entered on what AFTO 781 series form? 781H.
What AFTO 781 series form is used to record discrepancies discovered by aircrew or maintenance personnel? 781A.
What AFTO 781 series form is used to record engine oil time? 781J.
What AFTO 781 series form is used to record delayed discrepancies and calendar inspection information? 781K.
What AFTO 781 series form is a continuation of the calendar and hourly inspection item schedule shown on AFTO Form 781K? 781D.
What AFTO 781 series form contains basic information to aid in making entries on the 781A and 781K forms? 781M.
What is AFTO Form 95 used for? For a permanent record of significant maintenance actions on aerospace equipment including engines, engine modules, and designated MDS specific -6 TO components.
What happens to the AFTO Form 95 when you remove and replace a component having an AFTO Form 95? It accompanies the equipment when transferred.
What is IMDS designed to give managers? Visibility and control of resources at unit level.
Which subsystem of IMDS provides the capability to order needed parts? IMDS CDB/SBSS.
Why are preventive maintenance schedules entered into IMDS? To help track and report completion, deviation or rescheduling actions.
What IMDS subsystem provides information about jobs performed by maintenance activities? IMDS JDD.
What is the purpose of the initial evaluation? To determine what specific tasks the individual is or is not qualified to do.
As a trainer, what is your responsibility in cases where a newcomer is qualified on a task required for the new work center? Reverify their qualifications to ensure that they are still proficient to perform that task.
What is a CFETP? A comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support resources, core home station training, and deployment/UTC task requirements for an entire AFS.
What type of information is found in Part I of the CFETP? Information necessary for overall management of the specialty.
In what part and section of the CFETP do you find information that identifies the duties, tasks, and technical references to support training? Part II, section A.
What is TBA? TBA is an Air Force Portal, web-based application providing Air Force personnel real-time visibility of qualifications, certifications and status of training.
What is the purpose of TBA? TBA allows authorized users with ready access to training-related information currently maintained in many different places and not readily accessible to those who need the information.
What is the description of the training manager’s role in TBA? This role has oversight of an organization.
Ultimately responsible for the personnel assigned. Commander.
Has the most capability in TBA. Workcenter supervisor.
All users will have access to this role. Trainee.
Manages one or more workcenters. Flight chief.
Initiates task authentication within the ITP. Trainer.
What makes up a TO library? One or more current TOs with all changes, revisions, and supplements maintained on a continuing basis or a special-purpose library that might contain noncurrent TOs.
Where would you find a transient aircraft library? On bases where it’s common to service or perform organizational- or intermediate-level maintenance on aircraft not normally assigned to the base.
What information is required on a TO binder? Binder number and the contents of the binder.
Utility aircraft. 1U
Trainer aircraft. 1T
Attack aircraft. 1A
Bomber aircraft. 1B
Fighter aircraft. 1F
What group of a TO number tells you the type of TO? Third group.
Maintenance instructions. -2
Flight manual. -1
IPB. -4
WUC manual. -06
Inspection requirements. -6
What are the functions of groups four through six of a TO number? They further subdivide the TO into system and subsystems as applicable.
ETIMS is web-based through the Air Force Portal to assist with what TO functions? TO catalog search and ordering of TOs and TO account management.
What’s the purpose of the LOAP? Provides a listing of all TOs that apply to a specific military system and related end items.
What are the four major types of TOs? (1) Technical manuals. (2) Abbreviated TOs. (3) TCTOs. (4) MPTOs.
Describe the types of information found in technical manuals. Instructions pertaining to operation, service, maintenance, inspection of complex weapon systems, and overhaul of component parts.
How are the columns in Section I of the TS manual labeled? Trouble, Probable Cause, and Remedy.
What schematic diagrams are included in Section II of the TS manual? Schematics of each related system for that TO.
Name three types of abbreviated TOs. (1) CLs. (2) WCs. (3) Charts.
Why does the Air Force use abbreviated TOs? To simplify use.
What are some examples of abbreviated CLs? Aircraft towing, aircraft jacking, oxygen servicing, refueling and defueling, and engine run.
What type of TO lists minimum inspection requirements? WCs.
What are the five types of TCTOs covered in the text? (1) Immediate action. (2) Urgent action. (3) Routine action. (4) Record. (5) Interim.
Which type of TCTO has red Xs around the first page? Immediate action.
