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S&D1

QuestionAnswer
_________ is used to measure lung diffusing capacity. Carbon Monoxide (CO)
The affinity of CO for hemoglobin is ____times greater than that of oxygen 210
DLO2 under resting conditions: ____ml/min/mm Hg 21
_____ ______ per minute is the total volume of new air entering the alveoli and adjacent gas exchange areas each minute. It is equal to the respiratory rate times the amount of new air that enters these areas with each breath. Alveolar ventilation
Normal _____ ______ equals 12 × (500 − 150) = 4200 ml/min. alveolar ventilation
Cardiac output = ___L/min 5L/min
PaO2 will be its normal value of ____ mm Hg 100 mm Hg
PaCO2 will be its normal value of _____ mm Hg. 40 mm Hg.
________ (V̇/Q̇ = 0). “wasted blood” perfused lung region that is not ventilated. Shunt
_____ ______ (V̇/Q̇ = ∞) = “wasted air” Ventilated lung region that is not perfused. [Pulmonary embolism or Tumor obstructing a vessel] Dead space
2-fold difference between_______ at the base and at the apex ventilation
5-fold difference between ____ _____ at the base and at the apex blood flow
Tuberculosis tends to be localized in the _____ because of a more favorable environment (i.e. higher oxygen levels ) apex
Theoretically, arterial PO2 , like the capillary PO2 should equilibrate with alveolar PO2. Physiologic gradient exists because of the physiologic shunts Normal Gradient: ____– ____ mmHg 5 – 15 mmHg
Hypoventilation, Diffusion limitation, Shunt,Ventilation-perfusion inequality are RESPIRATORY CAUSES of________
Intracardiac _____to_____ shunt, Reduced oxygen content (anemia and CO poisoning) , Decreased PiO2 are NON RESPIRATORY CAUSES of HYPOXEMIA right to left
drugs that depress the central drive to the respiratory muscles (e.g._____and_____ cause hypoventilation. morphine and barbiturates
There is ____ grams of hemoglobin in each 100 milliliters of blood 15
P50 is a functional way to assess binding affinity of Hb for O2 Normal:___-___ mm Hg 26-28 mm Hg
HbS (sickle) - valine instead of glutamic acid in the beta chains With ______ affinity for O2 a shift in the dissociation curve to the _____ reduced , right
-A CO pressure of only _____ mm Hg (a volume concentration of less than one part per thousand in air) can be lethal. 0.6 mm Hg
CO2 + H2O ->H2CO3 -> ______ [______] + H+ HCO3- [bicarbonate] 70%
Venous RBC therefore has ______ [Cl-] compared to arterial RBC higher
-HCO3- ions diffuse out of the RBC facilitated by Cl-,HCO3- exchanger, Chloride ions move inward → electrical neutrality maintained CHLORIDE SHIFT
The ______ _______ approximately doubles the amount of CO2 released from the blood in the lungs and approximately doubles the pickup of CO2 in the tissues. Haldane effect
_____ is the basic contraction unit of muscle. which lies between two Z lines. Sarcomere
I band (light) contains only _____ at rest. actin
______ (dark) contains both actin and myosin. A band
_______ is “fiber like” molecule 50nm long, wrap around F-actin helix. Cover active sites on G-actin molecules preventing attachment of myosin cross bridges. Tropomyosin
a complex of three contractile regulatory proteins, C, T and I, controls the calcium-mediated interactions between actin and myosin in cardiac and skeletal muscles. Troponin
The _____ ______ has several important characteristics: it has ATP binding site. It has ACTIN-binding site into which fits molecules of ACTIN. MYOSIN HEAD
stiffening of the body muscles [2-4 h after death], high calcium and no ATP to unbind myosin from actin. Rigor mortis
Phosphorylation of _______ leads to activation of SERCA pumps. leads to TERMINATION OF muscle CONTRACTION. Phospholamban
When the load (force opposing contraction) is greater than the force of contraction of the muscle, the muscle creates tension when it contracts but does not shorten. ISOMETRIC TWITCH  
When the force of contraction of the muscle is at least equal to the load so that the muscle shortens, the muscle is said to contract _____   isotonically, ISOTONIC TWITCH (iso-same; tonic- tension).