What type of TCTO is issued for a potentially hazardous condition that could result in injury to personnel or damage to property? Urgent action.
Which TCTO is issued for a mechanical condition that would constitute a hazard through prolonged usage? Routine action.
Which TCTO does not list step-by-step procedures? Record.
How are ITCTOs issued? By electronic means when urgent circumstances don’t allow for a timely publication of emergency instructions.
What category are MPTOs? Category 00 (i.e., TO 00-5-1).
What form is used for TO improvement reporting? AFTO IMT 22.
What are the three classifications of TO improvement reports? (1) Emergency. (2) Urgent. (3) Routine.
Emergency TO improvement reports are submitted for what reason? When a fatality, serious injury, extensive damage, or destruction of equipment or property results or if it affects the ability to achieve or maintain an operational posture, including work stoppage.
What type of improvement report is submitted if safety could be jeopardized? Urgent.
What type of report is for TO deficiencies and is processed within 45 days? Routine.
What are the two categories of publications? (1) Directive. (2) Nondirective.
What type of publication does not list procedures or detailed “how-to” instructions? PDs.
What type of publication is used to direct action and ensure compliance across the Air Force? Instruction.
Which type of directive publication has two categories––departmental and field level? Manuals.
What is the purpose of an OI? To assign responsibility, direct actions, and prescribe procedures.
What nondirective publication that explains or instructs can be permanent? VA.
Where can you find a listing of current Air Force manuals, pamphlets, instructions, and VAs online? Air Force’s E-publishing web site.
What are the Air Force’s maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability? Organizational, intermediate, and depot.
What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need? Preventive.
Objectives of the MDD system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.
What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database? Select serially controlled and time change items.
What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil? 781F.
The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.
Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO 781J.
Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting? Item managers.
The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the unit level.
The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training.
When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your training program? Within 60 days of arrival.
Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC? CFETP, Part II.
The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.
Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency? Reference.
What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs? 1.
Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses? Remedy.
What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page? Urgent action.
Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22? 00-5-1.
Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency? Urgent.
Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what’s on the form? Pamphlet.
Information about nonpowered AGE can be found in which technical orders? The 35 and 37 series.
What are the basic parts of a maintenance stand? A base assembly, upper-structure assembly, platform assembly, and, on most stands, a hydraulic system.
How is the height of the platform adjusted on the B-1 maintenance stand? By the extension and retraction of a hydraulic cylinder assembly.
Which maintenance stand is best suited for performing maintenance and inspections on the vertical stabilizer and rudder? The B-2.
What should you ensure prior to standing on the ladder of a scissors-type maintenance stand? The safety pins are installed.
What should you do with the wheels of a B-4 or B-5 maintenance stand before towing? Lock the rear casters in the fore and aft position to prevent the wheel assembly from swiveling.
How is the operation of the model 4000/4100 maintenance trailer controlled? Hydraulically.
Other than transporting heavy loads, what’s an additional use for the model 3000 transportation trailer? Hold engines while inspections are performed.
What can happen to an engine that has not been properly supported? It could twist or bend, damaging the engine or its sub parts.
Describe what the two-hand pumps are designed to do in a hydromechanical jack? (1) The larger pump is used to raise the plunger at a higher speed to meet the load. (2) The smaller pump allows for greater ease of lift with a full load engaged.
How do you control the speed of lowering a jack? By the amount the release valve is opened.
Tripod jacks are generally used for what procedures? Weighing the aircraft; changing a landing gear or gear component; repairing a landing gear or gear component; or performing a landing gear retraction check.
What are some of the uses of the axle jack? A tire change, brake change, or wheel/bearing inspection and lubrication.
Aircraft oxygen systems are serviced with what two types of oxygen? (1) Gaseous. (2) Liquid.
What are the properties of LOX? Pale blue, water-like substance that flows readily; it boils at –297 °F and expands to 860 times its original volume when warmed to a gaseous state.
How much LOX does the TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank hold? 50 gals.
What is the pressure gauge range on a TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank? 0–100 psi.
What position should the pressure buildup valve on the TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank be in? Closed, except when building up tank pressure.
Why should LOX never be confined in any completely airtight piping or container? Because LOX expands 860 times its original volume and the pressure buildup when the liquid expands to gas will rupture the container.
What form is used to track all aircraft oxygen systems serviced with a specific LOX cart? AFTO Form 134.