Slow-oxidative red fibers :High oxidative capacity due to high amounts of ________. Low myosin ATPase activity, slow contraction velocity (S type). Resistant to fatigue myoglobin
3 FACTORS AFFECTING THE FORCE GENERATION OF MUSCLE: [1]Frequency of Stimulation,[2] Muscle Fiber Diameter [3] Changes in Muscle (Sarcomere) Length
When a muscle is stimulated at a frequency so that twitches follow one another closely, the peak in tension rises in a step-wise fashion is called ______. treppe
As more and larger motor units are activated, the force of muscle contraction becomes progressively stronger. FIBER RECRUITMENT SUMMATION
_____ ______ accounts for most of the total force passive tension
First: (5-15 sec): muscle metabolism from ______ _______ creatine phosphate
_______stimulation increases Cardiac output by increasing the heart rate. Sympathetic
PARASYMPATHETIC CONTROL -Acetylcholine, released by the vagus nerve, binds to cardiac muscarinic receptors, which decreases intracellular ______ cAMP.
Spindle shaped cells,Relatively small ,No sarcomeres, no t-tubules, No troponin . Actin/myosin ratio: greater in _____ ______ (10:1) smooth muscle
_____ ______Serve as anchors for the thin-filament protein actin. Analogous to z-lines in striated muscle Dense Bodies.
____ _____ _____: Crucial for contraction in smooth muscle Myosin Light Chains
SMOOTH MUSCLE INNERVATION Neurotransmitter is released at ______ (swellings) found along the length of the axon. varicosities
Smooth muscle cells contract in groups also because of ___ ______ between cells that allow electrical signals to spread from one cell to another. gap junctions
These are found in places where fine control of contraction is needed such as respiratory airways and large arteries MULTIUNIT SMOOTH MUSCLE
Multi-unit smooth muscle is largely found in _______ sphincters
Multi unit smooth muscle is ______ - that is, its contraction must be initiated by a ______. neurogenic, neuron
Ca2+ binds to calmodulin and activates it -Activated calmodulin activates ________ Myosin Light Chain Kinase enzyme (MLCK)
_________ of Myosin Light Chain (MLC) by MLCK leads to _________cross bridges interact with actin to produce shortening Phosphorylation, Phosphorylated
troponin-I and T (e.g. encoded by TNNI3 and TNNT2 genes), are the preferred biomarkers for the detection of ______ ______. cardiac injury
in muscle too little preload = no room for ________ contraction
in muscle too much preload = ________ cannot form crossbridges
Maximum tension is produced when sarcomeres are about ____ to ____ μm long. This is the optimal resting length for producing the maximal tension. 2.1 to 2.2
_____ ______ is the difference between total tension (trace A) and the passive tension contributed by noncontractile elements Active tension
enzyme creatine phosphokinase (CPK); CPK is blood biomarker for ____ _____. muscle damage
_______decreases in length during the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber? Only the [I band] decreases in length as the muscle contracts. lengths of actin & myosin filaments do not change.A band [myosin filaments] does not change either. distance between Z discs decreases, but Z discs themselves do not change.
Sustained smooth muscle contractions are executed with minimal expenditure of ATP. In the ______state, ENERGY EXPENDITURE is less: latch
_______ ________ can block uptake of adrenalin (given to asthmatics) Tricyclic antidepressives
________functions as an efflux-pump in the kidney, brain, and G.I. tract, is affected by many ligands/drugs.found in the apical (luminal) membrane of the intestine as well as tissues with excretory functions and blood-tissue barriers P-glycoprotein
60% of all drugs are metabolized by ______ CYP3A4
The pharmacokinetic interactions of _______ with contraceptives can lead to pregnancy St John’s wort
95% of therapeutic drugs use______ in their metabolism CYPs
_______ of urine (with ammonium chloride, for example) is used after overdose with weak basic ligands (ie amphetamine) Acidification
______ of urine is used to increase excretion of weakly acidic ligands (ie salicylic acid) Alkalisation
this herb can cause Nonspecific inhibition of serotonin, noradrenalin, dopamine, GABA, glutamate uptake. Many more mechanisms ex COX-1 inhibition etc St. John’s Wort
Blocks 11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase -->cortisol inactivation in aldosterone-responsive cells Liquorice
A drug that kills harmful microbes without damaging the host selective toxicity:
a substance that is produced by one microbe and inhibits the growth/ viability of or kills other microbes. Antibiotic:
Chemical that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms. Antimicrobial agent
cancer chemotherapy Antineoplastic therapy
Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Monobactam, Vancomycin, Bacitracin,Fosfomycin are all _______ Inhibitors Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors
Aminoglycosides, Tetracyclines, Macrolides Chloramphenicol, clindamycin, Linezolid, Streptogramins are all ________ Inhibitors Bacterial Protein Synthesis Inhibitors
Fluoroquinolones, Rifampin _________Inhibitors Nucleic Acid Synthesis Inhibitors
Sulfonamides, Trimethoprim, Pyrimethamine are________Inhibitors Folic Acid Synthesis inhibitors
inhibit bacterial growth at drug serum levels achievable in patients. intact cellular immunity is required to get rid of the static bacteria. not preferred in immunocompromised. bacteria will resurface Ex's: Sulfonamides, Tetracyclines, Erythromycin Bacteriostatic agents
kill bacteria at drug serum levels achievable in patient. preferred for quick action (in seriously ill patients) & in immunocompromised patients Examples: Penicillin, Cephalosporins, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones Bactericidal agents
Chloramphenicol- _______ for Gm –ve rods, whereas ______ against Strep. pneumoniae bacteriostatic, bactericidal
Antimicrobial drugs exhibit various concentration and_______ _____ effects that influence their clinical efficacy, dosage and frequency of administration time-dependent
_____=lowest concentration of drug that inhibits bacterial growth based on the_____ , a particular strain of bacteria can be classified as susceptible or resistant to a particular drug Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
______ and ______ exhibit a CDKR against a large group of gm-negative bacteria (including Pseudomonas aeruginosa and members of the family of enterobacteriaceae) Aminoglycosides , Fluroquinolones
_____ and other _____ antibiotics usually do not exhibit CDKR . So, antimicrobial concentration should be maintained above MIC for the entire dosage interval penicillins, beta-lactam
After an antibacterial drug is removed from bacterial culture, if the antibacterial effect still persists– that is termed ______ PAE (Post-antibiotic effect):
______ show PAE (Post-antibiotic effect) against Gm+ve cocci Penicillins
_______show a PAE (Post-antibiotic effect) against Gm-ve bacilli Aminoglycosides
is the treatment that is initiated after specimens for laboratory analysis have been obtained but before the results of the culture are available .Broad spectrum antibiotic is given in case of life threatening serious infection Empiric therapy:
Lowest concentration of antibacterial that results in 99.9% decline in colony count after overnight incubation Minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)
_____and______ are contraindicated in patients with liver disease erythromycin, tetracyclines
Gray baby syndrome caused by ________ Chloramphenicol
Tetracyclines: if administered during pregnancy cause ______and ______ in baby *tooth dysplasia , *impaired bone growth
________should be avoided during pregnancy because of their ototoxic effect on the fetus Aminoglycosides
Started after obtaining the culture and sensitivity (C/S) report of the sample from the infection site. Specific (Definitive) therapy:
Inactivation of the drug by microbial enzymes - ______ and______ by acetyltransferases, enzyme that acetylate them aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol
So dose adjustment is done according to the creatinine clearance e.g., in case of_______. can cause renal toxicity Gentamicin
3 drugs known to cause an allergy: [1]Penicillins [2]Cephalosporins[3]Sulfonamides
_____ and _____ are much safer during pregnancy. Penicillins, cephalosporins
______drug administration means any non-oral means of administration, but is generally interpreted as relating to injecting directly into the body, bypassing the skin and mucous membranes. intramuscular (IM), subcutaneous (SC) and intravenous (IV) Parenteral
_____ _____ used in acute Rheumatic fever (ARF) and RHD (Rheumatic heart disease)>prevent streptococcal infection. Pretreatment in HIGH RISK patients with artificial heart valves undergoing dental extraction/procedures). prevent Influenza type A: Prophylactic antimicrobials
Three antibiotics used to treat anaerobic bacteria [1] Metronidazole [2]Chloramphenicol and [3] Clindamycin
combination of 4 First-line anti-tuberculous drugs First-line anti-tuberculous drug names are often remembered with the mnemonic "RIPE," referring to the use of a rifamycin (like rifampin), isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol.