What is stenciled in white on the side of each high-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinder bottle? AVIATOR’S BREATHING OXYGEN.
How many oxygen cylinders is the AF/M32R-3 oxygen-servicing trailer designed to transport? 8.
What is nitrogen used for in aircraft maintenance? Pressure-operated mechanisms.
Why is nitrogen the preferred gas for servicing aircraft systems? Because it is an inert gas that doesn’t form flammable or explosive mixtures with air or oxygen, nor does it support combustion.
The gaseous nitrogen cart is designed to use what method? Cascading.
What’s the primary function of powered AGE? Provides an auxiliary means of external power without operating the aircraft engines, APU (if equipped), or internal systems to support maintenance activities.
What happens to the waste product when the SGNSC separates the nitrogen from the air? It becomes enriched with oxygen (about 33% oxygen).
What is the purpose of the MC-1A air compressor? Provide high- or low-pressure, clean, dry air for servicing aircraft pneumatic systems, hydraulic accumulators, oleo struts, and tires.
How much compressed air is the MC-2A air compressor capable of producing? 15 cfm up to 200 psi.
How is heat increased or decreased on the H-1 heater? By allowing more or less fuel to enter the burner section.
How is heating accomplished on the NGH? By a 60 Hz alternator that powers a separate oil burner and combustion blower.
What is the temperature range of conditioned air provided by the C-10 air conditioner? 47 °F – 200 °F.
From where does the C-10 receive its source of air? Hot bleed air from a gas turbine compressor.
What’s the electrical power output of the A/M32A-86 generator? 115/200-volt, 400 Hz , 3-phase.
How much air is the A/M32A-60 capable of producing? Approximately 150 pounds of air per minute at 50 psi.
What source of power is used to start the A/M32A-95 generator? Nickel-cadmium battery, or two 12-volt gel pack batteries.
How much electrical power can the FL-1D trailer-mounted floodlight produce? 120 VAC, 60 Hz.
How high can the mast on the FL-1D trailer-mounted floodlight be raised? 12 ft.
How is power supplied to the MK-3A-3? By a 93 hp, 440-volt, 3-phase, 60-cycle, 1,760 rpm electric motor.
How is the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand driven? By a diesel engine.
How are the hydraulic systems designated on the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand? Primary and secondary.
What’s the primary function of a tow vehicle? Towing and parking large aircraft.
What is the adjustable height and lift capacity of the electric, split deck maintenance platform? An adjustable height from 6.7 feet to 36 feet and a lift capacity of 2,000 pounds.
Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet? B-2.
What are the scissor-type maintenance stand? B-4 and B-5.
What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support? 8,000.
On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is 20 mph.
What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft? Axle.
Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented? Everyone.
GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted green with a white band near the top.
When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by qualified operators only.
What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC? 49.
What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen? 4,400 psig.
The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to 3,200 psi.
The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of 200 psi.
The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from 150 to 280 °F.
What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner? 20 mph.
The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from 47 to 200 °F.
The A/M32A-86 generator set’s T-R produces 28.5 VDC.
What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance? A/M32A-60.
Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60? 35C2-3-372-11.
The FL-1D floodlight consists of two 1,000 watt lamp fixtures.
What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces? 20 mph.
What is used to drive the MK-3A-1? An electric motor.
How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated? Number 1 and Number 2.
The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid? 27 gallons.
The MB-4 Coleman incorporates four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive.
What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman? 20 mph.
What type of steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer? Hydraulic.
What TO covers aircraft hardware? 1-1A-8.
The size of a bolt is stated in what terms? Length, diameter, and threads per inch.
Define the grip length of a bolt. Unthreaded portion.
What type of bolt is available with thin heads for use in tight places? Hexhead.
What kind of bolt is used where shearing or sideways stress occurs? Clevis.
What special-purpose bolt is used where external tension loads are applied? Eyebolt.
What feature distinguishes the internal wrenching bolt from other bolts? The head is recessed.
List four kinds of nonself-locking nuts. (1) Plain. (2) Check. (3) Castle. (4) Wing.
List four uses for plain washers. (1) Provide a smooth bearing surface. (2) Act as shims to correct relationship between threads of the bolt and the nut. (3) Adjust the portion of castellated nuts with respect to the cotter pin holes. (4) Under lockwashers to prevent damage to surfaces
How are screws usually described? According to the shape of the head.
What type of rivet is usually used for fastening aircraft structures? Common, solid shank.
What type of aircraft fastener is not designed to carry a structural load? Quick-release.
How is a cable size determined? By the diameter of the cable.
Why are some cables coated with a nylon jacket? To increase the service life of the cable by keeping lubricants in and dirt out and dampening vibration.
What is the purpose of a turnbuckle? To adjust tension on aircraft cables.
Pulleys are made of what? Typically molded or machined phenolic of light alloy metal such as aluminum.
What keeps cables from coming in contact with structural parts of the aircraft? Fairleads
What’s the purpose of a pressure seal? To prevent the loss of pressure from pressurized areas through which cables pass.
What units are used to transmit motion about an axis and to change the direction of force of a cable or push-pull rod? Quadrants and bellcranks.
What is a control rod? A rigid rod that transmits push and pull motions.
What devices limit the movement of a control surface? Stops.
Where are torque tubes used in flight control systems? Where they’re needed to transmit a twisting force.
How are aluminum alloy and stainless steel tubing easily distinguished? By their different metallic luster; aluminum alloy tubing may be stamped with the actual alloy designation.
Where is aluminum-alloy tubing commonly used? As a return line.
Why is stainless steel tubing preferred on external brake lines and other exposed system lines? To prevent damage caused by flying gravel and stones and ground-handling accidents.
What color is an aluminum alloy tube fitting? Blue.
Describe the color-code tape used in identifying hydraulic lines. Blue band, a yellow band, and a white band overprinted with a row of black-bordered circles.
A system line is 38 inches long and passes through a bulkhead. The bulkhead divides the line so that 25 inches are on one side. How many bands of tape should the line have? Three; one on the 13 inch section and two on the 25 inch section.
Before you install a tubing assembly, you should inspect it for what conditions? Obstructions, dents, scratches, and damage to the flared end.
What can result from over-tightening a tubing nut? Severe damage to the tubing flare or damage to the sleeve or nut of the fitting.
What information can be obtained from the markings on flexible hose? The manufacturer’s code number or symbol marking, date of manufacture, size, and specification numbers.
What prevents chafing of a hose passing through a bulkhead? Bulkhead-type grommets or cushion clips
How should hose connections be made to an engine or engine-mounted accessories? Install the hose so 1½ inches of slack or an adequate bend is provided between the last point of support and the attachment to the engine or accessory.
What safety-wire method is most commonly used? Double-twist.
Using the double-twist method, how many closely spaced bolts can be safetied in a series? No more than you can secure with a 24 inch length of wire.
When is 0.032 inch safety cable used to safety parts? When parts have a nominal hole diameter of 0.075 inch or smaller.
What is a retaining ring? A retaining ring is a fastener that holds components onto a shaft or in a housing/bore when installed in a groove.
Where are axially assembled retaining rings installed? Installed into machined grooves in housings or on shafts.
How are beveled retaining rings held in place? Beveled retaining rings feature a beveled or angled edge. This angle allows the ring to wedge itself between the groove and the retained part until it can go no farther, effectively “locking” everything in place.
When are spiral retaining rings used? When there is little clearance between the housing and the part to be retained.
What parts of a Cannon plug ensure connector halves aren’t mismated? A key and keyway arrangement in the barrel of the plug and receptacle.
AN-type Cannon plugs are being replaced with what type of plugs? MS.
What TO provides information concerning connector repair? 1-1A-14.
Why is aluminum foil not used as a cover for Cannon plugs? May cause a short circuit.
Why should you not attempt to remove a Cannon plug’s insert from the shell? It is permanently bonded and can’t be removed without destroying it.
What do torque wrenches measure? The force of pull in pounds when tightening hardware; nuts, bolts, clamps, etc.
How do indicating-type torque wrenches display the applied torque? By a pointer that moves over an indicating scale.
What type of torque wrench automatically releases when you apply a predetermined amount of torque? Breakaway.
How much free travel does the breakaway torque wrench allow when the preset torque level is reached? Approximately 5 to10 degrees.
What may happen if you over-tighten a component greater than the value set on a torque wrench? It may cause internal damage to the torque wrench, it adds a higher torque value to the part, and part failure could occur.