Superinfections are difficult to treat Mild cases -discontinuation of the offending antimicrobial More severe cases treatment with_________. oral metronidazole
are bacterial enzymes that remodel and breakdown cell wall, and are involved in bacterial cell death Autolysins
_______ and _______ activate autolysins Penicillins and cephalosporins
penicillin type: acid-labile, parenteral – Repository (depot) form for IM injection Penicillin G (Benzyl penicillin) –Procaine and Benzathine
Anti-staphylococcal: very narrow spectrum, beta lactamase/penicillinase resistant penicillins Methicillin, Nafcillin, Oxacillin, Cloxacillin, Dicloxacillin
Aminopenicllins: Extended spectrum, beta-lactamase sensitive: Ampicillin, Amoxicillin
Carbenicillin, Ticarcillin Piperacillin, Azlocillin, Mezlocillin Antipseudomonal penicillins
1 international unit (IU) of crystalline benzyl penicillin =______ of standard preparation 0.6 µg
Concentration of Penicillin G in plasma can be increased by _____. It inhibits tubular secretion of penicillin (90% of Pen G is eliminated by tubular secretion and 10% by glomerular filtration) probenecid
_______ primarily excreted in bile**, can be given in renal impairment Nafcillin
Antistaph penicillins: ______ &______ are the Drugs of choice for treatment Staphylococcal infection Nafcillin, Cloxacillin
If Methicillin resistant Staph aureus: treat with_______ VANCOMYCIN
If VANCOMYCIN resistant Staph: treat with ________, _______/______ Linezolid, Quinupristin/Dalfopristin
Salmonella infections: _______ is good for typhoid carrier state . Ampicillin
Carboxypenicillins : Carbenicillin, Ticarcillin activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. high doses can cause? ______ bleeding
Platelet dysfunction* – is common with 2 antibiotics _____ &______ Carbenicillin, Ticarcillin
Penicillin injected in a syphilitic patient (particularly secondary syphilis) produce fever, malaise, joint pain exacerbation of lesions, hypotension etc causes _______-________ reaction : Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction :
Clavulanic acid , Sulbactam , Tazobactam are _________ Beta-lactamase inhibitors
______ or______ are preferred for treatment of meningitis caused by pneumococci, meningococci, H. influenzae and susceptible enteric Gm-ve rods Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime
broad-spectrum activity against Gram-positive bacteria, including MRSA and VRSA, and against organism involved in community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) 5th generation Cephalosporins- Ceftaroline
Cefoperazone and ceftriaxone are largely eliminated in the bile (hence can be given in patients with______ ______)** renal insufficiency
Cefoperazone, cefamandole, cefotetan, metronidazole cause a ________ like reaction Disulfiram like reaction
Ceftazidime is known to cause ______ Neutropenia –
Typhoid fever (DoC is___________, can also use third generation cephalosporins because equally effective) Fluoroquinolones [ciprofloxacin]
Synthetic ß-lactam antibiotics Carbapenems _______ & _____ Imipenem & Meropenem
________inhibitor of the renal dehydropeptidase Cilastatin
Imipenem is given with _______**** which inhibits imipenem’s metabolism to a nephrotoxic metabolite cilastatin
:Imipenem causes_______ seizures*
useful in patients with pseudomonal infection who are allergic to penicillins.***Penicillin allergic patients tolerate it (no cross-allergenicity with penicillins or cephalosporins) Aztreonam
“Red man” syndrome*** - type I hypersensitivity reaction - flushing and hypotension after rapid IV injection of_______ - due to histamine release. Vancomycin
Bacitracin Restricted to topical application because of its potential for _______ nephrotoxicity.