What is the working range of a breakaway or indicating type torque wrench? Not lower than 20 percent and not greater than the rated capacity of the torque wrench.
When torquing a bolt, to what should you set the torque value? The upper limit of the specific torque value allowed by the TO.
When you’re using a torque wrench to tighten a series of nuts, do you tighten each nut to the specified torque before starting to torque the other nuts? Explain. No; gradually tighten each until they all meet the specified torque and tighten the nuts opposite of each other in sequence.
Before storing a torque wrench, to what setting should you set the grip? Why? Lowest; this removes tension from the spring in the handle and preserves the accuracy of the torque wrench.
Torque wrenches should have some kind of label (paper, tape, or other) on the handle. What information do you determine from this label before using the torque wrench? The calibration date.
What do you do if you discover that a torque wrench is overdue calibration? Don’t use it; turn it in for calibration.
What are the two stresses a fastener takes when tightened? (1) Torsion, and (2) Tension.
Why is breakaway torque measured? To ensure product integrity.
What is prevailing torque usually associated with? Self-locking screws and nuts.
What is a multimeter? A combined instrument consisting of an ammeter, voltmeter, and ohmmeter.
What is the major advantage of the Fluke multimeter? The ability to take readings without having to look at the display at the same time as you are looking at the test leads.
How many input receptacles does the Fluke meter have? Four.
What are the different Fluke meter modes of operation? Range, relative, minimum/maximum, and hold-reset/MIN/MAX.
When does the Fluke meter perform a self-test? Every time you turn the meter on.
Which measuring technique should you use for troubleshooting for a loose wire? Continuity.
What should be done if the digital meter goes from OL to 0 when performing a continuity check? Continue using it (this is the normal indication).
What is a feeler gauge? A tool used to measure the gap between two parts.
What is incorporated into the feeler gauge case? A locking screw.
What are three commonly used micrometers? Outside micrometers, inside micrometers, depth micrometers.
What determines a micrometer’s “range”? The longest movement possible between the spindle and anvil of the micrometer.
What do outside calipers measure? Outside diameters.
How are simple calipers adjusted? By pulling or pushing the legs to open or close them.
What are transfer calipers used for? Measuring chamfered grooves or flanges.
How are slide calipers graduated? Inches, fractions, or millimeters.
What is used on depth gauges as the reference surface or master standard from which measurements are taken? The supporting block.
What must be done to the depth gauge before any measurements are taken? You must zero the gauge before measuring any depth.
Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in lowtorque applications? Prevent corrosion.
How are special bolts identified? The bolt head is marked with the letter S.
Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems? Clevis.
Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications? An internal wrenching type.
Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the groove on the end of the barrel.
Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal? Soft rubber.
A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal.
What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing? 15 to 20 inches.
The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than 15 percent of wall thickness.
Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressures? 300 psi and below.
The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a 24 inch length of wire.
When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series? 3.
Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them? Axially assembled retaining rings.
Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove? Spiral retaining ring.
What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit? Pin-and-socket contacts.
In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates pin.
Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied? Indicating type.
Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached? b. Breakaway type.
Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting at least six times.
What are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened? Tension and torsion.
Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving? Static.
Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to move the decimal point.
When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the touch-hold mode is in use.
Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts? Feeler gauge.
What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer’s spindle and anvil? 1.0 inch.
Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut? Spring-joint calipers.
Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders? Odd-leg caliper.
Which caliper has the words “IN” and “OUT” stamped on the frame? Slide caliper.
Whose responsibility is supply discipline? All military and civilian employees, regardless of grade or position.
Why is it important to promptly process repairable items? The repairable item is as important as a serviceable item, since the repairable item may be the only part available.
List some examples of bench stock items. Nuts, bolts, cotter keys, washers, resistors, capacitors, light bulbs, sealants, and batteries.
How should operating stock be identified? Clearly identify items as “Operating Stock” and label them with their noun, NSN or part number (if applicable), U/I, and shelf life, if applicable.
What is the basic purpose of a QRL? To provide maintenance personnel with a speedy identification and communication capability for placing a demand on a supply.
What form is normally used to request parts/supplies? AF Form 2005.
What form is used to request items that don’t have an NSN? DD Form 1348.
What form is used as a control document whenever you loan a tool to another individual? AF IMT 1297.
What is the primary objective of the repair cycle asset control system? To bring about the economy of spares procurement through the effective management of assets.