Inhibits incorporation of D-alanine into peptidoglycan pentapeptide .Used to treat tuberculosis caused by strains resistant to first-line agents. Causes dose-related central nervous system toxicity Cycloserine
bactericidal - binds to and depolarizes the cell membrane resulting in loss of membrane potential and rapid cell death. active against vancomycin-resistant strains Daptomycin
Penicillin G (Benzyl penicillin)as Drug of choice for ______ Syphilis
Third generation Cephalosporins Important in empiric management of_____and _____ meningitis and sepsis
currently drug of choice for infections due to Enterobacter Carbapenems: Imipenem & Meropenem
Clostridium difficile -> Pseudomembranous Collitis (__________ is the drug of choice Metronidazole
similar to vancomycin in mechanism of action and antibacterial spectrum Unlike vancomycin, it can be given IM as well as IV Teicoplanin
A mixture of polypeptides that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis. Active against various Gm +ve bacteria Restricted to topical application because of its potential for nephrotoxicity. Bacitracin
No 2nd generation Cephalosporins drugs enter the CNS, except _______ cefuroxime
(1) Aminoglycosides (2) Tetracycline bind to ________ (30 S) Ribosomal subunit
Macrolides (4) Chloramphenicol (5) Clindamycin (6)Linezolid/Streptogramins (50 S) Ribosomal subunit
Aminoglycosides a ________ dose is more effective ****and less ototoxic and less nephrotoxic than ________ doses single larger daily, smaller multiple
_____________ are always givenpoor absorption from the intestine: parenteral administration (IM or IV) one exception * Neomycin for hepatic encephalopathy will act topically in GI tract Aminoglycosides
It is resistant to aminoglycoside-inactivating enzymes Netilmicin and Amikacin
headache, vertigo, ataxia (reversible) (Strepto, Genta, Tobra) ____ ______ Ototoxicity Vestibular (reversible)
deafness (irrversible) (Genta, Tobra, Amika, Neo and Kana)______ _____Ototoxicity Cochlear (irrversible)
Atypical bacteria*: Chlamydia, Rickettsiae, and Mycoplasma the drug of choice is _________ Tetracyclines
Tetracyclines should not be taken with ____ and _____ dairy foods and antacids
Doxycycline particularly useful in ______(as it reaches high level in ________) prostatitis , prostate
Plague (Yersenia pestis): drug of choice is Streptomycin
outdated preparations of tetracyclines can cause ______ Fanconi syndrome***
used in patients allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics***** Macrolides
irreversibly bind to 50S subunit of bacterial ribosome and inhibits aminoacyl translocation and the formation of initiation complexes. Macrolides
Erythromycin binds with_____ receptors in GIT and increases intestinal motility Motilin
(single dose treatment with 1 g _______ is as effective as a 7-day course of _______ for chlamydial urethritis or cervicitis) azithromycin, doxycycline
Epigastric distress, Cholestatic jaundice – with _____ form of ______ estolate, erythromycin
______ and ________inhibit CYP450 enzymes and inhibit the metabolism of: Theophylline, Warfarin Terfenadine*, Astemizole* Carbamazepine, Cyclosporine Erythromycin and clarithromycin
Pseudomembranous colitis can be caused by _______ Clindamycin
Clindamycin used to treat ______ ______ and its concentration in bone** has clinical value in osteomyelitis Bacteroides fragilis
Fluoroquinolones [ciprofloxacin] are the drug of choice for _______ UTI's and Salmonella typhoid fever
binds to 50S subunit and inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by inhibiting the formation of 70 S initiation complex Linezolid
Linezolid Inhibits ______ avoid tyramine containing foods MAO
reserved for the treatment of Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus (VRE), MRSA, and multidrug-resistant streptococci. Streptogramins: Quinupristin/Dalfopristin
Streptogramins: Quinupristin/Dalfopristin, available for parenteral route only inhibits _________ cytochrome P 450
act by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase (Topoisomerase II), active primarily against gram –ve bacteria Quinolones
Anthrax: ________ is Drug of choice- for prophylaxis and treament Ciprofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin can cause ________ and _______ Cartilage damage, Tendonitis (arthropathy)-