When does base supply order a replacement DIFM item? When it is determined the unserviceable item cannot be repaired on base, or the item is condemned.
What documents are used to control a DIFM item through the repair cycle? DD Form 1348 and AFTO Form 350, Part II.
When shop action is complete, what form is used to tag the item for turn-in? AFTO Form 350.
What are the two categories of supply-type items that require turn-in? (1) Recoverable. (2) Consumable.
Unserviceable and scrap materiel should not be thrown out, but turned in to whom? DRMO.
Which part of the AFTO Form 350 serves as a production-scheduling document? Part II.
Which condition tags and labels are easily identified by their yellow margins and letters? DD Forms 1574 and 1574-1.
What’s the purpose of deficiency reporting? Establish a system to identify, report, and resolve deficiencies.
Which DR category, if uncorrected, would cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational illness? CAT I.
What DR category identifies a potential enhancement? CAT II.
What does the engine warranty program guarantee against? Defects in AFMC workmanship.
You submit reports against the engine warranty program IAW what directive? TO 00-35D-54.
What’s the purpose of the planned inspection and maintenance concept? Provides a method of performing required inspections and repairs on a scheduled and controlled basis.
Name the two overall inspection concepts used at base level to inspect aircraft. PH and PE.
Which insp. is due upon the accrual of the # of flying hours or operating hours, or at the exp. of a calendar period specified in the applicable MDS-specific -6 technical order, and is more extensive in scope than the HPO inspection or BPO inspections? PE.
What is the primary object of the PH inspection concept? To reduce the amount of time an aircraft is out of commission from a normal flight schedule for any given inspection package.
Which inspection concept consists of the HSC, major, and minor inspections? Isochronal.
Describe and briefly explain the use of the two primary aids of the planned inspection and maintenance concept. (1) Inspection WCs outline minimum inspection requirements. (2) SCs depict a basic planned work schedule and sequence in which the inspection WCs can be used.
How are WCs sequenced? In the most logical or practical order of accomplishment.
What TOs cover aircraft inspection concepts? 00-20-1 and the aircraft -6 TO.
What inspection is performed to ensure that no serious defects or malfunctions exist? PR.
What inspection is performed just prior to takeoff? EOR.
What type of inspection is performed between flights? TH.
When is a BPO inspection performed? After the last flight of the specified flying period.
If an aircraft is out of commission for more than 30 consecutive days, what minimum inspection is required before the aircraft is returned to operational status? A BPO.
Who determines the additional requirements for a 90-day NO FLY calendar inspection? MXG/CC.
Give three occasions when a special inspection may be required. (1) After a specified number of flying/equipment hours. (2) Following the lapse of a specific calendar time. (3) After the occurrence of a specific or unusual event.
When is an acceptance inspection performed? When an aircraft is newly assigned to an organization and on all aircraft and engines received from depot.
Under what two conditions must we comply with time replacement items? (1) After accrual of a specific interval of time. (2) Following the occurrence of a specific or unusual condition.
Why do you make periodic checks of accountable equipment on aircraft? To maintain control and serviceability of equipment.
Which form is used to transfer aircraft -21 equipment through transportation channels? DD Form 1149.
What form is used to indicate the physical presence or absence of aircraft -21 equipment? AF IMT 2691.
When aircraft -21 equipment is transferred with an aircraft, which form is used as a receipt document for the organization receiving the equipment? AF IMT 2692.
When is a weight and balance update required? Anytime a component weighs more than 5 pounds or causes more than a 0.1 percent change in CG is removed or installed.
Who updates the weight and balance? QA personnel must update the aircraft weight and balance records to check and show the CG difference.
What is the DD Form 365-1; CHART A used for? This form lists all equipment and other items that are or may be installed, and for which provisions or fixed stowage has been made in a definite location in the aircraft.
The DD Form 365-3; CHART C is used for what? All changes to the aircraft basic weight and moment regardless of the size shall be recorded (typed or clearly written in ink) on the Chart C to keep it correct and up-to-date.
When is an aircraft in balance? When all weight items in, on, or of the aircraft are distributed so that the longitudinal CG of the aircraft lies within a predetermined CG range.
What is the definition of arm? The distance of a weight from a reference datum.
What is the definition of battle damage? Damage sustained during combat operations.