______are structural analogs of PABA. They inhibit bacterial folic acid synthesis (Inhibits Dihydropteroate synthetase) Sulfonamides
Sulfonamides- acetylated derivative are insoluble in acidic urine precipitate in urine and cause ____. Advise patient to drink plenty of water. Crystalluria
drug of choice for Malaria Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine
drug of choice for Toxoplasmosis Pyrimethamine + Sulfadiazine
drug of choice for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia & Nocardia Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim (Cotrimoxazole)
drug of choice for Ulcerative colitis Sulfapyridine + 5-aminosalicylic acid (Sulfasalazine)
drug of choice for Sulfapyridine + 5-aminosalicylic acid (Sulfasalazine)
Silver sulfadiazine used burn dressings
Sulfonamides can cause ______ in G6PD deficiency*** in dose dependent manner and_____ in neonates Hemolysis, Kernicterus
Cotrimoxazole. The fixed dose ratio of dose combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole. ____:____ ( S : T )** leads to plasma concentration ratio of 20 : 1** 5 : 1
_______and _______ penetrate bone Ciprofloxacin and clindamycin
_____ ________ DRUGS : act on the parasite in the lumen of the bowel Diloxanide furoate, Iodoquinol, Paromomycin LUMINAL AMEBICIDAL
______ ______ DRUGS : effective against amebas in the intestinal wall and liver Chloroquine – exclusively for liver Emetine and dehydroemetine – cardiotoxic –reserved SYSTEMIC AMEBICIDAL
______ _______DRUGS effective against both luminal and systemic forms Metronidazole, Tinidazole, Secnidazole, Ornidazole MIXED : LUMINAL+ SYSTEMIC AMEBICIDAL
metronidazole forms Reduced_____ ______ and destroys DNA & proteins of protozoa/anerobes cytotoxic intermediates
Used in the treatment of giardiasis & cryptosporidiosis (most effective) Nitazoxanide
used in combination with Metronidazole and Diloxanoide furoate/ Iodoquinol to treat and prevent amebic liver abscess Chloroquine
drug of choice for Giardiasis caused by Giardia lamblia Metronidazole
____________: given with Pyrimethamine + Sulfadiazine when treating Toxoplasmosis to prevent the hematologic toxicities Leucovorin (folinic acid)
Trypanosoma cruzi treated with ______, ______ Nifurtimox, Benznidazole
Very reactive & inhibits many enzymes involved in energy metabolism; trypanocidal . early treatment (before organism invades CNS) prophylaxis of African trypanosomiasis Suramin
MOA: Reacts with sulfahydryl groups of various substances including enzymes in the organism, leading to toxic effect on the organism. DoC: in case the organism (Trypanosoma) invading CNS-late-stage Melarsoprol
1st line treatment for Leishmaniasis is _______. MOA: Inhibits glycolysis in the parasite… Sodium stibogluconate
2nd line treatment for Leishmaniasis is _______ or _______. Pentamidine and amphotericin B
for treatment of P. vivax or P. ovale because they relapse due to hypnozoites Chloroquine + primaquine
Chloroquine-resistant malarias Prophylaxis: ______ Mefloquine
Chloroquine-resistant malaria treatment quinine +/– either _____ or ______ or ________ doxycycline , clindamycin, pyrimethamine
___________ used as a 2nd line antifungal for those patients who have failed or cannot tolerate Amphotericin B or Itraconazole Capsofungin
anti fungal that causes Hematological toxicity*****Bone marrow suppression Flucytosine
_______ interacts/binds to ERGOSTEROL in the fungal cell membrane Pore formation in the cell membrane Amphotericin B
Amphotericin B available as ________*** preparations to reduce nephrotoxicity and infusion related toxicity liposomal
Amphotericin B Nephrotoxicity can be minimized by use of liposomal amphotericin B or by drug combinations with _____ flucytosine
use is restricted to topical treatment of Candida infection because of severe systemic toxicity Nystatin
class of antifungals that Interferes with the ergosterol synthesis Inhibits 14-alfa demethylase (a fungal CYP450 enzyme), blocks demethylation of lanosterol to ergosterol Azoles
______is a 2nd-line drug (back up drug) and is a less expensive alternative for the treatment of mucocutaneous candidiasis (given orally) Ketoconazole
antifungal that Blocks androgen and adrenal steroid synthesis. Can cause: Gynecomastia, decreased libido, impotence, menstrual irregularities Ketoconazole
Ketoconazole Inhibits ________ CYP450 enzyme.