What are the repair standards designed to do? To last for the projected aircraft life, restore structural members to their original strength and return all aircraft system components to a like-new condition.
What are the three fundamental preparations of ABDR? (1) Allowing the use of time-saving temp. repairs on certain types of dam. (2) Training maintenance personnel in the skills and techniques required to effect rapid repairs. (3) Provisioning the material necessary to accomplish rapid combat maintenance.
What has been a critical and decisive factor in successful military campaigns? The ability to quickly return battle damaged weapon systems to combat.
Who accomplishes aircraft battle damage assessments? Only fully qualified assessors from MAJCOM approved aircraft maintenance specialties.
What is corrosion? The electrochemical deterioration of a metal due to its chemical reaction with the surrounding environment.
What happens to iron exposed to moist air? Returns to its natural state––iron oxide or rust.
Produced by the effects of an alternating cyclic stress and corrosive environment. Corrosion fatigue.
Numerous worm-like traces of corrosion beneath the paint film. Filiform.
First seen as a general dulling of the surface. Uniform Surface.
Indicated by a lifting up or swelling the surface grains of a metal. Exfoliation.
Resembles a white or gray powdery, dust-like deposit on the surface of the metal. Pitting.
Occurs when different metals are in contact. Galvanic.
Is a selective attack along a metal’s grain boundaries. Intergranular.
Appears as corroded cracks in the metal. Stress.
May occur when a foreign material covers a surface. Crevice/concentration cell.
Which TO contains detailed instructions for corrosion prevention and treatment? 1-1-691.
Corrosion is removed using what overall method or technique? By the mildest effective technique.
The frequency of aircraft cleaning depends on what? The type of aircraft and the environmental conditions to which the aircraft is exposed.
What factors should be considered when selecting a cleaner? Type and amount of soil to be removed, material size and surface condition of the part, and degree of cleanliness required.
What is the most common type of solvent cleaner used on the aircraft? MIL-PRF-680, Type II.
What is the preferred type of cleaner for cleaning the interior cockpit, floor, and deck area? MIL-PRF-85570, Type II.
How do you clean optical glass? Spray the cleaner onto a flannel cloth, carefully wipe the lens surface, and then wipe dry with a clean flannel cloth.
What solution is used to treat areas affected with electrolyte from a nickel-cadmium battery? Bromothymol Blue.
What cleaning agent is used to clean light and moderate soils from the painted exterior of the aircraft? MIL-PRF-85570, Type I or Type II, or MIL-PRF-87937, Type II or IV.
What procedure do you use to clean landing gear’s exposed pistons? Clean with a clean cloth dampened with hydraulic fluid; wipe away from seals.
When outside temperatures are below 40 °F, where should the aircraft be cleaned? In an indoor heated wash rack.
What should you do if cleaner is splashed in your eyes? Rinse your eyes thoroughly with fresh water for 15 minutes and report to the nearest medical facility.
What are the purposes of lubrication? To prevent wear between moving parts, fill air spaces, displaces water, and provides a barrier against corrosive media.
What type of information is found on a lubrication chart? Items to be lubricated, type of lubricant, and method of application.
When can you apply a lubricant to a corroded surface? Never.
How do you properly lubricate all aircraft grease fittings? Force grease into fittings until new grease is evident.
In addition to your specific aircraft TO, where are safety and maintenance precautionary measures found? TO 1-1-691.
Since various hazardous materials are used during lubrication, what should be used at all times? PPE.
Why should you not wear rings, watches, or other metallic objects during cleaning/lubing your aircraft? Keep from getting caught in moving parts.
Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced? Supervisors at all levels.
Bench stock levels are established to provide a 30-day usage.
Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods? AF IMT 1297.
All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code? ERRC.
Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the AFTO Form 350.
Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters? 1577-2 and 1577-3.
Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.
Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific –6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle? Periodic.
Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections? Isochronal.
Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements? Programmed depot maintenance.
Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in inspection workcards.
Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems? EOR.
The TH inspection is normally performed after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled.
Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days? Calendar.
Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents? Acceptance.
To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form 1149.
Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance? 1-1B-50.
What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity? Aircraft weight.
Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy? “TRIAGE”.
Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is fabricated or manufactured.
Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is exhausted or salvaged.
What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains? Exfoliation.
What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal? Stress.
Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in TO 1-1-691.
After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery? Sodium bicarbonate.
Created by: TruongBradley
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