_____ is the Drug of choice for: [1]Cryptococcal meningitis [2]Candidal infections [3]Coccidioidomycosis Fluconazole
______ is the Azole of choice for Blastomycosis, sporotrichosis, paracoccidiodomycosis, histoplasmosis Itraconazole
Approved for the treatment of invasive aspergillosis (DoC) and serious infections caused by Fusarium spp Voriconazole
Binds to microtubules, prevents spindle formation and inhibits mitosis**** in fungi Griseofulvin
drug of choice for Tinea capitis in children for efficacy, safety, and availability as an oral suspension Griseofulvin
most serious adverse reaction of Griseofulvin is ______ acute intermittent porphyria
DoC for treating dermatophytoses, especially onychomycoses (fungal infections of nails, toenail/fingernail)**** Terbinafine
Terbinafine inhibits _____ _____ ______, thereby decreasing the synthesis of ergosterol fungal squalene epoxidase
Inhibition of glucan synthesis reduces structural integrity of the fungal cell wall, resulting in osmotic instability, disruption of the fungal cell wall and cell death Echinocandins: Caspofungin
class of antihelmnitics[2 drugs]: bind to the beta-tubulin inhibit the polymerization of tubulin dimers and prevent assembly of microtubules inhibit glucose uptake by nematodes, resulting in glycogen depletion, decreased ATP production. Benzimidazoles: Mebendazole and Albendazole
_____ is the drug of choice for : Cysticercosis, Cystic hydatid disease (Echinococcosis), Visceral larva migrans Albendazole
_____ causes Spastic paralysis in worms by; acts as depolarizing neuromuscular blocker causing persistent activation of cholinergic nitotinic receptors in the somatic muscles of nematodes Pyrantel pamoate
Causes paralysis in worms by blocking ACh at the myoneural junction (Flaccid Paralysis); as a result parasites can not maintain their position in the host and live worms are expelled during peristalsis Piperazine citrate
acts as a GABA agonist: increases cl- permeability of worm muscle cells and causes paralysis of worm Ivermectin
is the drug of choice for :Onchocerciasis (river blindness), Strongyloidiasis , Ectoparasitic infection: Ivermectin:
Drug of choice for Loiasis, filariasis and tropical pulmonary eosionophila Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)
used in the t/t of filariasis ---- it immobilizes microfilariae and it also disrupts their membranes, and render them susceptible to host-defense mechanisms Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)
Diethylcarbamazine (DEC) is given in combination with ______ as single annual dose to Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis (elephantiasis) Albendazole
_______ causes paralysis of the worm due to increased cell membrane permeability of calcium. also causes tegmental damage, with host-defense activation and destruction of the worm Praziquantel
Drug of choice for Flukes (Trematodes):Schistosomiasis, Chinese fluke (Clonorchis), Lung fluke (Paragonimus) Praziquantel
contraindicated C/I in the treatment of Ocular cysticercosis : because of the host-defense induced irreversible eye damage (destruction of the organism in the eye can damage eye ) Praziquantel
MOA : Inhibits parasite respiration DoC for Fasciola hepatica infection (Sheep liver fluke infection) Bithionol
A ______ is administered with niclosamide; this is to purge the bowel of all the dead segments and so preclude digestion and liberation of ova, which may lead to cysticercosis. laxative
MOA: inhibits glucose uptake, oxidative phosphorylation, and anaerobic metabolism of the parasite niclosamide
Blocks sodium currents in the neurons of parasite and causes paralysis. Therapeutic Uses: Pediculosis Scabies Permethrin
Created by: SabaMDJuan